Fibular Nerve Injury After Small Saphenous Vein Surgery

Superficial nerve injuries are very common during varicose vein surgery. In contrast, deep nerve injuries are rare and reported especially when surgery involves the small saphenous vein (SSV). The deep motor nerves most commonly injured are the tibial nerve and the peroneal nerve, which are directly or indirectly affected by extrinsic compression, stretching, or healing process involvement. In this report, two cases of common fibular nerve injury after SSV stripping are described, including treatment used and patient outcomes. Nerve damage mechanisms, anatomy, and prevention strategies are also discussed. In conclusion, fibular nerve damage may occur during SSV stripping. Preventive measures include careful preoperative ultrasonographic investigation of the anatomy of the vein, determining location of the saphenopopliteal joint, and careful dissection far from fibular nerve and restricted to the popliteal fossa.

Three-year follow-up study of respiratory and systemic manifestations of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

Fundação de Amparo à Pesquisa do Estado de São Paulo (FAPESP)

Intravenous versus inhalation anaesthesia for one-lung ventilation

BackgroundThis is an update of a Cochrane Review first published in The Cochrane Library, Issue 2, 2008.The technique called one-lung ventilation can confine bleeding or infection to one lung, prevent rupture of a lung cyst or, more commonly, facilitate surgical exposure of the unventilated lung. During one-lung ventilation, anaesthesia is maintained either by delivering an inhalation anaesthetic to the ventilated lung or by infusing an intravenous anaesthetic. It is possible that the method chosen to maintain anaesthesia may affect patient outcomes. Inhalation anaesthetics may impair hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction (HPV) and increase intrapulmonary shunt and hypoxaemia.ObjectivesThe objective of this review was to evaluate the effectiveness and safety of intravenous versus inhalation anaesthesia for one-lung ventilation.Search methodsWe searched the Cochrane Central Register of Controlled Trials (CENTRAL); The Cochrane Library (2012, Issue 11); MEDLINE (1966 to November 2012); EMBASE (1980 to November 2012); Literatura Latino-Americana e do Caribe em Ciencias da Saude (LILACS, 1982 to November 2012) and ISI web of Science (1945 to November 2012), reference lists of identified trials and bibliographies of published reviews. We also contacted researchers in the field. No language restrictions were applied. The date of the most recent search was 19 November 2012. The original search was performed in June 2006.Selection criteriaWe included randomized controlled trials and quasi-randomized controlled trials of intravenous (e. g. propofol) versus inhalation (e. g. isoflurane, sevoflurane, desflurane) anaesthesia for one-lung ventilation in both surgical and intensive care participants. We excluded studies of participants who had only one lung (i.e. pneumonectomy or congenital absence of one lung).Data collection and analysisTwo review authors independently assessed trial quality and extracted data. We contacted study authors for additional information.Main resultsWe included in this updated review 20 studies that enrolled 850 participants, all of which assessed surgical participants no studies investigated one-lung ventilation performed outside the operating theatre. No evidence indicated that the drug used to maintain anaesthesia during one-lung ventilation affected participant outcomes. The methodological quality of the included studies was difficult to assess as it was reported poorly, so the predominant classification of bias was 'unclear'.Authors' conclusionsVery little evidence from randomized controlled trials suggests differences in participant outcomes with anaesthesia maintained by intravenous versus inhalational anaesthesia during one-lung ventilation. If researchers believe that the type of drug used to maintain anaesthesia during one-lung ventilation is important, they should design randomized controlled trials with appropriate participant outcomes, rather than report temporary fluctuations in physiological variables.

Recurrent genomic alterations in sequential progressive leukoplakia and oral cancer: drivers of oral tumorigenesis?

