997 resultados para Egg Hypersensitivity -- diagnosis
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Complex and variable morphological phenotypes pose a major challenge to the histopathological classification of neuroepithelial tumors. This applies in particular for low-grade gliomas and glio-neuronal tumors. Recently, we and others have identified microtubule-associated protein-2 (MAP2) as an immunohistochemical marker expressed in the majority of glial tumors. Characteristic cell morphologies can be recognized by MAP2 immunoreactivity in different glioma entities, i.e., process sparse oligodendroglial versus densely ramified astrocytic elements. Here, we describe MAP2-immunoreactivity patterns in a large series of various neuroepithelial tumors and related neoplasms (n = 960). Immunohistochemical analysis led to the following conclusions: (1) specific pattern of MAP2-positive tumor cells can be identified in 95% of glial neoplasms; (2) ependymal tumors do not express MAP2 in their rosette-forming cell component; (3) tumors of the pineal gland as well as malignant embryonic tumors are also characterized by abundant MAP2 immunoreactivity; (4) virtually no MAP2 expression can be observed in the neoplastic glial component of glio-neuronal tumors, i.e. gangliogliomas; (5) malignant glial tumor variants (WHO grade III or IV) exhibit different and less specific MAP2 staining patterns compared to their benign counterparts (WHO grade I or II); (6) with the exception of melanomas and small cell lung cancers, MAP2 expression is very rare in metastatic and non-neuroepithelial tumors; (7) glial MAP2 expression was not detected in 56 non-neoplastic lesions. These data point towards MAP2 as valuable diagnostic tool for pattern recognition and differential diagnosis of low-grade neuroepithelial tumors.
Natalizumab-related anaphylactoid reactions in MS patients are associated with HLA class II alleles.
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OBJECTIVES We aimed to investigate potential associations between human leukocyte antigen (HLA) class I and class II alleles and the development of anaphylactic/anaphylactoid reactions in patients with multiple sclerosis (MS) treated with natalizumab. METHODS HLA class I and II genotyping was performed in patients with MS who experienced anaphylactic/anaphylactoid reactions and in patients who did not develop infusion-related allergic reactions following natalizumab administration. RESULTS A total of 119 patients with MS from 3 different cohorts were included in the study: 54 with natalizumab-related anaphylactic/anaphylactoid reactions and 65 without allergic reactions. HLA-DRB1*13 and HLA-DRB1*14 alleles were significantly increased in patients who developed anaphylactic/anaphylactoid reactions (p M-H = 3 × 10(-7); odds ratio [OR]M-H = 8.96, 95% confidence interval [CI] = 3.40-23.64), with a positive predictive value (PPV) of 82%. In contrast, the HLA-DRB1*15 allele was significantly more represented in patients who did not develop anaphylactic/anaphylactoid reactions to natalizumab (p M-H = 6 × 10(-4); ORM-H = 0.2, 95% CI = 0.08-0.50), with a PPV of 81%. CONCLUSIONS HLA-DRB1 genotyping before natalizumab treatment may help neurologists to identify patients with MS at risk for developing serious systemic hypersensitivity reactions associated with natalizumab administration.
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Age and sex have been identified as predictors of outcome in malignant melanoma (MM). This aim of this multicentre, cross-sectional study was to analyse the role of age and sex as explanatory variables for the diagnosis of thin MM. A total of 2430 patients with MM were recruited. Cases of in situ-T1 MM were more frequent than T2-T4 MM (56.26% vs. 43.74%). Breslow thickness increased throughout decades of life (analysis of variance (ANOVA) p < 0.001), with a weak correlation between Breslow thickness and patient's age (r = 0.202, p < 0.001). Breslow thickness was significantly less in women (1.79 vs. 2.38 mm, p = 0.0001). Binary logistic regression showed a significant (p < 0.001) odds ratio for age 0-29 years (1.18), and 30-59 years (1.16), and for women (1.09). Age and sex explained 3.64% of the variation observed in Tis-T1 frequency (R2 = 0.0364). Age and sex appear to explain a low percentage of the variation in the early detection of MM.
