Efficacy of iclaprim against wild-type and thymidine kinase-deficient methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus isolates in an in vitro fibrin clot model.

Iclaprim is a novel diaminopyrimidine antibiotic that is active against methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). However, it is known that the activity of diaminopyrimidines against S. aureus is antagonized by thymidine through uptake and conversion to thymidylate by thymidine kinase. Unlike with humans, for whom thymidine levels are low, thymidine levels in rodents are high, thus precluding the accurate evaluation of iclaprim efficacy in animal models. We have studied the bactericidal activity of iclaprim against an isogenic pair of MRSA isolates, the wild-type parent AW6 and its thymidine kinase-deficient mutant AH1252, in an in vitro fibrin clot model. Clots, which were aimed at mimicking vegetation structure, were made from human or rat plasma containing either the parent AW6 or the mutant AH1252, and they were exposed to homologous serum supplemented with iclaprim (3.5 microg/ml), trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX; 8/40 microg/ml), vancomycin (40 microg/ml), or saline, each of which was added one time for 48 h. In rat clots, iclaprim and TMP-SMX were bacteriostatic against the parent, AW6. In contrast, they were bactericidal (> or = 3 log10 CFU/clot killing of the original inoculum) against the mutant AH1252. Vancomycin was the most active drug against AW6 (P < 0.05), but it showed an activity similar those of iclaprim and TMP-SMX against AH1252. In human clots, iclaprim was bactericidal against both AW6 and AH1252 strains and was as effective as TMP-SMX and vancomycin (P > 0.05). Future studies of animals using simulated human kinetics of iclaprim and thymidine kinase-deficient MRSA, which eliminate the thymidine-induced confounding effect, are warranted to support the use of iclaprim in the treatment of severe MRSA infections in humans.

Risk factors for positive tuberculin skin tests among migrant and resident children in Lausanne, Switzerland

Résumé en français Cadre : Policlinique pédiatrique à Lausanne en Suisse, pays rencontrant une proportion importante de tuberculose au sein de la population de migrants. But : Déterminer les facteurs de risque associés à un test tuberculinique positif (ou test de Mantoux), notamment l'influence du BCG (Bacille Calmette Guérin) et d'un contact avec un personne ayant une tuberculose active. Les patients concernés étaient des enfants examinés dans le cadre d'un contrôle de santé ou dans le cadre d'une étude d'entourage d'un cas déclaré de tuberculose. Méthode : Etude descriptive comprenant des enfants ayant eu un test tuberculinique (2 unités RT23) entre novembre 2002 et avril 2004. L'âge, le sexe, l'anamnèse de contact avec une personne ayant une tuberculose active, la vaccination par le BCG, le pays d'origine et le lieu de naissance (en Suisse ou hors de la Suisse) étaient répertoriés. Résultats : Parmi les 234 enfants de l'étude, 176 (75%) avaient une réaction tuberculinique égal à zéro et 31 (13%) avaient une réaction positive (> 10mm). Dans le modèle de régression linéaire, la taille de la réaction tuberculinique variait significativement selon l'anamnèse de contact avec une personne ayant une tuberculose active, l'âge, l'incidence de la tuberculose dans le pays d'origine et la vaccination par le BCG. Le sexe ou le lieu de naissance n'influençait pas la taille de la réaction. Dans le modèle de régression logistique incluant toutes les valeurs répertoriées, les paramètres significativement associés avec un Mantoux positif étaient l'âge (Odds Ratio = 1.21, 95% CI 1.08 ; 1.35), l'anamnèse de contact avec une personne ayant une tuberculose active (OR = 7.31, 95% CI 2.23 ; 24) et l'incidence de la tuberculose dans le pays d'origine (OR = 1.01, 95% CI 1.00 ; 1.02). Le sexe (OR = 1.18, 95% CI 0.50 ; 2.78) et la vaçcination par le BCG (OR = 2.97, 95% CI 0.91 ; 9.72) n'étaient pas associés avec une réaction tuberculinique positive. Conclusions : L'incidence de la tuberculose dans le pays d'origine, la vaccination par le BCG et l'âge influencent le test de Mantoux (taille ou proportion de réaction > 10mm). Toutefois, le facteur de risque le plus important d'avoir une réaction tuberculinique positive est l'anamnèse de contact avec. une personne ayant une tuberculose active.

