986 resultados para DEFENSE RESPONSES


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Predation forms one of the main selective forces in nature and in a vast number of prey species the behavioural responses form the main way to avoid predation. World wide numerous captive breeding programs are used to produce fish and other animal species for conservational reintroductions. However, rearing animals in the absence of predators in captivity has been shown to weaken their predator avoidance skills and lead to behavioural divergence between wild and captive-bred populations. In my thesis I studied the effects of predator odour exposures on antipredator behavioural and physiological responses of captive reared Saimaa Arctic charr. This charr population is the most endangered fish population in Finland and a sample of the remaining population has been taken to captive breeding and used for an extensive reintroduction program. Lowered responsiveness to predators is probably one of the major reasons for the poor survival probability of the charr after release into the wild. The main aims of my thesis were to explore the reasons for behavioural phenotypic variation in this charr population and whether naïve charr young could be trained to recognise their natural predators. The predator species in my thesis were burbot (Lota lota) and pikeperch (Sander lucioperca). In my thesis I showed that the captive-bred charr responded to chemical cues from burbot and pikeperch, but the magnitude of responses was linked to the predator species. The burbot odour increased the spatial odour avoidance of the charr young. On the other hand, in the pikeperch treatment charr reduced their relative swimming activity and tended to show more freezing behaviour relative to the burbot treatment. It seems evident that these different responses are related to the different hunting tactics of predator species. Furthermore, I detected wide between-family differences in antipredator responsiveness (i.e. inherited variation in antipredator behaviours) in this captive stock. Detected differences were greater in the response towards burbot than towards pikeperch. These results, in addition to predator-specific antipredator responses, suggest that there is a clear inherited component in antipredator responsiveness in Saimaa charr population and that the detected inherited differences could explain a part of the behavioural phenotypic variation in this population. In my thesis I also found out that both social learning and direct exposure to live predators enhance the antipredator responsiveness of charr young. In addition, I obtained indications that predator odour exposures (i.e. life-skills training) in alevin and fry stages can fine-tune the innate antipredator responsiveness of charr. Thus, all these methods have the potential to enhance the innate antipredator responsiveness of naïve charr young, possibly also improving the post-release survival of these trained individuals in the wild. However, the next logical phase would be to carry out large scale survival studies in the wild to test this hypothesis. Finally, the results of my thesis emphasize that possible long-term life-skills training methods should take into account not only the behavioural but also the physiological effects of training.

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Antigen stimulation of naive T cells in conjunction with strong costimulatory signals elicits the generation of effector and memory populations. Such terminal differentiation transforms naive T cells capable of differentiating along several terminal pathways in response to pertinent environmental cues into cells that have lost developmental plasticity and exhibit heightened responsiveness. Because these cells exhibit little or no need for the strong costimulatory signals required for full activation of naive T cells, it is generally considered memory and effector T cells are released from the capacity to be inactivated. Here, we show that steadystate dendritic cells constitutively presenting an endogenously expressed antigen inactivate fully differentiated memory and effector CD8+ T cells in vivo through deletion and inactivation. These findings indicate that fully differentiated effector and memory T cells exhibit a previously unappreciated level of plasticity and provide insight into how memory and effector T-cell populations may be regulated. © 2008 by The American Society of Hematology.

