987 resultados para intact sandstones
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Plants are rooted to their growth place; therefore it is important that they react adequately to changes in environmental conditions. Stomatal pores, which are formed of a pair of guard cells in leaf epidermis, regulate plant gas-exchange. Importantly, guard cells protect the plant from desiccation in drought conditions by reducing the aperture of the stomatal pore. They serve also as the first barrier against the major air pollutant ozone, but the behaviour of guard cells during ozone exposure has not been sufficiently addressed. Aperture of the stomatal pore is regulated by the influx and efflux of osmotically active ions via ion channels and transporters across the guard cell membrane, however the molecular identity of guard cell plasma membrane anion channel has remained unknown. In the frame of this study, guard cell behaviour during ozone exposure was studied using the newly constructed Arabidopsis whole-rosette gas-exchange system. Ozone induced a Rapid Transient Decrease (RTD) in stomatal conductance within 10 min from the start of exposure, which was followed by a recovery in the conductance within the next 40 min. The decrease in stomatal conductance was dependent on the applied ozone concentration. Three minutes of ozone exposure was sufficient to induce RTD and further ozone application during the closure-recovery process had no effect on RTD, demonstrating that the whole process is programmed within the first three minutes. To address the molecular components responsible for RTD, the ozone response was measured in 59 different Arabidopsis mutants involved in guard cell signalling. Four of the tested mutants slac1 (originally rcd3), ost1, abi1-1 and abi2-1 lacked RTD completely. As the ozone sensitive mutant slac1 lacked RTD, the next aim of this study was to identify and characterize SLAC1. SLAC1 was shown to be a central regulator in response to all major factors regulating guard cell aperture: CO2, light/darkness transitions, ozone, relative air humidity, ABA, NO, H2O2, and extracellular Ca2+. It encodes the first guard cell plasma membrane slow type anion channel to be identified at the molecular level. Interestingly, the rapid type anion conductance was intact in slac1 mutant plants. For activation, SLAC1 needs to be phosphorylated. Protein kinase OST1 was shown to phosphorylate several amino acids in the N-terminal tail of SLAC1, Ser120 was one of its main targets, which led to SLAC1 activation. The lack of RTD in type 2C protein phosphatase mutants abi1-1 and abi2-1, suggests that these proteins have a regulatory role in ozoneinduced activation of the slow type anion channel.
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Human pancreatic juice contains two major trypsinogen isoenzymes called trypsinogen-1 and -2, or cationic and anionic trypsinogen, respectively. Trypsinogen isoenzymes are also expressed in various normal and malignant tissues. We aimed at developing monoclonal antibodies (MAbs) and time-resolved immunofluorometric methods recognizing human trypsinogen-1 and -2, respectively. Using these MAbs and methods we purified, characterized and quantitated trypsinogen isoenzymes in serum samples, ovarian cyst fluids and conditioned cell culture media. In sera from healthy subjects and patients with extrapancreatic disease the concentration of trypsinogen-1 is higher than that of trypsinogen-2. However, in acute pancreatitis we found that the concentration of serum trypsinogen-2 is 50-fold higher than in controls, whereas the difference in trypsinogen-1 concentration is only 15-fold. This suggested that trypsinogen-2 could be used as a diagnostic marker for acute pancreatitis. In human ovarian cyst fluids tumor-associated trypsinogen-2 (TAT-2) is the predominant isoenzyme. Most notably, in mucinous cyst fluids the levels of TAT-2 were higher in borderline and malignant than in benign cases. The increased levels in association with malignancy suggested that TAT could be involved in ovarian tumor dissemination and breakage of tissue barriers. Serum samples from patients who had undergone pancreatoduodenectomy contained trypsinogen-2. Trypsinogen-1 was detected in only one of nine samples. These results suggested that the expression of trypsinogen is not restricted to the pancreas. Determination of the isoenzyme pattern by ion exchange chromatography revealed isoelectric variants of trypsinogen isoenzymes in serum samples. Intact trypsinogen isoenzymes and tryptic and chymotryptic trypsinogen peptides were purified and characterized by mass spectrometry, Western blot analysis and N-terminal sequencing. The results showed that pancreatic trypsinogen-1 and -2 are sulfated at tyrosine 154 (Tyr154), whereas TAT-2 from a colon carcinoma cell line is not. Tyr154 is located within the primary substrate binding pocket of trypsin, thus Tyr154 sulfation is likely to influence substrate binding. The previously known differences in charge, substrate specificity and inhibitor binding between pancreatic and tumor-associated trypsinogens are suggested to be caused by sulfation of Tyr154 in pancreatic trypsinogens.