Efficacies of moxifloxacin, ciprofloxacin, and vancomycin against experimental endocarditis due to methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus expressing various degrees of ciprofloxacin resistance.

The new 8-methoxyquinolone moxifloxacin was tested against two ciprofloxacin-susceptible Staphylococcus aureus strains (strains P8 and COL) and two ciprofloxacin-resistant derivatives of strain P8 carrying a single grlA mutation (strain P8-4) and double grlA and gyrA mutations (strain P8-128). All strains were resistant to methicillin. The MICs of ciprofloxacin and moxifloxacin were 0.5 and 0.125 mg/liter, respectively, for P8; 0.25 and 0.125 mg/liter, respectively, for COL; 8 and 0.25 mg/liter, respectively, for P8-4; and &gt;or=128 and 2 mg/liter, respectively, for P8-128. In vitro, the rate of spontaneous resistance of P8 and COL was 10(-7) on agar plates containing ciprofloxacin at two times the MIC, whereas it was &lt;or=10(-10) on agar plates containing moxifloxacin at two times the MIC. Rats with experimental aortic endocarditis were treated with doses of drugs that simulate the kinetics in humans: moxifloxacin, 400 mg orally once a day; ciprofloxacin, 750 mg orally twice a day; or vancomycin, 1 g intravenously twice a day. Treatment was started either 12 or 24 h after infection and lasted for 3 days. Moxifloxacin treatment resulted in culture-negative vegetations in a total of 20 of 21 (95%) rats infected with P8, 10 of 11 (91%) rats infected with COL, and 19 of 24 (79%) rats infected with P8-4 (P &lt; 0.05 compared to the results for the controls). In contrast, ciprofloxacin treatment sterilized zero of nine (0%) vegetations infected with first-level resistant mutant P8-4. Vancomycin sterilized only 8 of 15 (53%), 6 of 11 (54%), and 12 of 23 (52%) of the vegetations, respectively. No moxifloxacin-resistant derivative emerged among these organisms. However, moxifloxacin treatment of highly ciprofloxacin-resistant mutant P8-128 failed and selected for variants for which the MIC increased two times in 2 of 10 animals. Thus, while oral moxifloxacin might deserve consideration as treatment for staphylococcal infections in humans, caution related to its use against strains for which MICs are borderline is warranted.

Candidiasis cutánea generalizada en recién nacido a término.

INTRODUCTION Cutaneous candidiasis is a disease that affects children as well as adults. The presentation may be localized or systemic, and with multiple etiological agents. The most prevalent infecting species in children differs from that of the adult. OBJECTIVE A case is presented where a congenital cutaneous candidiasis was transmitted to the child during birth. MATERIALS AND METHODS A full term newborn was exposed to a subclinical vaginal candidiasis infection, and 24 hr after birth, developed congenital cutaneous candidiasis. The etiological agent was Candida albicans, and was associated with sepsis and respiratory distress. Blood cultures, cutaneous biopsy of vesicular lesions, blood tests and lumbar puncture were performed. RESULTS Biochemistry and blood count showed a CRP of 5.7 mg/dl, leukocytosis with left shift and mild anemia. After 24 hr, the blood analyses showed an increase in a CRP (7.8 mg/dl) and increased progressively for three days; consequently, a lumbar puncture was performed. Blood culture was positive for Staphylococcus aureus. Cutaneous biopsy confirmed the cutaneous candidiasis. CONCLUSIONS The early diagnosis is essential to prevent complications derived by the Candida albicans in newborns.

Fluorodeoxyglucose-positron emission tomography scan-positive recurrent papillary thyroid cancer and the prognosis and implications for surgical management.