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Tropospheric ozone (O3) is one of the most common air pollutants in industrialized countries, and an increasing problem in rapidly industrialising and developing countries in Asia, Africa and South America. Elevated concentrations of tropospheric O3 can lead to decrease in photosynthesis rate and therefore affect the normal metabolism, growth and seed production. Acute and high O3 episodes can lead to extensive damage leading to dead tissue in plants. Thus, O3 derived growth defects can lead to reduction in crop yield thereby leading to economical losses. Despite the extensive research on this area, many questions remain open on how these processes are controlled. In this study, the stress-induced signaling routes and the components involved were elucidated in more detail starting from visual damage to changes in gene expression, signaling routes and plant hormone interactions that are involved in O3-induced cell death. In order to elucidate O3-induced responses in Arabidopsis, mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK) signaling was studied using different hormonal signaling mutants. MAPKs were activated at the beginning of the O3 exposure. The activity of MAPKs, which were identified as AtMPK3 and AtMPK6, reached the maximum at 1 and 2 hours after the start of the exposure, respectively. The activity decreased back to clean air levels at 8 hours after the start of the exposure. Both AtMPK3 and AtMPK6 were translocated to nucleus at the beginning of the O3 exposure where they most likely affect gene expression. Differences were seen between different hormonal signaling mutants. Functional SA signaling was shown to be needed for the full protein levels and activation of AtMPK3. In addition, AtMPK3 and AtMPK6 activation was not dependent on ethylene signaling. Finally, jasmonic acid was also shown to have an impact on AtMPK3 protein levels and AtMPK3 activity. To further study O3-induced cell death, an earlier isolated O3 sensitive Arabidopsis mutant rcd1 was mapped, cloned and further characterized. RCD1 was shown to encode a gene with WWE and ADP-ribosylation domains known to be involved in protein-protein interactions and cell signaling. rcd1 was shown to be involved in many processes including hormonal signaling and regulation of stress-responsive genes. rcd1 is sensitive against O3 and apoplastic superoxide, but tolerant against paraquat that produces superoxide in chloroplast. rcd1 is also partially insensitive to glucose and has alterations in hormone responses. These alterations are seen as ABA insensitivity, reduced jasmonic acid sensitivity and reduced ethylene sensitivity. All these features suggest that RCD1 acts as an integrative node in hormonal signaling and it is involved in the hormonal regulation of several specific stress-responsive genes. Further studies with the rcd1 mutant showed that it exhibits the classical features of programmed cell death, PCD, in response to O3. These include nuclear shrinkage, chromatin condensation, nuclear DNA degradation, cytosol vesiculation and accumulation of phenolic compounds and eventually patches of HR-like lesions. rcd1 was found to produce extensive amount of salicylic acid and jasmonic acid in response to O3. Double mutant studies showed that SA independent and dependent processes were involved in the O3-induced PCD in rcd1 and that increased sensitivity against JA led to increased sensitivity against O3. Furthermore, rcd1 had alterations in MAPK signature that resembled changes that were previously seen in mutants defective in SA and JA signaling. Nitric oxide accumulation and its impact on O3-induced cell death were also studied. Transient accumulation of NO was seen at the beginning of the O3 exposure, and during late time points, NO accumulation coincided with the HR-like lesions. NO was shown to modify defense gene expression, such as, SA and ethylene biosynthetic genes. Furthermore, rcd1 was shown to produce more NO in control conditions. In conclusion, NO was shown to be involved in O3-induced signaling leading to attenuation of SA biosynthesis and other defense related genes.

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Plants constantly face adverse environmental conditions, such as drought or extreme temperatures that threaten their survival. They demonstrate astonishing metabolic flexibility in overcoming these challenges and one of the key responses to stresses is changes in gene expression leading to alterations in cellular functions. This is brought about by an intricate network of transcription factors and associated regulatory proteins. Protein-protein interactions and post-translational modifications are important steps in this control system along with carefully regulated degradation of signaling proteins. This work concentrates on the RADICAL-INDUCED CELL DEATH1 (RCD1) protein which is an important regulator of abiotic stress-related and developmental responses in Arabidopsis thaliana. Plants lacking this protein function display pleiotropic phenotypes including sensitivity to apoplastic reactive oxygen species (ROS) and salt, ultraviolet B (UV-B) and paraquat tolerance, early flowering and senescence. Additionally, the mutant plants overproduce nitric oxide, have alterations in their responses to several plant hormones and perturbations in gene expression profiles. The RCD1 gene is transcriptionally unresponsive to environmental signals and the regulation of the protein function is likely to happen post-translationally. RCD1 belongs to a small protein family and, together with its closest homolog SRO1, contains three distinguishable domains: In the N-terminus, there is a WWE domain followed by a poly(ADP-ribose) polymerase-like domain which, despite sequence conservation, does not seem to be functional. The C-terminus of RCD1 contains a novel domain called RST. It is present in RCD1-like proteins throughout the plant kingdom and is able to mediate physical interactions with multiple transcription factors. In conclusion, RCD1 is a key point of signal integration that links ROS-mediated cues to transcriptional regulation by yet unidentified means, which are likely to include post-translational mechanisms. The identification of RCD1-interacting transcription factors, most of whose functions are still unknown, opens new avenues for studies on plant stress as well as developmental responses.

