Molecular basis of complete C4 deficiency. A study of three patients.

The highly polymorphic fourth component of human complement (C4) is usually encoded by two genes, C4A and C4B, adjacent to the 21-hydroxylase (21-OH) genes and is also remarkable by the high frequency of the null alleles, C4A*Q0 and C4B*Q0. Complete C4 deficiency is exceptional because this condition appears only in homozygotes for the very rare double-null haplotype C4AQ0,BQ0. This condition in most cases gives rise to systemic lupus erythematosus and an increased susceptibility to infections. The molecular basis for complete C4 deficiency has not yet been established. Therefore we studied the DNA of three previously described C4 deficient patients belonging to unrelated families by restriction fragment length polymorphism analysis using C4 and 21-OH probes. These studies revealed a deletion of the C4B and 21-OHA genes in two patients and no deletion at all in the third patient. Therefore, complete C4 deficiency as a result of homozygosity for the C4AQ0, BQ0 haplotype is not a consequence of a deletion of the C4 genes. The molecular basis of this genetic abnormality is certainly very complex and may vary also from one case to another.

Analysis of the peripheral T-cell compartment in the MHC class II deficiency syndrome.

To analyse the impact of lack of MHC class II expression on the composition of the peripheral T-cell compartment in man, the expression characteristics of several membrane antigens were examined on peripheral blood lymphocytes (PBL) and cultured T cells derived from an MHC-class-II-deficient patient. No MHC class II expression could be detected on either PBL or activated T cells. Moreover, the expression of MHC class I was reduced both on PBL and in vitro activated T cells compared to the healthy control. However, the reduced expression of CD26 observed on the PBL of the patient was restored after in vitro expansion. Despite the presumably class-II-deficient thymic environment, a distinct but reduced single CD4+ T-cell population was observed in the PBL of the patient. After in vitro expansion, the percentage of CD4+ cells dropped even further, most likely due to a proliferative disadvantage, compared to the single CD8+ T-cell population. However, proliferation analysis showed that T-cell activation via the TcR/CD3 pathway is not affected by the MHC class II deficiency.

TCR V alpha- and V beta-gene segment use in T-cell subcultures derived from a type-III bare lymphocyte syndrome patient deficient in MHC class-II expression.

Previously, we and others have shown that MHC class-II deficient humans have greatly reduced numbers of CD4+CD8- peripheral T cells. These type-III Bare Lymphocyte Syndrome patients lack MHC class-II and have an impaired MHC class-I antigen expression. In this study, we analyzed the impact of the MHC class-II deficient environment on the TCR V-gene segment usage in this reduced CD4+CD8- T-cell subset. For these studies, we employed TcR V-region-specific monoclonal antibodies (mAbs) and a semiquantitative PCR technique with V alpha and V beta amplimers, specific for each of the most known V alpha- and V beta-gene region families. The results of our studies demonstrate that some of the V alpha-gene segments are used less frequent in the CD4+CD8- T-cell subset of the patient, whereas the majority of the TCR V alpha- and V beta-gene segments investigated were used with similar frequencies in both subsets in the type-III Bare Lymphocyte Syndrome patient compared to healthy control family members. Interestingly, the frequency of TcR V alpha 12 transcripts was greatly diminished in the patient, both in the CD4+CD8- as well as in the CD4-CD8+ compartment, whereas this gene segment could easily be detected in the healthy family controls. On the basis of the results obtained in this study, it is concluded that within the reduced CD4+CD8- T-cell subset of this patient, most of the TCR V-gene segments tested for are employed. However, a skewing in the usage frequency of some of the V alpha-gene segments toward the CD4-CD8+ T-cell subset was noticeable in the MHC class-II deficient patient that differed from those observed in the healthy family controls.

Equal IgG antibody response to pneumococcal vaccination in all stages of human immunodeficiency virus disease.

To evaluate the immunogenicity and safety of a 23-valent pneumococcal vaccine in human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-seropositive patients, 80 men and 18 women received 1 dose of the vaccine (Pneumo 23; Pasteur Mérieux MSD, Brussels). The total IgG antibody response against all 23 Streptococcus pneumoniae capsular antigens was measured. Antibody levels were expressed in arbitrary units per microliter, referring to a standard curve. Geometric mean titers of the total IgG capsular antibodies on the day of vaccination and 30-45 days later were compared. The ratios of titers after and before vaccination in patients with > 500, 200-500, and < 200 CD4 lymphocytes/microL were 10, 10, and 12.6, respectively. Nonresponse (ratio < 4) occurred in 17% of patients and was unrelated to CD4 cell count. The vaccine was well tolerated; no serious side effects occurred. In 83% of the patients with HIV infection, the total antipneumococcal IgG level was higher after vaccination.