BACKGROUND To compare outcomes for patients with recurrent or persistent papillary thyroid cancer (PTC) who had metastatic tumors that were fluorodeoxyglucose-positron emission tomography (FDG-PET) positive or negative, and to determine whether the FDG-PET scan findings changed the outcome of medical and surgical management. METHODS From a prospective thyroid cancer database, we retrospectively identified patients with recurrent or persistent PTC and reviewed data on demographics, initial stage, location and extent of persistent or recurrent disease, clinical management, disease-free survival and outcome. We further identified subsets of patients who had an FDG-PET scan or an FDG-PET/CT scan and whole-body radioactive iodine scans and categorized them by whether they had one or more FDG-PET-avid (PET-positive) lesions or PET-negative lesions. The medical and surgical treatments and outcome of these patients were compared. RESULTS Between 1984 and 2008, 41 of 141 patients who had recurrent or persistent PTC underwent FDG-PET (n = 11) or FDG-PET/CT scans (n = 30); 22 patients (54%) had one or more PET-positive lesion(s), 17 (41%) had PET-negative lesions, and two had indeterminate lesions. Most PET-positive lesions were located in the neck (55%). Patients who had a PET-positive lesion had a significantly higher TNM stage (P = 0.01), higher age (P = 0.03), and higher thyroglobulin (P = 0.024). Only patients who had PET-positive lesions died (5/22 vs. 0/17 for PET-negative lesions; P = 0.04). In two of the seven patients who underwent surgical resection of their PET-positive lesions, loco-regional control was obtained without evidence of residual disease. CONCLUSION Patients with recurrent or persistent PTC and FDG-PET-positive lesions have a worse prognosis. In some patients loco-regional control can be obtained without evidence of residual disease by reoperation if the lesion is localized in the neck or mediastinum.

Neurological complications of infective endocarditis: risk factors, outcome, and impact of cardiac surgery: a multicenter observational study.

BACKGROUND The purpose of this study was to assess the incidence of neurological complications in patients with infective endocarditis, the risk factors for their development, their influence on the clinical outcome, and the impact of cardiac surgery. METHODS AND RESULTS This was a retrospective analysis of prospectively collected data on a multicenter cohort of 1345 consecutive episodes of left-sided infective endocarditis from 8 centers in Spain. Cox regression models were developed to analyze variables predictive of neurological complications and associated mortality. Three hundred forty patients (25%) experienced such complications: 192 patients (14%) had ischemic events, 86 (6%) had encephalopathy/meningitis, 60 (4%) had hemorrhages, and 2 (1%) had brain abscesses. Independent risk factors associated with all neurological complications were vegetation size ≥3 cm (hazard ratio [HR] 1.91), Staphylococcus aureus as a cause (HR 2.47), mitral valve involvement (HR 1.29), and anticoagulant therapy (HR 1.31). This last variable was particularly related to a greater incidence of hemorrhagic events (HR 2.71). Overall mortality was 30%, and neurological complications had a negative impact on outcome (45% of deaths versus 24% in patients without these complications; P<0.01), although only moderate to severe ischemic stroke (HR 1.63) and brain hemorrhage (HR 1.73) were significantly associated with a poorer prognosis. Antimicrobial treatment reduced (by 33% to 75%) the risk of neurological complications. In patients with hemorrhage, mortality was higher when surgery was performed within 4 weeks of the hemorrhagic event (75% versus 40% in later surgery). CONCLUSIONS Moderate to severe ischemic stroke and brain hemorrhage were found to have a significant negative impact on the outcome of infective endocarditis. Early appropriate antimicrobial treatment is critical, and transitory discontinuation of anticoagulant therapy should be considered.

