Hamilton decompositions of 6-regular abelian Cayley graphs

In 1969, Lovasz asked whether every connected, vertex-transitive graph has a Hamilton path. This question has generated a considerable amount of interest, yet remains vastly open. To date, there exist no known connected, vertex-transitive graph that does not possess a Hamilton path. For the Cayley graphs, a subclass of vertex-transitive graphs, the following conjecture was made: Weak Lovász Conjecture: Every nontrivial, finite, connected Cayley graph is hamiltonian. The Chen-Quimpo Theorem proves that Cayley graphs on abelian groups flourish with Hamilton cycles, thus prompting Alspach to make the following conjecture: Alspach Conjecture: Every 2k-regular, connected Cayley graph on a finite abelian group has a Hamilton decomposition. Alspach’s conjecture is true for k = 1 and 2, but even the case k = 3 is still open. It is this case that this thesis addresses. Chapters 1–3 give introductory material and past work on the conjecture. Chapter 3 investigates the relationship between 6-regular Cayley graphs and associated quotient graphs. A proof of Alspach’s conjecture is given for the odd order case when k = 3. Chapter 4 provides a proof of the conjecture for even order graphs with 3-element connection sets that have an element generating a subgroup of index 2, and having a linear dependency among the other generators. Chapter 5 shows that if Γ = Cay(A, {s1, s2, s3}) is a connected, 6-regular, abelian Cayley graph of even order, and for some1 ≤ i ≤ 3, Δi = Cay(A/(si), {sj1 , sj2}) is 4-regular, and Δi ≄ Cay(ℤ3, {1, 1}), then Γ has a Hamilton decomposition. Alternatively stated, if Γ = Cay(A, S) is a connected, 6-regular, abelian Cayley graph of even order, then Γ has a Hamilton decomposition if S has no involutions, and for some s ∈ S, Cay(A/(s), S) is 4-regular, and of order at least 4. Finally, the Appendices give computational data resulting from C and MAGMA programs used to generate Hamilton decompositions of certain non-isomorphic Cayley graphs on low order abelian groups.

Use of fluorescein and indocyanine green angiography in polypoidal choroidal vasculopathy patients following photodynamic therapy

BACKGROUND: Exudative age-related macular degeneration (AMD) is a sight-threatening event in many elderly people. Some patients have a much better outcome in visual acuity (VA) than others after treatment with photodynamic therapy (PDT) with verteporfin. The combination of fluorescein angiography (FA) and indocyanine green (ICG) angiography using the Heidelberg Retina Angiograph II (HRA 2) should make a delineation of distinct pattern(s) possible in order to better select and assess therapy. METHODS: This is a retrospective, case-control, single-centre study. We identified a total of 168 eyes of 168 patients from July 2003 to June 2006, including 30 eyes of 30 patients with better visual outcome, defined in this study as VA < or = 0.48 logMAR (> or =20/60 Snellen chart) at the end of the study. Best-corrected VA, maximal central retinal thickness as measured by optical coherence tomography, and results of the FA/ICG angiography using the HRA 2 were analyzed. In this article, we discuss patients with polypoidal choroidal vasculopathy (PCV) and their characteristics. RESULTS: The average follow-up time was 15.3 months (range 4-28 months). Seventeen (57%) of the 30 patients with better visual outcome had PCV. All patients in the group with better visual outcome needed fewer PDT treatments compared with our control group of patients with an exudative AMD. INTERPRETATION: Simultaneous FA/ICG angiography using the HRA 2 allowed delineation of a subgroup of patients with PCV who showed a better visual outcome compared with those with other types of exudative AMD, after treatment with PDT.