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The risk is obvious for soft tissue complications after operative treatment of the Achilles tendon, calcaneal bone or after ankle arthroplasty. Such complications after malleolar fractures are, however, seldom seen. The reason behind these complications is that the soft tissue in this region is tight and does not allow much tension to the wound area after surgery. Furthermore the area of operation may be damaged by swelling after the injury, or can be affected by peripheral vascular disease. While complications in this area are unavoidable, they can be diminished. This study attempts to highlight the possible predisposing factors leading to complications in these operations and on the other hand, to determine the solutions to solve soft tissue problems in this region. The study consists of five papers. The first article is a reprint on the soft tissue reconstruction of 25 patients after their complicated Achilles tendon surgeries were analysed. The second study reviews a series of 126 patients after having undergone an operative treatment of calcaneal bone fractures and analyses the complications and possible reasons behind them. The third part analyses a series of corrections of 35 soft tissue complications after calcaneal fracture operations. The fourth part reviews a series of 7 patients who had undergone complicated ankle arthroplasties. The last article presents a series of post operative lateral defects of the ankle treated with a less frequently used distally based peroneus brevis muscle flap and analyses the results. What can be conducted from these studies is that in general, the results after the correction of even severe soft tissue complications in the ankle region are good. For the small defects around the Achilles tendon, the local flaps are useful, but the larger defects are best treated with a free flap. We found that a long delay from trauma to surgery and a long operating time were predisposing factors that lead to soft tissue complications after operatively treated calcaneal bone fractures. The more severe the injury, the greater the risk for wound complication. Surprisingly, the long-term results after infected calcaneal osteosyntheses were acceptable and the calcaneal bone seems to tolerate chronic infections very well if the soft tissue is reconstructed successfully. Behind the complicated ankle arthroplasties, unexpectedly high number of cases experiencing arteriosclerosis of the lower extremity was found. These complications lead to ankle fusion but can be solved with a free flap if the vascularity is intact or can be reconstructed. For this reason a vascular examination of the lower extremity arteries of the patients going to ankle arthroplasty is strongly recommended. Moreover postoperative lateral malleolar wound infections which typically create lateral ankle defects can successfully be treated with a peroneus brevis muscle flap covered with a free skin graft.
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Deoxyhypusine synthase, an NAD(+)-dependent enzyme, catalyzes the first step in the post-translational synthesis of an unusual amino acid, hypusine (N-epsilon-(4-amino-2-hydroxybutyl)lysine), in the eukaryotic initiation factor 5A precursor protein. Two putative deoxyhypusine synthase (DHS) sequences have been identified in the Leishmania donovani genome, which are present on chromosomes 20: DHSL20 (DHS-like gene from chromosome 20) and DHS34 (DHS from chromosome 34). Although both sequences exhibit an overall conservation of key residues, DHSL20 protein lacks a critical lysine residue, and the recombinant protein showed no DHS activity in vitro. However, DHS34 contains the critical lysine residue, and the recombinant DHS34 effectively catalyzed deoxyhypusine synthesis. Furthermore, in vivo labeling confirmed that hypusination of eukaryotic initiation factor 5A occurs in intact Leishmania parasites. Interestingly, the DHS34 is much longer, with 601 amino acids, compared with the human DHS enzyme (369 amino acids) and contains several unique insertions. To study the physiological role of DHS34 in Leishmania, gene deletion mutations were attempted via targeted gene replacement. However, chromosomal null mutants of DHS34 could only be obtained in the presence of a DHS34-containing episome. The present data provide evidence that DHS34 is essential for L. donovani and that structural differences in the human and leishmanial DHS enzyme may be exploited for designing selective inhibitors against the parasite.
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Antibodies specific for 1-methylguanosine (m1G) were produced by immunization of rabbits with a bovine serum albumin conjugate of m1G. Antibodies specificity was determined by measuring the inhibition of binding of 3H-m1G trialcohol by various nucleosides or related derivatives. The relative affinities of the unpurified antibodies for various nucleosides showed that m1G trialcohol had an 8-fold higher affinity than m1G; further, guanosine and 2'-O-methylguanosine had at least a 500-fold lower affinity than m1G. The antibodies were purified on m1G-AH-Sepharose column and subsequently immobilized to Sepharose. Immobilized m1G antibodies quantitatively and exclusively retained m1G-containing oligonucleotides derived from ribonuclease A digests of 32P-labeled phage T4 tRNAPro. On the other hand, intact 32P-labeled T4 tRNAPro or its precursor RNA(s) did not bind to the same column. These findings indicate that at least a portion of m1G adjacent to the 3' end of the anticodon in intact T4 tRNAPro is not accessible for antibody binding.