A significant proportion (up to 62) of oral squamous cell carcinomas (OSCCs) may arise from oral potential malignant lesions (OPMLs), such as leukoplakia. Patient outcomes may thus be improved through detection of lesions at a risk for malignant transformation, by identifying and categorizing genetic changes in sequential, progressive OPMLs. We conducted array comparative genomic hybridization analysis of 25 sequential, progressive OPMLs and same-site OSCCs from five patients. Recurrent DNA copy number gains were identified on 1p in 20/25 cases (80) with minimal, high-level amplification regions on 1p35 and 1p36. Other regions of gains were frequently observed: 11q13.4 (68), 9q34.13 (64), 21q22.3 (60), 6p21 and 6q25 (56) and 10q24, 19q13.2, 22q12, 5q31.2, 7p13, 10q24 and 14q22 (48). DNA losses were observed in 20 of samples and mainly detected on 5q31.2 (35), 16p13.2 (30), 9q33.1 and 9q33.29 (25) and 17q11.2, 3p26.2, 18q21.1, 4q34.1 and 8p23.2 (20). Such copy number alterations (CNAs) were mapped in all grades of dysplasia that progressed, and their corresponding OSCCs, in 70 of patients, indicating that these CNAs may be associated with disease progression. Amplified genes mapping within recurrent CNAs (KHDRBS1, PARP1, RAB1A, HBEGF, PAIP2, BTBD7) were selected for validation, by quantitative real-time PCR, in an independent set of 32 progressive leukoplakia, 32 OSSCs and 21 non-progressive leukoplakia samples. Amplification of BTBD7, KHDRBS1, PARP1 and RAB1A was exclusively detected in progressive leukoplakia and corresponding OSCC. BTBD7, KHDRBS1, PARP1 and RAB1A may be associated with OSCC progression. Proteinprotein interaction networks were created to identify possible pathways associated with OSCC progression.

The impact of pretransplant donor-specific antibodies on graft outcome in renal transplantation: a six-year follow-up study

OBJECTIVE: The significance of pretransplant, donor-specific antibodies on long-term patient outcomes is a subject of debate. This study evaluated the impact and the presence or absence of donor-specific antibodies after kidney transplantation on short-and long-term graft outcomes. METHODS: We analyzed the frequency and dynamics of pretransplant donor-specific antibodies following renal transplantation from a randomized trial that was conducted from 2002 to 2004 and correlated these findings with patient outcomes through 2009. Transplants were performed against a complement-dependent T-and B-negative crossmatch. Pre- and posttransplant sera were available from 94 of the 118 patients (80%). Antibodies were detected using a solid-phase (Luminex (R)), single-bead assay, and all tests were performed simultaneously. RESULTS: Sixteen patients exhibited pretransplant donor-specific antibodies, but only 3 of these patients (19%) developed antibody-mediated rejection and 2 of them experienced early graft losses. Excluding these 2 losses, 6 of 14 patients exhibited donor-specific antibodies at the final follow-up exam, whereas 8 of these patients (57%) exhibited complete clearance of the donor-specific antibodies. Five other patients developed "de novo'' posttransplant donor-specific antibodies. Death-censored graft survival was similar in patients with pretransplant donor-specific and non-donor-specific antibodies after a mean follow-up period of 70 months. CONCLUSION: Pretransplant donor-specific antibodies with a negative complement-dependent cytotoxicity crossmatch are associated with a risk for the development of antibody-mediated rejection, although survival rates are similar when patients transpose the first months after receiving the graft. Our data also suggest that early posttransplant donor-specific antibody monitoring should increase knowledge of antibody dynamics and their impact on long-term graft outcome.

Low mechanical ventilation times and reintubation rates associated with a specific weaning protocol in an intensive care unit setting: a retrospective study

OBJECTIVES: A number of complications exist with invasive mechanical ventilation and with the use of and withdrawal from prolonged ventilator support. The use of protocols that enable the systematic identification of patients eligible for an interruption in mechanical ventilation can significantly reduce the number of complications. This study describes the application of a weaning protocol and its results. METHODS: Patients who required invasive mechanical ventilation for more than 24 hours were included and assessed daily to identify individuals who were ready to begin the weaning process. RESULTS: We studied 252 patients with a median mechanical ventilation time of 3.7 days (interquartile range of 1 to 23 days), a rapid shallow breathing index value of 48 (median), a maximum inspiratory pressure of 40 cmH2O, and a maximum expiratory pressure of 40 cm H2O (median). Of these 252 patients, 32 (12.7%) had to be reintubated, which represented weaning failure. Noninvasive ventilation was used postextubation in 170 (73%) patients, and 15% of these patients were reintubated, which also represented weaning failure. The mortality rate of the 252 patients studied was 8.73% (22), and there was no significant difference in the age, gender, mechanical ventilation time, and maximum inspiratory pressure between the survivors and nonsurvivors. CONCLUSIONS: The use of a specific weaning protocol resulted in a lower mechanical ventilation time and an acceptable reintubation rate. This protocol can be used as a comparative index in hospitals to improve the weaning system, its monitoring and the informative reporting of patient outcomes and may represent a future tool and source of quality markers for patient care.