Predicting positive food challenges at the introduction of nuts in sensitised children

Rationale: Children with atopic diseases in early life are frequently found with positive IgE tests to nuts, without a history of previous ingestion. We aimed to identify risk factors for reactions to nuts at their first introduction. Methods: A detailed retrospective case note and database analysis was performed. Inclusion criteria were: patients aged 3 to 16 years who had had a standardized food challenge to peanut and/or tree nuts due to primary sensitisation to the nut (positive specific IgE or SPT). A detailed assessment was performed of factors relating to food challenge outcome with univariate and multivariate logistic regression analysis. Results: There were 98 food challenges (48% peanut, 52% tree nut) with 29 positive, 67 negative and 2 inconclusive challenges. A positive maternal history and a specific IgE > 2 kU/l were strongly associated with a significantly increased risk of a positive food challenge (OR 3.54; 95% CI 1.28 to 9.81; and OR 4.82; 95% CI 1.57 to 14.86; respectively). There was no significant association between the type of nut, age, presence of other food allergies, paternal or sibling atopic history, other atopic conditions or severity of previous reaction to other foods. Conclusions: We have demonstrated an association between the presence of a maternal atopic history and a specific IgE > 2 kU/l, and a significant increase in the likelihood of a positive food challenge in children with primary sensitisation to nuts. Although requiring further prospective validation we suggest these easily identifiable components should be considered when deciding the need for a nut challenge.

The antimicrobial susceptibility, biofilm formation and genotypic profiles of Staphylococcus haemolyticus from bloodstream infections

We analysed the antimicrobial susceptibility, biofilm formation and genotypic profiles of 27 isolates of Staphylococcus haemolyticus obtained from the blood of 19 patients admitted to a hospital in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil. Our analysis revealed a clinical significance of 36.8% and a multi-resistance rate of 92.6% among these isolates. All but one isolate carried the mecA gene. The staphylococcal cassette chromosome mec type I was the most prevalent mec element detected (67%). Nevertheless, the isolates showed clonal diversity based on pulsed-field gel electrophoresis analysis. The ability to form biofilms was detected in 66% of the isolates studied. Surprisingly, no icaAD genes were found among the biofilm-producing isolates.

Are there positive emotions in short-term dynamic psychotherapy or is it all Freude-less ?

Psychodynamic therapists are often suspicious of positive emotions and consider them to be nothing more than a form of denial or of another defense aiming to diminish painful or difficult affects. Positive emotions seem to exist only through the absence of negative emotions or as something that may happen outside of therapy. On the other hand, clinicians also agree that psychoanalytic work could not be successful without such positive emotions as interest, pleasure, surprise and creativity. Contemporary psychoanalytic thinking and new research findings in the area of relationship regulation are likely to give positive emotions an increasingly prominent place in dynamically oriented therapies. With today's emphasis on the therapeutic relationship and intersubjectivity, the time appears right to integrate positive emotions more formally into psychodynamic clinical theories.

The multifaceted resources and microevolution of the successful human and animal pathogen methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus

Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is one of the most important bacterial pathogens based on its incidence and the severity of its associated infections. In addition, severe MRSA infections can occur in hospitalised patients or healthy individuals from the community. Studies have shown the infiltration of MRSA isolates of community origin into hospitals and variants of hospital-associated MRSA have caused infections in the community. These rapid epidemiological changes represent a challenge for the molecular characterisation of such bacteria as a hospital or community-acquired pathogen. To efficiently control the spread of MRSA, it is important to promptly detect the mecA gene, which is the determinant of methicillin resistance, using a polymerase chain reaction-based test or other rapidly and accurate methods that detect the mecA product penicillin-binding protein (PBP)2a or PBP2’. The recent emergence of MRSA isolates that harbour a mecA allotype, i.e., the mecC gene, infecting animals and humans has raised an additional and significant issue regarding MRSA laboratory detection. Antimicrobial drugs for MRSA therapy are becoming depleted and vancomycin is still the main choice in many cases. In this review, we present an overview of MRSA infections in community and healthcare settings with focus on recent changes in the global epidemiology, with special reference to the MRSA picture in Brazil.