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CD4+ and gamma delta T cells are activated readily by Mycobacterium tuberculosis. To examine their role in the human immune response to M. tuberculosis, CD4+ and gamma delta T cells from healthy tuberculin-positive donor were studied for patterns of Ag recognition, cytotoxicity, and cytokine production in response to M. tuberculosis-infected mononuclear phagocytes. Both T cell subsets responded to intact M. tuberculosis and its cytosolic Ags. However, CD4+ and gamma delta T cells differed in the range of cytosolic Ags recognized: reactivity to a wide m.w. range of Ags for CD4+ T cells, and a restricted pattern for gamma delta T cells, with dominance of Ags of 10 to 15 kDa. Both T cell subsets were equally cytotoxic for M. tuberculosis-infected monocytes. Furthermore, both CD4+ and gamma delta T cells produced large amounts of IFN-gamma: mean pg/ml of IFN-gamma in supernatants was 2458 +/- 213 for CD4+ and 2349 +/- 245 for gamma delta T cells. By filter-spot ELISA (ELISPOT), the frequency of IFN-gamma-secreting gamma delta T cells was one-half of that of CD4+ T cells in response to M. tuberculosis, suggesting that gamma delta T cells on a per cell basis were more efficient producers of IFN-gamma than CD4+ T cells. In contrast, CD4+ T cells produced more IL-2 than gamma delta T cells, which correlated with diminished T cell proliferation of gamma delta T cells compared with CD4+ T cells. These results indicate that CD4+ and gamma delta T cell subsets have similar effector functions (cytotoxicity, IFN-gamma production) in response to M. tuberculosis-infected macrophages, despite differences in the Ags recognized, IL-2 production, and efficiency of IFN-gamma production.
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The outcome of the successfully resuscitated patient is mainly determined by the extent of hypoxic-ischemic cerebral injury, and hypothermia has multiple mechanisms of action in mitigating such injury. The present study was undertaken from 1997 to 2001 in Helsinki as a part of the European multicenter study Hypothermia after cardiac arrest (HACA) to test the neuroprotective effect of therapeutic hypothermia in patients resuscitated from out-of-hospital ventricular fibrillation (VF) cardiac arrest (CA). The aim of this substudy was to examine the neurological and cardiological outcome of these patients, and especially to study and develop methods for prediction of outcome in the hypothermia-treated patients. A total of 275 patients were randomized to the HACA trial in Europe. In Helsinki, 70 patients were enrolled in the study according to the inclusion criteria. Those randomized to hypothermia were actively cooled externally to a core temperature 33 ± 1ºC for 24 hours with a cooling device. Serum markers of ischemic neuronal injury, NSE and S-100B, were sampled at 24, 36, and 48 hours after CA. Somatosensory and brain stem auditory evoked potentials (SEPs and BAEPs) were recorded 24 to 28 hours after CA; 24-hour ambulatory electrocardiography recordings were performed three times during the first two weeks and arrhythmias and heart rate variability (HRV) were analyzed from the tapes. The clinical outcome was assessed 3 and 6 months after CA. Neuropsychological examinations were performed on the conscious survivors 3 months after the CA. Quantitative electroencephalography (Q-EEG) and auditory P300 event-related potentials were studied at the same time-point. Therapeutic hypothermia of 33ºC for 24 hours led to an increased chance of good neurological outcome and survival after out-of-hospital VF CA. In the HACA study, 55% of hypothermia-treated patients and 39% of normothermia-treated patients reached a good neurological outcome (p=0.009) at 6 months after CA. Use of therapeutic hypothermia was not associated with any increase in clinically significant arrhythmias. The levels of serum NSE, but not the levels of S-100B, were lower in hypothermia- than in normothermia-treated patients. A decrease in NSE values between 24 and 48 hours was associated with good outcome at 6 months after CA. Decreasing levels of serum NSE but not of S-100B over time may indicate selective attenuation of delayed neuronal death by therapeutic hypothermia, and the time-course of serum NSE between 24 and 48 hours after CA may help in clinical decision-making. In SEP recordings bilaterally absent N20 responses predicted permanent coma with a specificity of 100% in both treatment arms. Recording of BAEPs provided no additional benefit in outcome prediction. Preserved 24- to 48-hour HRV may be a predictor of favorable outcome in CA patients treated with hypothermia. At 3 months after CA, no differences appeared in any cognitive functions between the two groups: 67% of patients in the hypothermia and 44% patients in the normothermia group were cognitively intact or had only very mild impairment. No significant differences emerged in any of the Q-EEG parameters between the two groups. The amplitude of P300 potential was significantly higher in the hypothermia-treated group. These results give further support to the use of therapeutic hypothermia in patients with sudden out-of-hospital CA.