HIV-1 tropism and CD4 T lymphocyte recovery in a prospective cohort of patients initiating HAART in Ribeirao Preto, Brazil

While human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-1 chemokine co-receptors 5 tropism and the GWGR motif in the envelope third variable region (V3 loop) have been associated with a slower disease progression, their influence on antiretroviral response remains unclear. The impact of baseline V3 characteristics on treatment response was evaluated in a randomised, double blind, prospective cohort study with patients initiating highly active antiretroviral therapy with lopinavir or efavirenz plus azithothymidine/3TC (1:1) over 48 weeks. Similar virological and immunological responses were observed for both treatment regimens. The 43 individuals had a mean baseline CD4 T cell count of 119 cells/mm(3) [standard deviation (SD) = 99] and a mean viral load of 5.09 log(10) copies/mL (SD = 0.49). The GWGR motif was not associated with a CD4 T cell response, but predicted R5 tropism by the geno2pheno([clinical20%]) algorithm correlated with higher CD4 T cell levels at all monitoring points (p < 0.05). Moreover, higher false-positive rates (FPR) values from this analysis revealed a strong correlation with CD4 T cell recovery (p < 0.0001). Transmitted drug resistance mutations, documented in 3/41 (7.3%) cases, were unrelated to the assigned antiretroviral regimen and had no impact on patient outcomes. In conclusion, naive HIV-1 R5 infected patients exhibited higher CD4 T cell counts at baseline; this difference was sustained throughout therapy. The geno2pheno[clinical] option FPR positively correlated with CD4 T cell gain and may be useful in predicting CD4 T cell recovery.

Immune expression of E-cadherin and alpha, beta and gamma-Catenin adhesion molecules and prognosis for upper urinary tract urothelial carcinomas

Introduction: Cell adhesion molecules (CAM) are required for maintaining a normal epithelial phenotype, and abnormalities in CAM expression have been related to cancer progression, including bladder urothelial carcinomas. There is only one study that correlates E-cadherin and alpha-, beta- and gamma-catenin expression with prognosis of upper tract urothelial carcinomas. Our aim is to study the pattern of immune expression of these CAMs in urothelial carcinomas from the renal pelvis and ureter in patients who have been treated surgically. Our goal is to correlate these expression levels and characteristics with well-known prognostic parameters for disease-free survival. Materials and Methods: We evaluated specimens from 20 patients with urothelial carcinomas of the renal pelvis and ureter who were treated with nephroureterectomy or ureterectomy between June 1997 and January 2007. CAM expression was evaluated by immunohistochemistry in a tissue microarray and correlated with histopathological characteristics and patient outcomes after a mean follow-up of 55 months. Results: We observed a relationship between E-cadherin expression and disease recurrence. Disease recurrence occurred in 87.5% of patients with strong E-cadherin expression. Only 50.0% of patients with moderate expression and 0% of patients with weak or no expression of E-cadherin had disease recurrence (p = 0.014). There was also a difference in disease-free survival. Patients with strong E-cadherin expression had a mean disease-free survival rate of 49.1 months, compared to 83.9 months for patients with moderate expression (p = 0.011). Additionally, an absence of a-catenin expression was associated with tumors that were larger than 3 cm (p = 0.003). Conclusions: We demonstrated for the first time that immune expression of E-cadherin is related to tumor recurrence and disease-free survival rates, and the absence of a-catenin expression is related to tumor size in upper tract urothelial carcinomas.

Nursing care time in the Intensive Care Unit: evaluation of the parameters proposed in COFEN Resolution N degrees 293/04

This study aimed to evaluate the parameters established in COFEN Resolution 293/04 concerning nursing staff dimensioning in adult intensive care units (AICU). The research was conducted in six hospitals in Sao Paulo City. The daily quantitative average of professionals needed for patient care was calculated according to the parameters established by COFEN. The obtained results were compared with the existing number of daily staff members in these units. It was observed that the proportions recommended by COFEN for the nurse category are superior to those used in the hospitals studied, which represents a challenge for Brazilian nursing. Mean care time values were found appropriate and represent important standards for dimensioning the minimum number of professionals in AICU. This study contributed to the validation of the parameters indicated in Resolution 293/04 for nursing staff dimensioning in the AICU.

Whither lung EIT: Where are we, where do we want to go and what do we need to get there?

Breathing moves volumes of electrically insulating air into and out of the lungs, producing conductivity changes which can be seen by electrical impedance tomography (EIT). It has thus been apparent, since the early days of EIT research, that imaging of ventilation could become a key clinical application of EIT. In this paper, we review the current state and future prospects for lung EIT, by a synthesis of the presentations of the authors at the 'special lung sessions' of the annual biomedical EIT conferences in 2009-2011. We argue that lung EIT research has arrived at an important transition. It is now clear that valid and reproducible physiological information is available from EIT lung images. We must now ask the question: How can these data be used to help improve patient outcomes? To answer this question, we develop a classification of possible clinical scenarios in which EIT could play an important role, and we identify clinical and experimental research programmes and engineering developments required to turn EIT into a clinically useful tool for lung monitoring.