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A single-step PCR assay with genus-specific primers for the amplification of a 223-bp region of the sequence encoding a 31-kDa immunogenetic Brucella abortus protein (BCSP31) was used for the rapid diagnosis of human brucellosis. We examined peripheral blood from 47 patients, with a total of 50 cases of brucellosis, and a group of 60 control subjects, composed of patients with febrile syndromes of several etiologies other than brucellosis, asymptomatic subjects seropositive for Brucella antibodies, and healthy subjects. Diagnosis of brucellosis was established in 35 cases (70%) by isolation of Brucella in blood culture and in the other 15 cases (30%) by clinical and serological means. The sensitivity of our PCR assay was 100%, since it correctly identified all 50 cases of brucellosis, regardless of the duration of the disease, the positivity of the blood culture, or the presence of focal forms. The specificity of the test was 98.3%, and the only false-positive result was for a patient who had had brucellosis 2 months before and possibly had a self-limited relapse. In those patients who relapsed, the results of our PCR assay were positive for both the initial infection and the relapse, becoming negative once the relapse treatment was completed and remaining negative in the follow-up tests at 2, 4, and 6 months. In conclusion, these results suggest that the PCR assay is rapid and easy to perform and highly sensitive and specific, and it may therefore be considered a useful tool for diagnosis of human brucellosis.
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We studied two of the possible factors which can interfere with specific DNA amplification in a peripheral-blood PCR assay used for the diagnosis of human brucellosis. We found that high concentrations of leukocyte DNA and heme compounds inhibit PCR. These inhibitors can be efficiently suppressed by increasing the number of washings to four or five and decreasing the amount of total DNA to 2 to 4 microg, thereby avoiding false-negative results.
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BACKGROUND: Annual syphilis testing was reintroduced in the Swiss HIV Cohort Study (SHCS) in 2004. We prospectively studied occurrence, risk factors, clinical manifestations, diagnostic approaches and treatment of syphilis. METHODS: Over a period of 33 months, participants with positive test results for Treponema pallidum hemagglutination assay were studied using the SHCS database and an additional structured case report form. RESULTS: Of 7244 cohort participants, 909 (12.5%) had positive syphilis serology. Among these, 633 had previously been treated and had no current signs or symptoms of syphilis at time of testing. Of 218 patients with newly detected untreated syphilis, 20% reported genitooral contacts as only risk behavior and 60% were asymptomatic. Newly detected syphilis was more frequent among men who have sex with men (MSM) [adjusted odds ratio (OR) 2.8, P < 0.001], in persons reporting casual sexual partners (adjusted OR 2.8, P < 0.001) and in MSM of younger age (P = 0.05). Only 35% of recommended cerebrospinal fluid (CFS) examinations were performed. Neurosyphilis was diagnosed in four neurologically asymptomatic patients; all of them had a Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) titer of 1:>or=32. Ninety-one percent of the patients responded to treatment with at least a four-fold decline in VDRL titer. CONCLUSION: Syphilis remains an important coinfection in the SHCS justifying reintroduction of routine screening. Genitooral contact is a significant way of transmission and young MSM are at high risk for syphilis. Current guidelines to rule out neurosyphilis by CSF analysis are inconsistently followed in clinical practice. Serologic treatment response is above 90% in the era of combination antiretroviral therapy.
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BACKGROUND Nucleic acid amplification tests are increasingly used for the rapid diagnosis of tuberculosis. We undertook a comparative study of the efficiency and diagnostic yield of a real-time PCR senX3-regX3 based assay versus the classical IS6110 target and the new commercial methods. METHODS This single-blind prospective comparative study included 145 consecutive samples: 76 from patients with culture-confirmed tuberculosis (86.8% pulmonary and 13.2% extrapulmonary tuberculosis: 48.7% smear-positive and 51.3% smear-negative) and 69 control samples (24 from patients diagnosed with non-tuberculous mycobacteria infections and 45 from patients with suspected tuberculosis which was eventually ruled out). All samples were tested by two CE-marked assays (Xpert®MTB/RIF and AnyplexTM plus MTB/NTM) and two in-house assays targeting senX3-regX3 and the IS6110 gene. RESULTS The detection limit ranged from 1.00E+01 fg for Anyplex, senX3-regX3 and IS6110 to 1.00E+04 fg for Xpert. All three Xpert, senX3-regX3 and IS6110 assays detected all 37 smear-positive cases. Conversely, Anyplex was positive in 34 (91.9%) smear-positive cases. In patients with smear-negative tuberculosis, differences were observed between the assays; Xpert detected 22 (56.41%) of the 39 smear-negative samples, Anyplex 24 (61.53%), senX3-regX3 28 (71.79%) and IS6110 35 (89.74%). Xpert and senX3-regX3 were negative in all control samples; however, the false positive rate was 8.7% and 13% for Anyplex and IS6110, respectively. The overall sensitivity was 77.6%, 85.7%, 77.3% and 94.7% and the specificity was 100%, 100%, 90.8% and 87.0% for the Xpert, senX3-regX3, Anyplex and IS6110 assays, respectively. CONCLUSION Real-time PCR assays targeting IS6110 lack the desired specificity. The Xpert MTB/RIF and in-house senX3-regX3 assays are both sensitive and specific for the detection of MTBC in both pulmonary and extrapulmonary samples. Therefore, the real time PCR senX3-regX3 based assay could be a useful and complementary tool in the diagnosis of tuberculosis.