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Aortic valve stenosis (AS) is an active disease process akin to atherosclerosis, with chronic inflammation, lipid accumulation, extracellular matrix remodeling, fibrosis, and extensive calcification of the valves being characteristic features of the disease. The detailed mechanisms and pathogenesis of AS are still incompletely understood, however, and pharmacological treatments targeted toward components of the disease are not currently available. In this thesis project, my coworkers and I studied stenotic aortic valves obtained from 86 patients undergoing valve replacement for clinically significant AS. Non-stenotic control valves (n=17) were obtained from patients undergoing cardiac transplantation or from organ donors without cardiac disease. We identified a novel inflammatory factor, namely mast cell, in stenotic aortic valves and present evidence showing that this multipotent inflammatory cell may participate in the pathogenesis of AS. Using immunohistochemistry and double immunofluorescence stainings, we found that a considerable number of mast cells accumulate in stenotic valves and, in contrast to normal valves, the mast cells in diseased valves were in an activated state. Moreover, valvular mast cells contained two effective proteases, chymase and cathepsin G, which may participate in adverse remodeling of the valves either by inducing fibrosis (chymase and cathepsin G) or by degrading elastin fibers in the valves (cathepsin G). As chymase and cathepsin G are both capable of generating the profibrotic peptide angiotensin II, we also studied the expression and activity of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) in the valves. Using RT-PCR, imunohistochemistry, and autoradiography, we observed a significant increase in the expression and activity of ACE in stenotic valves. Besides mast cell-derived cathepsin G, aortic valves contained other elastolytic cathepsins (S, K, and V). Using immunohistochemistry, RT-PCR, and fluorometric microassay, we showed that the expression and activity of these cathepsins were augmented in stenotic valves. Furthermore, in stenotic but not in normal valves, we observed a distinctive pattern of elastin fiber degradation and disorganization. Importantly, this characteristic elastin degradation observed in diseased valves could be mimicked by adding exogenous cathepsins to control valves, which initially contained intact elastin fibers. In stenotic leaflets, the collagen/elastin ratio was increased and correlated positively with smoking, a potent AS-accelerating factor. Indeed, cigarette smoke could also directly activate cultured mast cells and fibroblasts. Next, we analyzed the expression and activity of neutral endopeptidase (NEP), which parallels the actions of ACE in degrading bradykinin (BK) and thus inactivates antifibrotic mechanisms in tissues. Real-time RT-PCR and autoradiography revealed NEP expression and activity to be enhanced in stenotic valves compared to controls. Furthermore, both BK receptors (1 and 2) were present in aortic valves and upregulated in stenotic leaflets. Isolated valve myofibroblasts expressed NEP and BK receptors, and their upregulation occurred in response to inflammation. Finally, we observed that the complement system, a source of several proinflammatory mediators and also a potential activator of valvular mast cells, was activated in stenotic valves. Moreover, receptors for the complement-derived effectors C3a and C5a were expressed in aortic valves and in cultured aortic valve myofibroblasts, in which their expression was induced by inflammation as well as by cigarette smoke. In conclusion, our findings revealed several novel mechanisms of inflammation (mast cells and mast cell-derived mediators, complement activation), fibrosis (ACE, chymase, cathepsin G, NEP), and elastin fiber degradation (cathepsins) in stenotic aortic valves and highlighted these effectors as possible pathogenic contributors to AS. These results support the notion of AS as an active process with inflammation and extracellular matrix remodeling as its key features and identify possible new targets for medical therapy in AS.
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Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear is a common sports injury of the knee. Arthroscopic reconstruction using autogenous graft material is widely used for patients with ACL instability. The grafts most commonly used are the patellar and the hamstring tendons, by various fixation techniques. Although clinical evaluation and conventional radiography are routinely used in follow-up after ACL surgery, magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) plays an important role in the diagnosis of complications after ACL surgery. The aim of this thesis was to study the clinical outcome of patellar and hamstring tendon ACL reconstruction techniques. In addition, the postoperative appearance of the ACL graft was evaluated using several MRI sequences. Of the 175 patients who underwent an arthroscopically assisted ACL reconstruction, 99 patients were randomized into patellar tendon (n=51) or hamstring tendon (n=48) groups. In addition, 62 patients with hamstring graft ACL reconstruction were randomized into either cross-pin (n=31) or interference screw (n=31) fixation groups. Follow-up evaluation determined knee laxity, isokinetic muscle performance and several knee scores. Lateral and anteroposterior view radiographs were obtained. Several MRI sequences were obtained with a 1.5-T imager. The appearance and enhancement pattern of the graft and periligamentous tissue, and the location of bone tunnels were evaluated. After MRI, arthroscopy was performed on 14 symptomatic knees. The results revealed no significant differences in the 2-year outcome between the groups. In the hamstring tendon group, the average femoral and tibial bone tunnel diameter increased during 2 years follow-up by 33% and 23%, respectively. In the asymptomatic knees, the graft showed homogeneous and low signal intensity with periligamentous streaks of intermediate signal intensity on T2-weighted MR images. In the symptomatic knees, arthroscopy revealed 12 abnormal grafts and two meniscal tears, each with an intact graft. Among 3 lax grafts visible on arthroscopy, MRI showed an intact graft and improper bone tunnel placement. For diagnosing graft failure, all MRI findings combined gave a specificity of 90% and a sensitivity of 81%. In conclusion, all techniques appeared to improve patients' performance, and were therefore considered as good choices for ACL reconstruction. In follow-up, MRI permits direct evaluation of the ACL graft, the bone tunnels, and additional disorders of the knee. Bone tunnel enlargement and periligamentous tissue showing contrast enhancement were non-specific MRI findings that did not signify ACL deficiency. With an intact graft and optimal femoral bone tunnel placement, graft deficiency is unlikely, and the MRI examination should be carefully scrutinized for possible other causes for the patients symptoms.