Antigen-specific responses assessment for the evaluation of Bordetella pertussis T cell immunity in humans.

Measurement of antigen-specific T cell responses is an adjunctive parameter to evaluate protection induced by a previous Bordetella pertussis infection or vaccination. The assessment of T cell responses is technically complex and usually performed on fresh peripheral blood mononuclear cells (PBMC). The objective of this study was to identify simplified methods to assess pertussis specific T cell responses and verify if these assays could be performed using frozen/thawed (frozen) PBMC. Three read-outs to measure proliferation were compared: the fluorescent dye 5,6-carboxylfluorescein diacetate succinimidyl ester (CFSE) dilution test, the number of blast cells defined by physical parameters, and the incorporation of (3)H-thymidine. The results of pertussis-specific assays performed on fresh PBMC were compared to the results on frozen PBMC from the same donor. High concordance was obtained when the results of CFSE and blast read-outs were compared, an encouraging result since blast analysis allows the identification of proliferating cells and does not require any use of radioactive tracer as well as any staining. The results obtained using fresh and frozen PBMC from the same donor in the different T cell assays, including IFNγ and TNFα cytokine production, did not show significant differences, suggesting that a careful cryopreservation process of PBMC would not significantly influence T cell response evaluation. Adopting blast analysis and frozen PBMC, the possibility to test T cell responses is simplified and might be applied in population studies, providing for new instruments to better define correlates of protection still elusive in pertussis.

A novel syndrome of severe neutrophil dysfunction: unresponsiveness confined to chemotaxin-induced functions.

We have identified a patient with a number of neutrophil dysfunctions. The patient was a female baby who lived for 8 months. During her life, she developed severe bacterial infections and showed omphalitis, impaired wound healing, and a pronounced leukocytosis. She was not a patient with leukocyte adhesion deficiency, because all leukocyte CD18 complex proteins were expressed at normal levels. Yet, neutrophil polarization and chemotaxis to platelet-activating factor, leukotriene B4, or formyl-methionyl-leucyl-phenylalanine (FMLP) were completely absent. We found a strong defect in actin polymerization in response to chemotactic stimuli, but only a retarded or even normal reaction with other stimuli. This indicates that the cellular dysfunctions were not due to an intrinsic defect in actin metabolism. Instead, the regulation of actin polymerization with chemotactic stimuli seemed to be defective. We concentrated on FMLP-induced responses in the patient's neutrophils. Functions dependent on activation of complement receptor type 3, such as aggregation or adherence to endothelial cells, were normally induced. Binding to serum-coated coverslips was normal in cell number; however, spreading was not observed. Exocytosis from the specific granules was readily induced. In contrast, FMLP failed to induce a respiratory burst activity or degranulation of the azurophil granules. FMLP induced a normal increase in free intracellular Ca2+, but a decreased formation of diglycerides (especially the 1-O-alkyl,2-acyl compounds). Thus, we have described a patient whose neutrophils show a severe defect in functional activation via chemotaxin receptors, resulting in a selective absence of NADPH oxidase activity, exocytosis from the azurophil granules, and actin polymerization. Our findings show that actin polymerization for neutrophil spreading and locomotion is regulated differently from that for phagocytosis. Also, the release of azurophil and specific granule contents is clearly shown to be regulated in a different way.

Particulate allergens potentiate allergic asthma in mice through sustained IgE-mediated mast cell activation.

Allergic asthma is characterized by airway hyperresponsiveness, inflammation, and a cellular infiltrate dominated by eosinophils. Numerous epidemiological studies have related the exacerbation of allergic asthma with an increase in ambient inhalable particulate matter from air pollutants. This is because inhalable particles efficiently deliver airborne allergens deep into the airways, where they can aggravate allergic asthma symptoms. However, the cellular mechanisms by which inhalable particulate allergens (pAgs) potentiate asthmatic symptoms remain unknown, in part because most in vivo and in vitro studies exploring the pathogenesis of allergic asthma use soluble allergens (sAgs). Using a mouse model of allergic asthma, we found that, compared with their sAg counterparts, pAgs triggered markedly heightened airway hyperresponsiveness and pulmonary eosinophilia in allergen-sensitized mice. Mast cells (MCs) were implicated in this divergent response, as the differences in airway inflammatory responses provoked by the physical nature of the allergens were attenuated in MC-deficient mice. The pAgs were found to mediate MC-dependent responses by enhancing retention of pAg/IgE/FcεRI complexes within lipid raft–enriched, CD63(+) endocytic compartments, which prolonged IgE/FcεRI-initiated signaling and resulted in heightened cytokine responses. These results reveal how the physical attributes of allergens can co-opt MC endocytic circuitry and signaling responses to aggravate pathological responses of allergic asthma in mice.