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Introduction: Acquired genetic instability in chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) as a consequence of the translocation t(9;22)(q34;q11) and the resulting BCR-ABL fusion causes the continuous acquisition of additional chromosomal aberrations and mutations and thereby progression to accelerated phase (AP) and blast crisis (BC). At least 10% of patients in chronic phase (CP) CML show additional alterations at diagnosis. This proportion rises during the course of the disease up to 80% in BC. Acquisition of chromosomal changes during treatment is considered as a poor prognostic indicator, whereas the impact of chromosomal aberrations at diagnosis depends on their type. Patients with major route additional chromosomal alterations (major ACA: +8, i(17)(q10), +19, +der(22)t(9;22)(q34;q11) have a worse outcome whereas patients with minor route ACA show no difference in overall survival (OS) and progression-free survival (PFS) compared to patients with the standard translocation, a variant translocation or the loss of the Y chromosome (Fabarius et al., Blood 2011). However, the impact of balanced vs. unbalanced (gains or losses of chromosomes or chromosomal material) karyotypes at diagnosis on prognosis of CML is not clear yet. Patients and methods: Clinical and cytogenetic data of 1346 evaluable out of 1544 patients with Philadelphia and BCR-ABL positive CP CML randomized until December 2011 to the German CML-Study IV, a randomized 5-arm trial to optimize imatinib therapy by combination, or dose escalation and stem cell transplantation were investigated. There were 540 females (40%) and 806 males (60%). Median age was 53 years (range, 16-88). The impact of additional cytogenetic aberrations in combination with an unbalanced or balanced karyotype at diagnosis on time to complete cytogenetic and major molecular remission (CCR, MMR), PFS and OS was investigated. Results: At diagnosis 1174/1346 patients (87%) had the standard t(9;22)(q34;q11) only and 75 patients (6%) had a variant t(v;22). In 64 of 75 patients with t(v;22), only one further chromosome was involved in the translocation; In 8 patients two, in 2 patients three, and in one patient four further chromosomes were involved. Ninety seven patients (7%) had additional cytogenetic aberrations. Of these, 44 patients (3%) lacked the Y chromosome (-Y) and 53 patients (4%) had major or minor ACA. Thirty six of the 53 patients (2.7%) had an unbalanced karyotype (including all patients with major route ACA and patients with other unbalanced alterations like -X, del(1)(q21), del(5)(q11q14), +10, t(15;17)(p10;p10), -21), and 17 (1.3%) a balanced karyotype with reciprocal translocations [e.g. t(1;21); t(2;16); t(3;12); t(4;6); t(5;8); t(15;20)]. After a median observation time of 5.6 years for patients with t(9;22), t(v;22), -Y, balanced and unbalanced karyotype with ACA median times to CCR were 1.05, 1.05, 1.03, 2.58 and 1.51 years, to MMR 1.31, 1.51, 1.65, 2.97 and 2.07 years. Time to CCR and MMR was longer in patients with balanced karyotypes (data statistically not significant). 5-year PFS was 89%, 78%, 87%, 94% and 69% and 5-year OS 91%, 87%, 89%, 100% and 73%, respectively. In CML patients with unbalanced karyotype PFS (p<0.001) and OS (p<0.001) were shorter than in patients with standard translocation (or balanced karyotype; p<0.04 and p<0.07, respectively). Conclusion: We conclude that the prognostic impact of additional cytogenetic alterations at diagnosis of CML is heterogeneous and consideration of their types may be important. Not only patients with major route ACA at diagnosis of CML but also patients with unbalanced karyotypes identify a group of patients with shorter PFS and OS as compared to all other patients. Therefore, different therapeutic options such as intensive therapy with the most potent tyrosine kinase inhibitors or stem cell transplantation are required.