Resuspension of the aortic valve in acute type A dissection: long-term results

BACKGROUND AND AIM OF THE STUDY: Preservation of the aortic valve during the repair of acute type A aortic dissection (AADA) is a viable option to prevent lifelong oral anticoagulation. The study aim was to assess aortic valve function following resuspension and supracoronary ascending aortic grafting. METHODS: Among a collective of 210 consecutive patients undergoing surgery for AADA, 140 (66.7%) with resuspension of the aortic valve and supracoronary ascending graft were analyzed. Of these patients, 83 (59.3%) had a complete follow up (mean 61.2 +/- 40.8 months), with 65 of the subgroup (78.3%) being followed by computed tomography scanning and echocardiography. RESULTS: Reoperation due to severe aortic valve regurgitation was required in seven patients (10.8%). The perioperative characteristics were similar in these patients; notably, no significant difference was evident with regards to the aortic annulus diameter and the severity of regurgitation at the time of surgery. The left ventricular mass index was significantly higher in patients requiring reoperation due to aortic valve regurgitation (219.3 +/- 146.6 versus 123.9 +/- 146.6 g/m2; p <0.05). None of the patients died as a result of reoperation. CONCLUSION: The long-term functional results following resuspension of the aortic valve in AADA were very good. A close echocardiographic follow up was necessary, as reoperation of the aortic valve was required in more than 10% of the collective, with an average follow up of five years. Reoperation was mainly related to secondary dilatation of the aortic root.

Microsomal triglyceride transfer protein polymorphism (-493G/T) is associated with hepatic steatosis in patients with chronic hepatitis C

BACKGROUND: Hepatic steatosis may promote progression of chronic hepatitis C (CHC). Microsomal triglyceride transfer protein (MTP) is required for assembly and secretion of ApoB lipoprotein and is implicated in hepatitis C virus (HCV)-related steatosis. The MTP -493G/T polymorphism may promote liver fat accumulation, but its role in HCV-related steatosis is still unclear. METHODS: Two hundred ninety-eight CHC patients were studied and genotyped for MTP -493G/T variants. Hepatic MTP mRNA expression and activity were determined in a subgroup. RESULTS: Patients with grades 2/3 steatosis were older, had a higher body mass index (BMI), more advanced fibrosis and lower MTP mRNA expression and carried more often HCV genotype 3 and the MTP T allele. Age, BMI, HCV-3 and MTP T allele [odds ratio (OR) 2.05; 95% confidence interval (CI) 1.2-3.53; P=0.009] were independent risk factors for steatosis grades 2/3, and in HCV genotype non-3 patients, the MTP T allele was the strongest predictor for steatosis grade 2/3 (OR 2.17; 95% CI 1.22-3.86; P=0.008). Moreover, TT carriers had higher high-density lipoprotein (65.6+/-14.6 vs 56.1+/-16.2 mg/dl; P=0.003) and apolipoprotein AI (1.80+/-0.3 vs 1.60+/-0.3 g/L; P=0.005) levels than G allele carriers. CONCLUSIONS: Chronic hepatitis C patients with the MTP -493T allele reveal higher grades of steatosis, indicating a relevant contribution to liver fat accumulation, particularly in HCV non-3 patients.

Thalamic stimulation for tremor. Subtle changes in episodic memory are related to stimulation per se and not to a microthalamotomy effect

The aim of this study was to investigate the impact of unilateral deep brain stimulation (DBS) of the ventrointermediate (Vim) thalamic nucleus on neuropsychological functioning comparing stimulation-on with stimulation-off conditions. Nine patients [five patients with Parkinson's Disease (PD), two patients with essential tremor (ET) and 2 patients with multiple sclerosis (MS)] underwent comprehensive neuropsychological testing for cognitive functions, including general mental impairment, aphasia, agnosia, executive and constructional abilities, learning, memory, cognitive processing speed and attention as well as depression. The neuropsychological assessments were performed at least 6 months postoperatively (mean 9 months). Testing in the stimulation-on and stimulation-off condition was obtained within a period of 3 to 4 weeks. Unilateral DBS resulted in improvement of tremor in all patients. There were no significant differences between the stimulation-on and the stimulation-off condition with the exception of a decrement of word-recall in the short delay free-recall subtest of the Rey Auditory-Verbal Learning Test (RAVLT). Subgroup analysis indicated that the impairment in word-recall was related to left-sided thalamic stimulation. Our study confirms that chronic unilateral DBS is a safe method with regard to cognitive function. The subtle changes in episodic memory are related to stimulation per se and not to a microthalamotomy effect.