Prostate cancer: an evolving paradigm.

Since at least the early 1990s, stage and risk migration have been seen in patients with prostate cancer, likely corresponding to the institution of prostate specific antigen (PSA) screening in health systems. Preoperative risk factors, including PSA level and clinical stage, have decreased significantly. These improved prognostic variables have led to a larger portion of men being stratified with low-risk disease, as per the classification of D'Amico and associates. This, in turn, has corresponded with more favorable postoperative variables, including decreased extraprostatic tumor extension and prolonged biochemical-free recurrence rates. The advent of focal therapy is bolstered by findings of increased unilateral disease with decreased tumor volume. Increasingly, targeted or delayed therapies may be possible within the current era of lower risk disease.

Prostate biopsy in selecting candidates for hemiablative focal therapy.

Focal therapy (FT) for the management of clinically localized prostate cancer (PCa) is growing from a concept to reality because of increased interest of both patients and physicians. Selection protocols, however, are yet to be established. We discuss the role of prostate biopsy in candidate selection for FT and highlight the different strategies and technical aspects of the use of prostate biopsy in this setting. In our opinion, prostate biopsy plays a major role in the selection process and tailoring appropriate treatment strategy to the patient. FT necessitates dedicated biopsy schemes that would reliably predict the extent, nature, and location of PCa in selected patients. Currently, there is insufficient scientific evidence to propose a specific biopsy scheme that could fit every candidate, providing accurate characterization of the disease in the individual patient. Further research is necessary to establish solid selection protocols that would reliably identify appropriate candidates for FT of PCa.

Anti-cholinergic load, health care utilization, and survival in people with advanced cancer: a pilot study.

INTRODUCTION: Anti-cholinergic medications have been associated with increased risks of cognitive impairment, premature mortality and increased risk of hospitalisation. Anti-cholinergic load associated with medication increases as death approaches in those with advanced cancer, yet little is known about associated adverse outcomes in this setting. METHODS: A substudy of 112 participants in a randomised control trial who had cancer and an Australia modified Karnofsky Performance Scale (AKPS) score (AKPS) of 60 or above, explored survival and health service utilisation; with anti-cholinergic load calculated using the Clinician Rated Anti-cholinergic Scale (modified version) longitudinally to death. A standardised starting point for prospectively calculating survival was an AKPS of 60 or above. RESULTS: Baseline entry to the sub-study was a mean 62 +/- 81 days (median 37, range 1-588) days before death (survival), with mean of 4.8 (median 3, SD 4.18, range 1 - 24) study assessments in this time period. Participants spent 22% of time as an inpatient. There was no significant association between anti-cholinergic score and time spent as an inpatient (adjusted for survival time) (p = 0.94); or survival time. DISCUSSION: No association between anti-cholinergic load and survival or time spent as an inpatient was seen. Future studies need to include cognitively impaired populations where the risks of symptomatic deterioration may be more substantial.

Alternative splicing in multiple sclerosis and other autoimmune diseases.

Alternative splicing is a general mechanism for regulating gene expression that affects the RNA products of more than 90% of human genes. Not surprisingly, alternative splicing is observed among gene products of metazoan immune systems, which have evolved to efficiently recognize pathogens and discriminate between "self" and "non-self", and thus need to be both diverse and flexible. In this review we focus on the specific interface between alternative splicing and autoimmune diseases, which result from a malfunctioning of the immune system and are characterized by the inappropriate reaction to self-antigens. Despite the widespread recognition of alternative splicing as one of the major regulators of gene expression, the connections between alternative splicing and autoimmunity have not been apparent. We summarize recent findings connecting splicing and autoimmune disease, and attempt to find common patterns of splicing regulation that may advance our understanding of autoimmune diseases and open new avenues for therapy.

Potent and broad neutralizing activity of a single chain antibody fragment against cell-free and cell-associated HIV-1.