Effect of expiratory positive airway pressure on sleep disordered breathing.

STUDY OBJECTIVES: We sought to determine the effect of expiratory positive airway pressure on end expiratory lung volume (EELV) and sleep disordered breathing in obstructive sleep apnea patients. DESIGN: Observational physiology study PARTICIPANTS: We studied 10 OSA patients during sleep wearing a facial mask. We recorded 1 hour of NREM sleep without treatment (baseline) and 1 hour with 10 cm H2O EPAP in random order, while measuring EELV and breathing pattern. RESULTS: The mean EELV change between baseline and EPAP was only 13.3 mL (range 2-25 mL). Expiratory time was significantly increased with EPAP compared to baseline 2.64 +/- 0.54 vs 2.16 +/- 0.64 sec (P = 0.002). Total respiratory time was longer with EPAP than at baseline 4.44 +/- 1.47 sec vs 3.73 +/- 0.88 sec (P = 0.3), and minute ventilation was lower with EPAP vs baseline 7.9 +/- 4.17 L/min vs 9.05 +/- 2.85 L/min (P = 0.3). For baseline (no treatment) and EPAP respectively, the mean apnea+hypopnea index (AHI) was 62.6 +/- 28.7 and 56.8 +/- 30.3 events per hour (P = 0.4). CONCLUSION: In OSA patients during sleep, the application of 10 cm H2O EPAP led to prolongation of expiratory time with only marginal increases in FRC. These findings suggest important mechanisms exist to avoid hyperinflation during sleep.

Prevalence of human papillomavirus infection, distribution of viral types and risk factors in cervical samples from human immunodeficiency virus-positive women attending three human immunodeficiency virus-acquired immune deficiency syndrome reference centres in northeastern Brazil

Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-positive patients have a greater prevalence of coinfection with human papillomavirus (HPV) is of high oncogenic risk. Indeed, the presence of the virus favours intraepithelial squamous cell lesion progression and may induce cancer. The aim of this study was to evaluate the prevalence of HPV infection, distribution of HPV types and risk factors among HIV-positive patients. Cervical samples from 450 HIV-positive patients were analysed with regard to oncotic cytology, colposcopy and HPV presence and type by means of polymerase chain reaction and sequencing. The results were analysed by comparing demographic data and data relating to HPV and HIV infection. The prevalence of HPV was 47.5%. Among the HPV-positive samples, 59% included viral types of high oncogenic risk. Multivariate analysis showed an association between HPV infection and the presence of cytological alterations (p = 0.003), age greater than or equal to 35 years (p = 0.002), number of partners greater than three (p = 0.002), CD4+ lymphocyte count < 200/mm3 (p = 0.041) and alcohol abuse (p = 0.004). Although high-risk HPV was present in the majority of the lesions studied, the low frequency of HPV 16 (3.3%), low occurrence of cervical lesions and preserved immunological state in most of the HIV-positive patients were factors that may explain the low occurrence of precancerous cervical lesions in this population.

First-line gefitinib in Caucasian EGFR mutation-positive NSCLC patients: a phase-IV, open-label, single-arm study.

BACKGROUND Phase-IV, open-label, single-arm study (NCT01203917) to assess efficacy and safety/tolerability of first-line gefitinib in Caucasian patients with stage IIIA/B/IV, epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) mutation-positive non-small-cell lung cancer (NSCLC). METHODS Treatment: gefitinib 250 mg day(-1) until progression. Primary endpoint: objective response rate (ORR). Secondary endpoints: disease control rate (DCR), progression-free survival (PFS), overall survival (OS) and safety/tolerability. Pre-planned exploratory objective: EGFR mutation analysis in matched tumour and plasma samples. RESULTS Of 1060 screened patients with NSCLC (859 known mutation status; 118 positive, mutation frequency 14%), 106 with EGFR sensitising mutations were enrolled (female 70.8%; adenocarcinoma 97.2%; never-smoker 64.2%). At data cutoff: ORR 69.8% (95% confidence interval (CI) 60.5-77.7), DCR 90.6% (95% CI 83.5-94.8), median PFS 9.7 months (95% CI 8.5-11.0), median OS 19.2 months (95% CI 17.0-NC; 27% maturity). Most common adverse events (AEs; any grade): rash (44.9%), diarrhoea (30.8%); CTC (Common Toxicity Criteria) grade 3/4 AEs: 15%; SAEs: 19%. Baseline plasma 1 samples were available in 803 patients (784 known mutation status; 82 positive; mutation frequency 10%). Plasma 1 EGFR mutation test sensitivity: 65.7% (95% CI 55.8-74.7). CONCLUSION First-line gefitinib was effective and well tolerated in Caucasian patients with EGFR mutation-positive NSCLC. Plasma samples could be considered for mutation analysis if tumour tissue is unavailable.