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Sjögren s syndrome (SS) is a common autoimmune disease affecting the lacrimal and salivary glands. SS is characterized by a considerable female predominance and a late age of onset, commonly at the time of adreno- and menopause. The levels of the androgen prohormone dehydroepiandrosterone-sulphate (DHEA-S) in the serum are lower in patients with SS than in age- and sex-matched healthy control subjects. The eventual systemic effects of low androgen levels in SS are not currently well understood. Basement membranes (BM) are specialized layers of extracellular matrix and are composed of laminin (LM) and type IV collagen matrix networks. BMs deliver messages to epithelial cells via cellular LM-receptors including integrins (Int) and Lutheran blood group antigen (Lu). The composition of BMs and distribution of LM-receptors in labial salivary glands (LSGs) of normal healthy controls and patients with SS was assessed. LMs have complex and highly regulated distribution in LSGs. LMs seem to have specific tasks in the dynamic regulation of acinar cell function. LM-111 is important for the normal acinar cell differentiation and its expression is diminished in SS. Also LM-211 and -411 seem to have some acinar specific functional tasks in LSGs. LM-311, -332 and -511 seem to have more general structure maintaining and supporting roles in LSGs and are relatively intact also in SS. Ints α3β1, α6β1, α6β4 and Lu seem to supply structural basis for the firm attachment of epithelial cells to the BM in LSGs. The expression of Ints α1β1 and α2β1 differed clearly from other LM-receptors in that they were found almost exclusively around the acini and intercalated duct cells in salivons suggesting some type of acinar cell compartment-specific or dominant function. Expression of these integrins was lower in SS compared to healthy controls suggesting that the LM-111 and -211-to-Int α1β1 and α2β1 interactions are defective in SS and are crucial to the maintenance of the acini in LSGs. DHEA/DHEA-S concentration in serum and locally in saliva of patients with SS seems to have effects on the salivary glands. These effects were first detected using the androgen-dependent CRISP-3 protein, the production and secretion of which were clearly diminished in SS. This might be due to the impaired function of the intracrine DHEA prohormone metabolizing machinery, which fails to successfully convert DHEA into its active metabolites in LSGs. The progenitor epithelial cells from the intercalated ductal area of LSGs migrate to the acinar compartment and then undergo a phenotype change into secretory acinar cells. This migration and phenotype change seem to be regulated by the LM-111-to-Int α1β1/Int α2β1 interactions. Lack of these interactions could be one factor limiting the normal remodelling process. Androgens are effective stimulators of Int α1β1 and α2β1 expression in physiologic concentrations. Addition of DHEA to the culture medium had effective stimulating effect on the Int α1β1 and α2β1 expression and its effect may be deficient in the LSGs of patients with SS.