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Fungal diseases still play a major role in morbidity and mortality in patients with haematological malignancies, including those undergoing haematopoietic stem cell transplantation. Although Aspergillus and other filamentous fungal diseases remain a major concern, Candida infections are still a major cause of mortality. This part of the ESCMID guidelines focuses on this patient population and reviews pertaining to prophylaxis, empirical/pre-emptive and targeted therapy of Candida diseases. Anti-Candida prophylaxis is only recommended for patients receiving allogeneic stem cell transplantation. The authors recognize that the recommendations would have most likely been different if the purpose would have been prevention of all fungal infections (e.g. aspergillosis). In targeted treatment of candidaemia, recommendations for treatment are available for all echinocandins, that is anidulafungin (AI), caspofungin (AI) and micafungin (AI), although a warning for resistance is expressed. Liposomal amphotericin B received a BI recommendation due to higher number of reported adverse events in the trials. Amphotericin B deoxycholate should not be used (DII); and fluconazole was rated CI because of a change in epidemiology in some areas in Europe. Removal of central venous catheters is recommended during candidaemia but if catheter retention is a clinical necessity, treatment with an echinocandin is an option (CII(t) ). In chronic disseminated candidiasis therapy, recommendations are liposomal amphotericin B for 8 weeks (AIII), fluconazole for >3 months or other azoles (BIII). Granulocyte transfusions are only an option in desperate cases of patients with Candida disease and neutropenia (CIII).
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BACKGROUND: Indocyanine green video-angiography (ICG) is a recent examination technique, its possibilities and limitations as far as intraocular tumours are concerned, haven't been fully explored yet. MATERIAL AND METHODS: We have studied 50 cases of non-pigmented choroidal tumours, including 14 cases of choroidal hemangioma's, 11 cases of posterior uveal metastases and 25 cases of non-pigmented melanoma's. RESULTS: Characteristic images were obtained when examining choroidal hemangioma's and, until a certain point, posterior choroidal metastases. Non pigmented melanoma's on the contrary, presented a great variety of different indocyanine green angiographic pictures. CONCLUSION: Indocyanine green video-angiography (ICG) has a definite value in the differential diagnosis of non-pigmented posterior choroidal tumours.
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Background: 7 - 20% of the childrenreport suspected allergic reactionsto anti-infectious drugs, thebetalactams being the most frequentlyinvolved. Studies based on skin andchallenge tests have shown that 2 -60% (mean: 10 - 15%) of the childrenwith suspected betalactam hypersensitivitywere really allergic to betalactams,and that the likelihood ofbetalactam hypersensitivity increasedwith the severity and/or the earlinessof the reactions. Methods: We reviewedthe records of 1,865 childrenexplored for suspected betalactam hypersensitivitybetween December1990 and July 2009. The objectivewas to confirm or rule-out the diagnosisof betalactam hypersensitivity, toevaluate the diagnostic value of immediateand non-immediate-readingskin tests with betalactams, and to determinerisk factors for betalactamhypersensitivity. In those childrenskin tests were first performed andthen challenges with the suspectedbetalactams were performed in mostchildren with negative skin test results.Results: 1431 children had acomplete allergological work-up. Fifteen-nine per cent of those childrenwere diagnosed allergic to betalactamsby means of skin tests (7.2%),challenge tests (7.7%), and clinicalhistory (0.9%) respectively. Immediatetype betalactam hypersensitivitywas diagnosed in 3.5% and non-immediatetype in 12.4% of the children.Skin tests diagnosed 86% and 31.6%of immediate and non-immediatesensitizations respectively. Cross-reactivityamong betalactams was diagnosedin 76% of the children with immediatehypersensitivity and in14.7% of the children with non-immediatehypersensitivity. The numberof children diagnosed allergic tobetalactams decreased with time betweenthe reaction and the allergologicalwork-up. Finally, age, sex andpersonal atopy were not significantrisk factors for betalactam allergy.Conclusion: This study, in a verylarge number of children, confirmsthat only a few children with suspectedbetalactam hypersensitivityare really allergic to betalactams, andthat the likelihood of betalactam allergyand cross-reactivity with otherbetalactams increases with the severityand/or the earliness of the reactions.We also confirm that immediate-reading skin tests have a good diagnosticvalue, and that the diagnosticvalue of non-immediate-reading skintests is low, the diagnosis of non-immediatehypersensitivity to betalactamsin children beeing mainly basedon challenge tests.
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Wilson's disease (WD), an autosomal recessive disorder of copper transport with a broad range of genotypic and phenotypic characteristics, results from mutations in the ATP7B gene. Herein we report the results of mutation analysis of the ATP7B gene in a group of 118 Wilson disease families (236 chromosomes) prevalently of Italian origin. Using DNA sequencing we identified 83 disease-causing mutations. Eleven were novel, while twenty one already described mutations were identified in new populations in this study. In particular, mutation analysis of 13 families of Romanian origin showed a high prevalence of the p.H1069Q mutation (50%). Detection of new mutations in the ATP7B gene in new populations increases our capability of molecular analysis that is essential for early diagnosis and treatment of WD.