Several human monoclonal antibodies (hmAbs) exhibit relatively potent and broad neutralizing activity against HIV-1, but there has not been much success in using them as potential therapeutics. We have previously hypothesized and demonstrated that small engineered antibodies can target highly conserved epitopes that are not accessible by full-size antibodies. However, their potency has not been comparatively evaluated with known HIV-1-neutralizing hmAbs against large panels of primary isolates. We report here the inhibitory activity of an engineered single chain antibody fragment (scFv), m9, against several panels of primary HIV-1 isolates from group M (clades A-G) using cell-free and cell-associated virus in cell line-based assays. M9 was much more potent than scFv 17b, and more potent than or comparable to the best-characterized broadly neutralizing hmAbs IgG(1) b12, 2G12, 2F5 and 4E10. It also inhibited cell-to-cell transmission of HIV-1 with higher potency than enfuvirtide (T-20, Fuzeon). M9 competed with a sulfated CCR5 N-terminal peptide for binding to gp120-CD4 complex, suggesting an overlapping epitope with the coreceptor binding site. M9 did not react with phosphatidylserine (PS) and cardiolipin (CL), nor did it react with a panel of autoantigens in an antinuclear autoantibody (ANA) assay. We further found that escape mutants resistant to m9 did not emerge in an immune selection assay. These results suggest that m9 is a novel anti-HIV-1 candidate with potential therapeutic or prophylactic properties, and its epitope is a new target for drug or vaccine development.

Host determinants of HIV-1 control in African Americans.

We performed a whole-genome association study of human immunodeficiency virus type 1 (HIV-1) set point among a cohort of African Americans (n = 515), and an intronic single-nucleotide polymorphism (SNP) in the HLA-B gene showed one of the strongest associations. We use a subset of patients to demonstrate that this SNP reflects the effect of the HLA-B*5703 allele, which shows a genome-wide statistically significant association with viral load set point (P = 5.6 x 10(-10)). These analyses therefore confirm a member of the HLA-B*57 group of alleles as the most important common variant that influences viral load variation in African Americans, which is consistent with what has been observed for individuals of European ancestry, among whom the most important common variant is HLA-B*5701.

Magnitude and breadth of a nonprotective neutralizing antibody response in an efficacy trial of a candidate HIV-1 gp120 vaccine.

BACKGROUND: A candidate vaccine consisting of human immunodeficiency virus type 1 (HIV-1) subunit gp120 protein was found previously to be nonprotective in an efficacy trial (Vax004) despite strong antibody responses against the vaccine antigens. Here we assessed the magnitude and breadth of neutralizing antibody responses in Vax004. METHODS: Neutralizing antibodies were measured against highly sensitive (tier 1) and moderately sensitive (tier 2) strains of HIV-1 subtype B in 2 independent assays. Vaccine recipients were stratified by sex, race, and high versus low behavioral risk of HIV-1 acquisition. RESULTS: Most vaccine recipients mounted potent neutralizing antibody responses against HIV-1(MN) and other tier 1 viruses. Occasional weak neutralizing activity was detected against tier 2 viruses. The response against tier 1 and tier 2 viruses was significantly stronger in women than in men. Race and behavioral risk of HIV-1 acquisition had no significant effect on the response. Prior vaccination had little effect on the neutralizing antibody response that arose after infection. CONCLUSIONS: Weak overall neutralizing antibody responses against tier 2 viruses is consistent with a lack of protection in this trial. The magnitude and breadth of neutralization reported here should be useful for identifying improved vaccines.

MYC activity mitigates response to rapamycin in prostate cancer through eukaryotic initiation factor 4E-binding protein 1-mediated inhibition of autophagy.

Loss of PTEN and activation of phosphoinositide 3-kinase are commonly observed in advanced prostate cancer. Inhibition of mammalian target of rapamycin (mTOR), a downstream target of phosphoinositide 3-kinase signaling, results in cell cycle arrest and apoptosis in multiple in vitro and in vivo models of prostate cancer. However, single-agent use of mTOR inhibition has limited clinical success, and the identification of molecular events mitigating tumor response to mTOR inhibition remains a critical question. Here, using genetically engineered human prostate epithelial cells (PrEC), we show that MYC, a frequent target of genetic gain in prostate cancers, abrogates sensitivity to rapamycin by decreasing rapamycin-induced cytostasis and autophagy. Analysis of MYC and the mTOR pathway in human prostate tumors and PrEC showed selective increased expression of eukaryotic initiation factor 4E-binding protein 1 (4EBP1) with gain in MYC copy number or forced MYC expression, respectively. We have also found that MYC binds to regulatory regions of the 4EBP1 gene. Suppression of 4EBP1 expression resulted in resensitization of MYC-expressing PrEC to rapamycin and increased autophagy. Taken together, our findings suggest that MYC expression abrogates sensitivity to rapamycin through increased expression of 4EBP1 and reduced autophagy.