Exercise training prevents the microvascular rarefaction in hypertension balancing angiogenic and apoptotic factors role of microRNAs-16,-21, and -126

Aerobic exercise training (ET) lowers hypertension and improves patient outcomes in cardiovascular disease. The mechanisms of these effects are largely unknown. We hypothesized that ET modulates microRNAs (miRNAs) involved in vascularization. miRNA-16 regulates the expression of vascular endothelial growth factor and antiapoptotic protein Bcl-2. miRNA-21 targets Bcl-2. miRNA-126 functions by repressing regulators of the vascular endothelial growth factor pathway. We investigated whether miRNA-16, -21 and -126 are modulated in hypertension and by ET. Twelve-week-old male spontaneously hypertensive rats (SHRs; n=14) and Wistar Kyoto (WKY; n=14) rats were assigned to 4 groups: SHRs, trained SHRs (SHR-T), Wistar Kyoto rats, and trained Wistar Kyoto rats. ET consisted of 10 weeks of swimming. ET reduced blood pressure and heart rate in SHR-Ts. ET repaired the slow-to-fast fiber type transition in soleus muscle and the capillary rarefaction in SHR-Ts. Soleus miRNA-16 and -21 levels increased in SHRs paralleled with a decrease of 48% and 25% in vascular endothelial growth factor and Bcl-2 protein levels, respectively. Hypertension increased Bad and decreased Bcl-x and endothelial NO synthase levels and lowered p-Bad(ser112): Bad ratio. ET in SHR-Ts reduced miRNA-16 and -21 levels and elevated vascular endothelial growth factor and Bcl-2 levels. ET restored soleus endothelial NO synthase levels plus proapoptotic and antiapoptotic mediators in SHR-Ts, indicating that the balance between angiogenic and apoptotic factors may prevent microvascular abnormalities in hypertension. miRNA-126 levels were reduced in SHRs with an increase of 51% in phosphoinositol-3 kinase regulatory subunit 2 expression but normalized in SHR-Ts. Our data show that ET promoted peripheral revascularization in hypertension, which could be associated with regulation of select miRNAs, suggesting a mechanism for its potential therapeutic application in vascular diseases. (Hypertension. 2012;59[part 2]:513-520.). Online Data Supplement

Prognostication of Soft Tissue Sarcomas Based on Chromosome 17q Gene and Protein Status: Evaluation of TOP2A, HER-2/neu, and Survivin

Topoisomerase 2 alpha (), HER-2/ and are genes that lie on chromosome 17 and correlate with the prognosis and prediction of target-driven therapy against tumors. In a previous study, we showed that TOP2A transcripts levels were significantly higher in soft tissue sarcomas (STS) than in benign tumors and desmoid-type fibromatoses (FM). Because these genes have been insufficiently examined in STS, we aimed to identify alterations in TOP2A and HER-2 expression by fluorescent in situ hybridization and immunohistochemistry, as well as that of survivin, and correlate them with clinicopathologic findings to assess their prognostic value. Eighteen FM and 244 STS were included. Fluorescent in situ hybridization and immunohistochemistry were performed on a tissue microarray. TOP2A and survivin were more highly expressed in sarcomas than in FM. TOP2A was an independent predictor of an unfavorable prognosis; it was combined with formerly established prognostic factors (primarily histologic grade and tumor size at diagnosis) to create a prognostic index that evaluated overall survival. Gene amplification/polysomy (13%) did not correlate with protein overexpression. Survivin and HER-2 expression were not associated with patient outcomes. These findings might become valuable in the management of patients with STS and possibly in the prospective evaluation of responses to new target-driven therapies.

Ticagrelor Versus Clopidogrel in Patients With Acute Coronary Syndromes and a History of Stroke or Transient Ischemic Attack