Quality of life in survivors after cervical artery dissection

BACKGROUND AND PURPOSE: Little data exists about longterm outcome, quality of life (QOL) and its predictors after spontaneous cervical artery dissections (sCAD). METHODS: Clinical and radiological data of 114 patients with sCAD were collected prospectively. Six patients died within 3 months, the remaining 108 were contacted after a mean of 1498 days (range: 379-3455), 99 survivors (92 %) replied. QOL, assessed with the stroke-specific QOL scale (SSQOL), and functional abilities, measured with modified Rankin Scale (mRS) were compared, and predictors of QOL were analyzed. Subgroup analyses were performed for patients with ischemic stroke, those with isolated local symptoms or transient ischemic symptoms and those without significant disabilities (mRS 0-1) at follow-up. RESULTS: Seventy-one of 99 patients (72 %) had no significant disability, but only 53 (54 %) reported a good QOL (SS-QOL > or = 4). Compared to the self-rated premorbid QOL of all patients, SS-QOL was impaired after sCAD (p < 0.001); impairment of QOL was observed in patients with ischemic stroke (p < 0.001), in patients with isolated local or transient ischemic symptoms (p < 0.038) and those without significant disabilities at follow-up (p = 0.013). Nevertheless, low mRS was associated with better overall QOL (Kendall's tau > 0.5). High National Institute of Health Stroke Scale score on admission and higher age were independent predictors of impaired QOL (p < 0.05). CONCLUSION: QOL is impaired in almost half of long-term survivors after sCAD, even in patients with local or transient symptoms or without functional disability. Impairment of QOL is a surprisingly frequent long-term sequela after sCAD and deserves attention as an outcome measure in these patients.

Accelerated hypertrophic chondrocyte kinetics in GDF-7 deficient murine tibial growth plates

The Growth/Differentiation Factors (GDFs) are a subgroup of the Bone Morphogenetic Proteins (BMPs) well known for their role in joint formation and chondrogenesis. Mice deficient in one of these signaling molecules, GDF-5, have recently been shown to exhibit a decreased rate of endochondral bone growth in the proximal tibia due to a significantly longer hypertrophic phase duration. GDF-7 is a related family member, which exhibits a high degree of sequence identity with GDF-5. The purpose of the present study was to determine whether GDF-7 deficiency also alters the endochondral bone growth rate in mice and, if so, how this is achieved. Stereologic and cell kinetic parameters in proximal tibial growth plates from 5-week-old female GDF-7 -/- mice and wild type control littermates were examined. GDF-7 deficiency resulted in a statistically significant increase in growth rate (+26%; p = 0.0084) and rate of cell loss at the chondrosseous junction (+25%; p = 0.0217). Cells from GDF-7 deficient mice also exhibited a significantly shorter hypertrophic phase duration compared to wild type controls (-27%; p = 0.0326). These data demonstrate that, in the absence of GDF-7, the rate of endochondral bone growth is affected through the modulation of hypertrophic phase duration in growth plate chondrocytes. These findings further support a growing body of evidence implicating the GDFs in the formation, maturation, and maintenance of healthy cartilage.

The etiology of liver damage imparts cytokines transforming growth factor beta1 or interleukin-13 as driving forces in fibrogenesis

It is unknown whether transforming growth factor beta1 (TGF-beta1) signaling uniformly participates in fibrogenic chronic liver diseases, irrespective of the underlying origin, or if other cytokines such as interleukin (IL)-13 share in fibrogenesis (e.g., due to regulatory effects on type I pro-collagen expression). TGF-beta1 signaling events were scored in 396 liver tissue samples from patients with diverse chronic liver diseases, including hepatitis B virus (HBV), hepatitis C virus (HCV), Schistosoma japonicum infection, and steatosis/steatohepatitis. Phospho-Smad2 staining correlated significantly with fibrotic stage in patients with HBV infection (n = 112, P < 0.001) and steatosis/steatohepatitis (n = 120, P < 0.01), but not in patients with HCV infection (n = 77, P > 0.05). In tissue with HBx protein expression, phospho-Smad2 was detectable, suggesting a functional link between viral protein expression and TGF-beta1 signaling. For IL-13, immunostaining correlated with fibrotic stage in patients with HCV infection and steatosis/steatohepatitis. IL-13 protein was more abundant in liver tissue lysates from three HCV patients compared with controls, as were IL-13 serum levels in 68 patients with chronic HCV infection compared with 20 healthy volunteers (72.87 +/- 26.38 versus 45.41 +/- 3.73, P < 0.001). Immunohistochemistry results suggest that IL-13-mediated liver fibrogenesis may take place in the absence of phospho-signal transducer and activator of transcription protein 6 signaling. In a subgroup of patients with advanced liver fibrosis (stage > or =3), neither TGF-beta nor IL-13 signaling was detectable. Conclusion: Depending on the cause of liver damage, a predominance of TGF-beta or IL-13 signaling is found. TGF-beta1 predominance is detected in HBV-related liver fibrogenesis and IL-13 predominance in chronic HCV infection. In some instances, the underlying fibrogenic mediator remains enigmatic.