Reduced susceptibility to vancomycin and biofilm formation in methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus epidermidis isolated from blood cultures

This study aimed to correlate the presence of ica genes, biofilm formation and antimicrobial resistance in 107 strains of Staphylococcus epidermidis isolated from blood cultures. The isolates were analysed to determine their methicillin resistance, staphylococcal cassette chromosome mec (SCCmec) type, ica genes and biofilm formation and the vancomycin minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) was measured for isolates and subpopulations growing on vancomycin screen agar. The mecA gene was detected in 81.3% of the S. epidermidis isolated and 48.2% carried SCCmec type III. The complete icaADBC operon was observed in 38.3% of the isolates; of these, 58.5% produced a biofilm. Furthermore, 47.7% of the isolates grew on vancomycin screen agar, with an increase in the MIC in 75.9% of the isolates. Determination of the MIC of subpopulations revealed that 64.7% had an MIC ≥ 4 μg mL-1, including 15.7% with an MIC of 8 μg mL-1 and 2% with an MIC of 16 μg mL-1. The presence of the icaADBC operon, biofilm production and reduced susceptibility to vancomycin were associated with methicillin resistance. This study reveals a high level of methicillin resistance, biofilm formation and reduced susceptibility to vancomycin in subpopulations of S. epidermidis. These findings may explain the selection of multidrug-resistant isolates in hospital settings and the consequent failure of antimicrobial treatment.

Combination of trastuzumab and letrozole after resistance to sequential trastuzumab and aromatase inhibitor monotherapies in patients with estrogen receptor-positive, HER-2-positive advanced breast cancer: a proof-of-concept trial (SAKK 23/03).

A sequential treatment design was chosen in this trial to ensure complete resistance to single-agent non-steroidal aromatase inhibitor (AI) and trastuzumab both given as monotherapy before receiving the combination of a non-steroidal AI and trastuzumab. Key eligibility criteria included postmenopausal patients with advanced, measurable, human epidermal growth factor receptor-2 (HER-2)-positive disease (assessed by FISH, ratio (≥2)), hormone receptor (HR)-positive disease, and progression on prior treatment with a non-steroidal AI, e.g. letrozole or anastrozole, either in the adjuvant or in the advanced setting. Patients received standard dose trastuzumab monotherapy in step 1 and upon disease progression continued trastuzumab in combination with letrozole in step 2. The primary endpoint was clinical benefit rate (CBR) in step 2. Totally, 13 patients were enrolled. In step 1, six patients (46%) achieved CBR. Median time to progression (TTP) was 161 days (95% confidence interval (CI): 82-281). In step 2, CBR was observed in eight out of the 11 evaluable patients (73%), including one patient with partial response. Median TTP for all the 11 patients was 188 days (95% CI: 77-not reached). Results of this proof-of-concept trial suggest that complete resistance to both AI and trastuzumab can be overcome in a proportion of patients by combined treatment of AI and trastuzumab, as all patients served as their own control. Our results appear promising for a new treatment strategy that offers a chemotherapy-free option for at least a subset of patients with HR-positive, HER-2-positive breast cancer over a clinically relevant time period.