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Premature delivery is a major cause of neonatal morbidity and mortality. The incidence of premature deliveries has increased around the world. In Finland 5.3%, or about 3,000 children per year are born prematurely, before 37 weeks of gestation. The corresponding figure in the United States is about 13%. The morbidity and mortality are highest among infants delivered before 32 weeks of gestation - about 600 children each year in Finland. Approximately 70% of premature deliveries are unexplained. Preterm delivery can be caused by an asympto-matic infection between uterus and the fetal membranes, such can begin already in early pregnancy. It is difficult to predict preterm delivery, and many patients are therefore unnecessarily admitted to hospital for observation and exposed to medical treatments. On the other hand, the high risk women should be identified early for the best treatment of the mother and preterm infant. --- In the prospective study conducted at the Department of Obstetric and Gynecology, Helsinki University Central Hospital two biochemical inflammation related markers were measured in the lower genital tract fluids of asymp-tomatic women in early and mid pregnancy in an order to see whether these markers could identify women with an increased risk of preterm delivery. These biomarkers were phosphorylated insulin-like growth factor binding protein-1 (phIGFBP-1) and matrix metalloproteinase-8 (MMP-8). The study involved 5180 asymptomatic pregnant women, examined during the first and second ultrasound screening visits. The study samples were taken from the vagina and cervicix. In addition, 246 symptomatic women were studied (pregnancy weeks 22 – 34). The study showed that increased phIGFBP-1 concentration in cervical canal fluid in early pregnancy increased the risk for preterm delivery. The risk for very premature birth (before 32 weeks of gestation) was nearly four-fold. Low MMP-8 concentration in mid pregnancy increased the risk of subsequent premature preterm rupture of fetal membranes (PPROM). Significantly high MMP-8 concentrations in the cervical fluid increased the risk for prema-ture delivery initiated by preterm labour with intact membranes. Among women with preterm contractions the shortened cervical length measured by ultrasound and elevated cervical fluid phIGFBP-1 both predicted premature delivery. In summary, because of the relatively low sensitivity of cervical fluid phIGFBP-1 this biomarker is not suitable for routine screening, but provides an additional tool in assessing the risk of preterm delivery. Cervical fluid MMP-8 is not useful in early or mid pregnancy in predicting premature delivery because of its dual role. Further studies on the role of MMP-8 are therefore needed. Our study confirms that phIGFBP-1 testing is useful in predicting pre-term delivery.
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Drugs and surgical techniques may have harmful renal effects during the perioperative period. Traditional biomarkers are often insensitive to minor renal changes, but novel biomarkers may more accurately detect disturbances in glomerular and tubular function and integrity. The purpose of this study was first, to evaluate the renal effects of ketorolac and clonidine during inhalation anesthesia with sevoflurane and isoflurane, and secondly, to evaluate the effect of tobacco smoking on the production of inorganic fluoride (F-) following enflurane and sevoflurane anesthesia as well as to determine the effect of F- on renal function and cellular integrity in surgical patients. A total of 143 patients undergoing either conventional (n = 75) or endoscopic (n = 68) inpatient surgery were enrolled in four studies. The ketorolac and clonidine studies were prospective, randomized, placebo controlled and double-blinded, while the cigarette smoking studies were prospective cohort studies with two parallel groups. As a sign of proximal tubular deterioration, a similar transient increase in urine N-acetyl-beta-D-glucosaminidase/creatinine (U-NAG/crea) was noted in both the ketorolac group and in the controls (baseline vs. at two hours of anesthesia, p = 0.015) with a 3.3 minimum alveolar concentration hour sevoflurane anesthesia. Uncorrelated U-NAG increased above the maximum concentration measured from healthy volunteers (6.1 units/l) in 5/15 patients with ketorolac and in none of the controls (p = 0.042). As a sign of proximal tubular deterioration, U-glutathione transferase-alpha/crea (U-GST-alpha/crea) increased in both groups at two hours after anesthesia but a more significant increase was noted in the patients with ketorolac. U-GST-alpha/crea increased above the maximum ratio measured from healthy volunteers in 7/15 patients with ketorolac and in 3/15 controls. Clonidine diminished the activation of the renin-angiotensin aldosterone system during pneumoperitoneum; urine output was better preserved in the patients treated with clonidine (1/15 patients developed oliguria) than in the controls (8/15 developed oliguria (p=0.005)). Most patients with pneumoperitoneum and isoflurane anesthesia developed a transient proximal tubular deterioration, as U-NAG increased above 6.1 units/L in 11/15 patients with clonidine and in 7/15 controls. In the patients receiving clonidine treatment, the median of U-NAG/crea was higher than in the controls at 60 minutes of pneumoperitoneum (p = 0.01), suggesting that clonidine seems to worsen proximal tubular deterioration. Smoking induced the metabolism of enflurane, but the renal function remained intact in both the smokers and the non-smokers with enflurane anesthesia. On the contrary, smoking did not induce sevoflurane metabolism, but glomerular function decreased in 4/25 non-smokers and in 7/25 smokers with sevoflurane anesthesia. All five patients with S-F- ≥ 40 micromol/L, but only 6/45 with S-F- less than 40 micromol/L (p = 0.001), developed a S-tumor associated trypsin inhibitor concentration above 3 nmol/L as a sign of glomerular dysfunction. As a sign of proximal tubulus deterioration, U-beta 2-microglobulin increased in 2/5 patients with S-F- over 40 micromol/L compared to 2/45 patients with the highest S-F- less than 40 micromol/L (p = 0.005). To conclude, sevoflurane anesthesia may cause a transient proximal tubular deterioration which may be worsened by a co-administration of ketorolac. Clonidine premedication prevents the activation of the renin-angiotensin aldosterone system and preserves normal urine output, but may be harmful for proximal tubules during pneumoperitoneum. Smoking induces the metabolism of enflurane but not that of sevoflurane. Serum F- of 40 micromol/L or higher may induce glomerular dysfunction and proximal tubulus deterioration in patients with sevoflurane anesthesia. The novel renal biomarkers warrant further studies in order to establish reference values for surgical patients having inhalation anesthesia.