Effect of once-yearly zoledronic acid 5 mg on fracture risk and change in femoral neck bone mineral density

Context: In the Health Outcomes and Reduced Incidence with Zoledronic Acid Once Yearly - Pivotal Fracture Trial (HORIZON-PFT), zoledronic acid (ZOL) 5 mg significantly reduced fracture risk. Objective: To identify factors associated with greater efficacy during ZOL 5 mg treatment. Design, Setting and Patients: Subgroup analysis (preplanned and post hoc) of a multicenter, double-blind, placebo-controlled, 36-month trial in 7765 women with postmenopausal osteoporosis. Intervention: Single infusion of ZOL 5 mg or placebo at baseline, 12 and 24 months. Main Outcome Measures: Primary endpoints: new vertebral fracture and hip fracture. Secondary endpoints: non-vertebral fracture, change in femoral neck bone mineral density (BMD). Baseline risk factor subgroups: age, BMD T-score and vertebral fracture status, total hip BMD, race, weight, geographical region, smoking, height loss, history of falls, physical activity, prior bisphosphonates, creatinine clearance, body mass index (BMI), concomitant osteoporosis medications. Results: Greater ZOL induced effects on vertebral fracture risk with younger age (treatment-by-subgroup interaction P=0.05), normal creatinine clearance (P=0.04), and BMI >/=25 kg/m(2) (P=0.02). There were no significant treatment-factor interactions for hip or non-vertebral fracture or for change in BMD. Conclusions: ZOL appeared more effective in preventing vertebral fracture in younger women, overweight/obese women and women with normal renal function. ZOL had similar effects irrespective of fracture risk factors or femoral neck BMD.

Survival in surgically treated, nodal positive prostate cancer patients is predicted by histopathological characteristics of the primary tumor and its lymph node metastases

BACKGROUND: Histopathological risk factors for survival stratification of surgically treated nodal positive prostate cancer patients are poorly defined as reflected by only one category for nodal metastases. METHODS: We evaluated biochemical recurrence-free survival (RFS), disease-specific survival (DSS), and overall survival (OS) in 102 nodal positive, hormone treatment-naïve prostate cancer patients (median age: 65 years, range: 45-75 years; median follow-up 7.7 years, range: 1.0-15.9 years) who underwent radical prostatectomy and standardized extended lymphadenectomy. RESULTS: A significant stratification was possible, with the Gleason score of the primary and virtually all nodal parameters favoring patients with better differentiated primaries and metastases, lower nodal tumor burden, and without extranodal extension of metastases. In multivariate analyses, diameter of the largest metastasis (< or =10 mm vs. >10 mm) was the strongest independent predictor for RFS (P < 0.001), DSS (P < 0.001), and OS (P < 0.001) with a more than quadrupled relative risk of cancer related deaths for patients with larger metastases (Hazard ratio: 4.2, Confidence interval: 2.0-8.9; 5-year RFS/DSS/OS: 18%/57%/54%). The highest 5-year survival rates were seen in patients with micrometastases only (RFS/DSS/OS: 47%/94%/94%). CONCLUSION: The TNM classification's current allocation of only one category for nodal metastases in prostate cancers is unsatisfactory since subgroups with significantly different prognoses can be identified. The diameter of the patient's largest metastasis (< or =10 mm vs. >10 mm) should be used for substaging because of its independent prognostic value. The substage "micrometastasis only" is also useful in nodal positive prostate cancer since it designates the subgroup with the most favorable outcome.