Background-Patients with acute coronary syndromes and history of stroke or transient ischemic attack (TIA) have an increased rate of recurrent cardiac events and intracranial hemorrhages. Methods and Results-We evaluated treatment effects of ticagrelor versus clopidogrel in patients with acute coronary syndrome with and without a history of prior stroke or TIA in the PLATelet inhibition and patient Outcomes (PLATO) trial. Of the 18 624 randomized patients, 1152 (6.2%) had a history of stroke or TIA. Such patients had higher rates of myocardial infarction (11.5% versus 6.0%), death (10.5% versus 4.9%), stroke (3.4% versus 1.2%), and intracranial bleeding (0.8% versus 0.2%) than patients without prior stroke or TIA. Among patients with a history of stroke or TIA, the reduction of the primary composite outcome and total mortality at 1 year with ticagrelor versus clopidogrel was consistent with the overall trial results: 19.0% versus 20.8% (hazard ratio, 0.87; 95% confidence interval, 0.66-1.13; interaction P=0.84) and 7.9% versus 13.0% (hazard ratio, 0.62; 95% confidence interval, 0.42-0.91). The overall PLATO-defined bleeding rates were similar: 14.6% versus 14.9% (hazard ratio, 0.99; 95% confidence interval, 0.71-1.37), and intracranial bleeding occurred infrequently (4 versus 4 cases, respectively). Conclusions-Patients with acute coronary syndrome with a prior history of ischemic stroke or TIA had higher rates of clinical outcomes than patients without prior stroke or TIA. However, the efficacy and bleeding results of ticagrelor in these high-risk patients were consistent with the overall trial population, with a favorable clinical net benefit and associated impact on mortality.

HIV-1 tropism and CD4 T lymphocyte recovery in a prospective cohort of patients initiating HAART in Ribeirão Preto, Brazil

While human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-1 chemokine co-receptors 5 tropism and the GWGR motif in the envelope third variable region (V3 loop) have been associated with a slower disease progression, their influence on antiretroviral response remains unclear. The impact of baseline V3 characteristics on treatment response was evaluated in a randomised, double blind, prospective cohort study with patients initiating highly active antiretroviral therapy with lopinavir or efavirenz plus azithothymidine/3TC (1:1) over 48 weeks. Similar virological and immunological responses were observed for both treatment regimens. The 43 individuals had a mean baseline CD4 T cell count of 119 cells/mm³ [standard deviation (SD) = 99] and a mean viral load of 5.09 log10 copies/mL (SD = 0.49). The GWGR motif was not associated with a CD4 T cell response, but predicted R5 tropism by the geno2pheno[clinical20%] algorithm correlated with higher CD4 T cell levels at all monitoring points (p < 0.05). Moreover, higher false-positive rates (FPR) values from this analysis revealed a strong correlation with CD4 T cell recovery (p < 0.0001). Transmitted drug resistance mutations, documented in 3/41 (7.3%) cases, were unrelated to the assigned antiretroviral regimen and had no impact on patient outcomes. In conclusion, naÏve HIV-1 R5 infected patients exhibited higher CD4 T cell counts at baseline; this difference was sustained throughout therapy. The geno2pheno[clinical] option FPR positively correlated with CD4 T cell gain and may be useful in predicting CD4 T cell recovery.

Modelli e strumenti di supporto alla scelta informata del paziente: un argine alla medicina difensiva

L’aumento esponenziale del contenzioso medico-legale – originatosi negli USA negli anni Sessanta in proporzioni tali da far parlare di medical liability crisis, e sviluppatosi in Italia a partire dalla metà degli anni Ottanta – ha comportato e continua a comportare, unitamente ad altre conseguenze negative, il ricorso sempre più frequente dei sanitari alle pratiche di medicina difensiva, con elevatissimi costi a carico del Servizio Sanitario Nazionale dovuti alla sovrabbondanza di trattamenti e ricoveri inutili e di procedure diagnostiche invasive non necessarie, peraltro produttive di stress emotivo nei pazienti. La causa dell’aumento della litigiosità deve essere ricercata in buona parte nella relazione medico-paziente, in particolar modo con riferimento al momento informativo che precede l’acquisizione del consenso informato al trattamento clinico. In Italia, i limiti che per lo più caratterizzano gli studi riguardanti il consenso informato derivano principalmente dal fatto che essi tendono a focalizzarsi unicamente sulla componente scritta del medesimo. Il fulcro del consenso informato, invece, deve ritenersi rappresentato da una comunicazione tra sanitario e paziente relativa ad un trattamento proposto ed alle possibili alternative, alla non sottoposizione ad alcun trattamento e ai rischi e benefici di ciascuna di queste opzioni. In un tale contesto il tema della comunicazione tra il professionista e la persona assistita sta suscitando interesse poiché ci si aspetta che esso conduca a miglioramenti degli outcome dei pazienti e alla diminuzione delle denunce da parte di questi ultimi per casi di responsabilità sanitaria. La maggiore attenzione al rapporto medico - paziente ha fatto emergere il bisogno di migliorare e potenziare le abilità comunicative dei medici, in un’ottica in cui il momento comunicativo possa essere percepito dal professionista come fulcro del rapporto medico-paziente, nella prospettiva di una elaborazione di strategie di prevenzione e contrasto ai fenomeni di medicina difensiva.