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Sormen koukistajajännevamman korjauksen jälkeisen aktiivisen mobilisaation on todettu johtavan parempaan toiminnalliseen lopputulokseen kuin nykyisin yleisesti käytetyn dynaamisen mobilisaation. Aktiivisen mobilisaation ongelma on jännekorjauksen pettämisriskin lisääntyminen nykyisten ommeltekniikoiden riittämättömän vahvuuden vuoksi. Jännekorjauksen lujuutta on parannettu kehittämällä monisäieommeltekniikoita, joissa jänteeseen tehdään useita rinnakkaisia ydinompeleita. Niiden kliinistä käyttöä rajoittaa kuitenkin monimutkainen ja aikaa vievä tekninen suoritus. Käden koukistajajännekorjauksessa käytetään yleisesti sulamattomia ommelmateriaaleja. Nykyiset käytössä olevat biohajoavat langat heikkenevät liian nopeasti jänteen paranemiseen nähden. Biohajoavan laktidistereokopolymeeri (PLDLA) 96/4 – langan vetolujuuden puoliintumisajan sekä kudosominaisuuksien on aiemmin todettu soveltuvan koukistajajännekorjaukseen. Tutkimuksen tavoitteena oli kehittää välittömän aktiivisen mobilisaation kestävä ja toteutukseltaan yksinkertainen käden koukistajajännekorjausmenetelmä biohajoavaa PLDLA 96/4 –materiaalia käyttäen. Tutkimuksessa analysoitiin viiden eri yleisesti käytetyn koukistajajänneompeleen biomekaanisia ominaisuuksia staattisessa vetolujuustestauksessa ydinompeleen rakenteellisten ominaisuuksien – 1) säikeiden (lankojen) lukumäärän, 2) langan paksuuden ja 3) ompeleen konfiguraation – vaikutuksen selvittämiseksi jännekorjauksen pettämiseen ja vahvuuteen. Jännekorjausten näkyvän avautumisen todettiin alkavan perifeerisen ompeleen pettäessä voima-venymäkäyrän myötöpisteessä. Ydinompeleen lankojen lukumäärän lisääminen paransi ompeleen pitokykyä jänteessä ja suurensi korjauksen myötövoimaa. Sen sijaan paksumman (vahvemman) langan käyttäminen tai ompeleen konfiguraatio eivät vaikuttaneet myötövoimaan. Tulosten perusteella tutkittiin mahdollisuuksia lisätä ompeleen pitokykyä jänteestä yksinkertaisella monisäieompeleella, jossa ydinommel tehtiin kolmen säikeen polyesterilangalla tai nauhamaisen rakenteen omaavalla kolmen säikeen polyesterilangalla. Nauhamainen rakenne lisäsi merkitsevästi ompeleen pitokykyä jänteessä parantaen myötövoimaa sekä maksimivoimaa. Korjauksen vahvuus ylitti aktiivisen mobilisaation jännekorjaukseen kohdistaman kuormitustason. PLDLA 96/4 –langan soveltuvuutta koukistajajännekorjaukseen selvitettiin tutkimalla langan biomekaanisia ominaisuuksia ja solmujen pito-ominaisuuksia staattisessa vetolujuustestauksessa verrattuna yleisimmin jännekorjauksessa käytettävään punottuun polyesterilankaan (Ticron®). PLDLA –langan todettiin soveltuvan hyvin koukistajajännekorjaukseen, sillä se on polyesterilankaa venymättömämpi ja solmujen pitävyys on parempi. Viimeisessä vaiheessa tutkittiin PLDLA 96/4 –langasta valmistetulla kolmisäikeisellä, nauhamaisella jännekorjausvälineellä tehdyn jännekorjauksen kestävyyttä staattisessa vetolujuustestauksessa sekä syklisessä kuormituksessa, joka simuloi staattista testausta paremmin mobilisaation toistuvaa kuormitusta. PLDLA-korjauksen vahvuus ylitti sekä staattisessa että syklisessä kuormituksessa aktiivisen mobilisaation edellyttämän vahvuuden. Nauhamaista litteää ommelmateriaalia ei aiemmin ole tutkittu tai käytetty käden koukistajajännekorjauksessa. Tässä tutkimuksessa ommelmateriaalin nauhamainen rakenne paransi merkitsevästi jännekorjauksen vahvuutta, minkä arvioidaan johtuvan lisääntyneestä kontaktipinnasta jänteen ja ommelmateriaalin välillä estäen ompeleen läpileikkautumista jänteessä. Tutkimuksessa biohajoavasta PLDLA –materiaalista valmistetulla rakenteeltaan nauhamaisella kolmisäikeisellä langalla tehdyn jännekorjauksen vahvuus saavutti aktiivisen mobilisaation edellyttämän tason. Lisäksi uusi menetelmä on helppokäyttöinen ja sillä vältetään perinteisten monisäieompeleiden tekniseen suoritukseen liittyvät ongelmat.