Reactivity of human natural antibodies to endothelial cells from Galalpha(1,3)Gal-deficient pigs

BACKGROUND: Xenoreactive human natural antibodies (NAb) are predominantly directed against galactose-alpha(1,3)galactose (Gal). Binding of immunoglobulin (Ig) G and IgM NAb activates porcine endothelial cells (pEC) and triggers complement lysis responsible for hyperacute xenograft rejection. In vitro, IgG NAb induce human natural killer (NK) cell-mediated lysis of pEC by antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC). The present study examined the levels of anti-porcine NAb in a large number of individuals and addressed the functional role of non-Gal anti-porcine NAb. METHODS: Sera from 120 healthy human blood donors were analyzed for the presence of anti-porcine NAb by flow cytometry using porcine red blood cells (pRBC), lymphoblastoid cells (pLCL), and pEC derived from control or Gal-deficient pigs. Xenogeneic complement lysis was measured by flow cytometry using human serum and rabbit complement. ADCC was analyzed by chromium-release assays using human serum and freshly isolated NK cells. RESULTS: Human IgM binding to pRBC was found in 93% and IgG binding in 86% of all samples. Non-Gal NAb comprised 13% of total IgM and 36% of total IgG binding to pEC. NAb/complement-induced lysis and ADCC of Gal-deficient compared to Gal-positive pEC were 21% and 29%, respectively. The majority of anti-Gal and non-Gal IgG NAb were of the IgG2 subclass. CONCLUSIONS: The generation of Gal-deficient pigs has overcome hyperacute anti-Gal-mediated xenograft rejection in nonhuman primates. Non-Gal anti-porcine NAb represent a potentially relevant immunological hurdle in a subgroup of individuals by inducing endothelial damage in xenografts.

A comparison of patient characteristics and 30-day mortality outcomes after transcatheter aortic valve implantation and surgical aortic valve replacement for the treatment of aortic stenosis: a two-centre study

AIMS: It is unclear whether transcatheter aortic valve implantation (TAVI) addresses an unmet clinical need for those currently rejected for surgical aortic valve replacement (SAVR) and whether there is a subgroup of high-risk patients benefiting more from TAVI compared to SAVR. In this two-centre, prospective cohort study, we compared baseline characteristics and 30-day mortality between TAVI and SAVR in consecutive patients undergoing invasive treatment for aortic stenosis. METHODS AND RESULTS: We pre-specified different adjustment methods to examine the effect of TAVI as compared with SAVR on overall 30-day mortality: crude univariable logistic regression analysis, multivariable analysis adjusted for baseline characteristics, analysis adjusted for propensity scores, propensity score matched analysis, and weighted analysis using the inverse probability of treatment (IPT) as weights. A total of 1,122 patients were included in the study: 114 undergoing TAVI and 1,008 patients undergoing SAVR. The crude mortality rate was greater in the TAVI group (9.6% vs. 2.3%) yielding an odds ratio [OR] of 4.57 (95%-CI 2.17-9.65). Compared to patients undergoing SAVR, patients with TAVI were older, more likely to be in NYHA class III and IV, and had a considerably higher logistic EuroSCORE and more comorbid conditions. Adjusted OR depended on the method used to control for confounding and ranged from 0.60 (0.11-3.36) to 7.57 (0.91-63.0). We examined the distribution of propensity scores and found scores to overlap sufficiently only in a narrow range. In patients with sufficient overlap of propensity scores, adjusted OR ranged from 0.35 (0.04-2.72) to 3.17 (0.31 to 31.9). In patients with insufficient overlap, we consistently found increased odds of death associated with TAVI compared with SAVR irrespective of the method used to control confounding, with adjusted OR ranging from 5.88 (0.67-51.8) to 25.7 (0.88-750). Approximately one third of patients undergoing TAVI were found to be potentially eligible for a randomised comparison of TAVI versus SAVR. CONCLUSIONS: Both measured and unmeasured confounding limit the conclusions that can be drawn from observational comparisons of TAVI versus SAVR. Our study indicates that TAVI could be associated with either substantial benefits or harms. Randomised comparisons of TAVI versus SAVR are warranted.

Eczematous skin reaction to atopy patch testing with cockroach in patients with atopic dermatitis

BACKGROUND: Aeroallergens from house dust mite (HDM) may be an important trigger in a subgroup of patients with atopic dermatitis (AD). HDM and cockroach (CR) contain cross-reactive allergens, such as tropomyosin. OBJECTIVE: To investigate the diagnostic value of patch testing with an aeroallergen and the role of CR allergen and HDM allergen in persons with AD. METHODS: We performed skin prick tests (SPT) with a panel of common aeroallergens and total serum immunoglobulin (Ig)E and specific IgE tests for CR and HDM on 23 patients with AD and 9 nonatopic control participants. Atopy patch tests (APT) were performed with CR and HDM extracts on clinically uninvolved skin on the back, and evaluated after 48 and 72 hours. RESULTS: A positive APT reaction to CR was found in 10/23 (43%) patients with AD. No positive reactions were observed in the nonatopic control participants. Positive APT reactions for CR showed no significant correlation with SPT or specific IgE levels for this allergen. Twelve of the 23 (52%) patients with AD were also sensitized to HDM. There was no significant correlation between positive results for SPT, APT, and specific IgE to CR and HDM. CONCLUSION: We demonstrate that CR allergens can induce positive patch test reactions in patients with AD. The absence of a significant correlation to SPT and specific IgE antibodies suggests that T-cell- and IgE-sensitization may be mediated by different allergens. There was no significant relationship between CR and HDM sensitivity, thus indicating no major cross-reactivity.

A novel FIP1L1-PDGFRA mutant destabilizing the inactive conformation of the kinase domain in chronic eosinophilic leukemia/hypereosinophilic syndrome

BACKGROUND: The Fip1-like-1-platelet-derived growth factor receptor alpha (FIP1L1-PDGFRA) gene fusion is a common cause of chronic eosinophilic leukemia (CEL)/hypereosinophilic syndrome (HES), and patients suffering from this particular subgroup of CEL/HES respond to low-dose imatinib therapy. However, some patients may develop imatinib resistance because of an acquired T674I mutation, which is believed to prevent drug binding through steric hindrance. METHODS: In an imatinib resistant FIP1L1-PDGFRA positive patient, we analyzed the molecular structure of the fusion gene and analyzed the effect of several kinase inhibitors on FIP1L1-PDGFRA-mediated proliferative responses in vitro. RESULTS: Sequencing of the FIP1L1-PDGFRA fusion gene revealed the occurrence of a S601P mutation, which is located within the nucleotide binding loop. In agreement with the clinical observations, imatinib did not inhibit the proliferation of S601P mutant FIP1L1-PDGFRA-transduced Ba/F3 cells. Moreover, sorafenib, which has been described to inhibit T674I mutant FIP1L1-PDGFRA, failed to block S601P mutant FIP1L1-PDGFRA. Structural modeling revealed that the newly identified S601P mutated form of PDGFRA destabilizes the inactive conformation of the kinase domain that is necessary to bind imatinib as well as sorafenib. CONCLUSIONS: We identified a novel mutation in FIP1L1-PDGFRA resulting in both imatinib and sorafenib resistance. The identification of novel drug-resistant FIP1L1-PDGFRA variants may help to develop the next generation of target-directed compounds for CEL/HES and other leukemias.

Effect of natural seasonal pollen exposure and repeated nasal allergen provocations on elevation of exhaled nitric oxide

BACKGROUND: Exhaled nitric oxide (FENO) is a marker for allergic airway inflammation. We wondered whether in patients with intermittent allergic rhinitis only (i) natural pollen exposure and (ii) artificial pollen exposure by repeated nasal allergen provocations may lead to an elevation of FENO. METHODS: In two prospective studies, we compared the FENO of nonatopic controls with the FENO of nonasthmatic individuals with mild intermittent rhinitis to tree and/or grass pollen. Study I: 13 atopic individuals and seven controls had measurements of FENO, blood eosinophils and eosinophilic cationic protein (ECP) before, during and after pollen season. Study II: 16 atopic individuals and 12 controls had nasal allergen provocations on four following days out of pollen season, with daily measurements of FENO before, 2 and 6 h after provocation, and determination of blood eosinophils, ECP and FEV1 at baseline, on days 5 and 10-12. RESULTS: Natural pollen exposure (study I) caused a significant elevation of FENO in allergic individuals. Nasal allergen provocations (study II) did not elicit a statistically significant rise neither of FENO nor of blood eosinophils between baseline and day 5. However, a subgroup of four individuals with a rise of blood eosinophils during nasal allergen provocations showed also a rise of FENO. CONCLUSIONS: We suppose that in allergic rhinitis a concomitant reaction of the bronchial system is dependent on a strong local inflammation leading to a generalized immune stimulation.