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The sympatrically occurring Indian short-nosed fruit bat Cynopterus sphinx and Indian flying fox Pteropus giganteus visit Madhuca latifolia (Sapotaceae), which offers fleshy corollas (approximate to 300 mg) to pollinating bats. The flowers are white, tiny and in dense fascicles The foraging activities of the two bat species were segregated in space and time. Cynopterus sphinx fed on resources at lower heights in the trees than P giganteus and its peak foraging activity occurred at 19 30 h, before that of P giganteus Foraging activities involved short searching flights followed by landing and removal of the corolla by mouth Cynopterus sphinx detached single corollas from fascicles and carried them to nearby feeding roosts, where it sucked the juice and spat out the Fibrous remains Pteropus giganteus landed on top of the trees and fed on the corollas in situ, its peak activity occurred at 20 30 11 This species glided and crawled between the branches and held the branches with claws and forearms when removing fleshy corollas with Its Mouth Both C sphinx and P giganteus consumed fleshy corollas with attached stamens and left the gynoecium intact Bagging experiments showed that fruit-set in bat-visited flowers was significantly higher (P < 0.001) than in self-pollinated flowers.
Resumo:
Acute knee injury is a common event throughout life, and it is usually the result of a traffic accident, simple fall, or twisting injury. Over 90% of patients with acute knee injury undergo radiography. An overlooked fracture or delayed diagnosis can lead to poor patient outcome. The major aim of this thesis was retrospectively to study imaging of knee injury with a special focus on tibial plateau fractures in patients referred to a level-one trauma center. Multi-detector computed tomography (MDCT) findings of acute knee trauma were studied and compared to radiography, as well as whether non-contrast MDCT can detect cruciate ligaments with reasonable accuracy. The prevalence, type, and location of meniscal injuries in magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) were evaluated, particularly in order to assess the prevalence of unstable meniscal tears in acute knee trauma with tibial plateau fractures. The possibility to analyze with conventional MRI the signal appearance of menisci repaired with bioabsorbable arrows was also studied. The postoperative use of MDCT was studied in surgically treated tibial plateau fractures: to establish the frequency and indications of MDCT and to assess the common findings and their clinical impact in a level-one trauma hospital. This thesis focused on MDCT and MRI of knee injuries, and radiographs were analyzed when applica-ble. Radiography constitutes the basis for imaging acute knee injury, but MDCT can yield information beyond the capabilities of radiography. Especially in severely injured patients , sufficient radiographs are often difficult to obtain, and in those patients, radiography is unreliable to rule out fractures. MDCT detected intact cruciate ligaments with good specificity, accuracy, and negative predictive value, but the assessment of torn ligaments was unreliable. A total of 36% (14/39) patients with tibial plateau fracture had an unstable meniscal tear in MRI. When a meniscal tear is properly detected preoperatively, treatment can be combined with primary fracture fixation, thus avoiding another operation. The number of meniscal contusions was high. Awareness of the imaging features of this meniscal abnormality can help radiologists increase specificity by avoiding false-positive findings in meniscal tears. Postoperative menisci treated with bioabsorbable arrows showed no difference, among different signal intensities in MRI, among menisci between patients with operated or intact ACL. The highest incidence of menisci with an increased signal intensity extending to the meniscal surface was in patients whose surgery was within the previous 18 months. The results may indicate that a rather long time is necessary for menisci to heal completely after arrow repair. Whether the menisci with an increased signal intensity extending to the meniscal surface represent improper healing or re-tear, or whether this is just the earlier healing feature in the natural process remains unclear, and further prospective studies are needed to clarify this. Postoperative use of MDCT in tibial plateau fractures was rather infrequent even in this large trauma center, but when performed, it revealed clinically significant information, thus benefitting patients in regard to treatment.