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In this work, we have tried to emphasize the connection between mycobacterial growth and regulation of gene expression. Utilization of multiple carbon sources and diauxic growth helps bacteria to regulate gene expression at an optimum level so that the inhospitable conditions encountered during nutrient depletion can be circumvented. These aspects will be discussed with respect to mycobacterial growth in subsequent sections. Identification and characterization of genes induced under such conditions is helpful to understand the physiology of the bacterium. Although it is necessary to compare the total expression profile of proteins as they transit from vegetative growth to stationary phase, at times a lot of insights can be deciphered from the expression pattern of one or two proteins. We have compared the protein expression and sigma factor selectivity of two such proteins in M. smegmatis to understand the differential regulation of genes playing diverse function in the same species. Some newer insights on the structure and function of one of the Dps proteins are also explained.

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Mycobacterium tuberculosis is the etiologic agent of human tuberculosis and is estimated to infect one-third of the world's population. Control of M. tuberculosis requires T cells and macrophages. T-cell function is modulated by the cytokine environment, which in mycobacterial infection is a balance of proinflammatory (interleukin-1 [IL-1], IL-6, IL-8, IL-12, and tumor necrosis factor alpha) and inhibitory (IL-10 and transforming growth factor beta [TGF-beta]) cytokines. IL-10 and TGF-beta are produced by M. tuberculosis-infected macrophages. The effect of IL-10 and TGF-beta on M. tuberculosis-reactive human CD4(+) and gammadelta T cells, the two major human T-cell subsets activated by M. tuberculosis, was investigated. Both IL-10 and TGF-beta inhibited proliferation and gamma interferon production by CD4(+) and gammadelta T cells. IL-10 was a more potent inhibitor than TGF-beta for both T-cell subsets. Combinations of IL-10 and TGF-beta did not result in additive or synergistic inhibition. IL-10 inhibited gammadelta and CD4(+) T cells directly and inhibited monocyte antigen-presenting cell (APC) function for CD4(+) T cells and, to a lesser extent, for gammadelta T cells. TGF-beta inhibited both CD4(+) and gammadelta T cells directly and had little effect on APC function for gammadelta and CD4(+) T cells. IL-10 down-regulated major histocompatibility complex (MHC) class I, MHC class II, CD40, B7-1, and B7-2 expression on M. tuberculosis-infected monocytes to a greater extent than TGF-beta. Neither cytokine affected the uptake of M. tuberculosis by monocytes. Thus, IL-10 and TGF-beta both inhibited CD4(+) and gammadelta T cells but differed in the mechanism used to inhibit T-cell responses to M. tuberculosis.

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Alveolar macrophages form the first line of defense against inhaled droplets containing Mycobacterium tuberculosis by controlling mycobacterial growth and regulating T cell responses. CD4+ and gamma delta T cells, two major T cell subsets activated by M. tuberculosis, require accessory cells for activation. However, the ability of alveolar macrophages to function as accessory cells for T cell activation remains controversial. We sought to determine the ability of alveolar macrophages to serve as accessory cells for resting (HLA-DR-, IL-2R-) and activated (HLA-DR+, IL-2R+) gamma delta T cells in response to M. tuberculosis and its Ag, and to compare accessory cell function for gamma delta T cells of alveolar macrophages and blood monocytes obtained from the same donor. Alveolar macrophages were found to serve as accessory cells for both resting and activated gamma delta T cells in response to M. tuberculosis Ag. At high alveolar macrophage to T cell ratios (> 3:1), however, expansion of resting gamma delta T cells was inhibited by alveolar macrophages. The inhibition of resting gamma delta T cells by alveolar macrophages was dose-dependent, required their presence during the first 24 h, and was partially overcome by IL-2. Alveolar macrophages did not inhibit activated gamma delta T cells even at high accessory cell to T cell ratios, and alveolar macrophages functioned as well as monocytes as accessory cells. Monocytes were not inhibitory for either resting or activated gamma delta T cells. These findings support the following model. In the normal alveolus the alveolar macrophage to T cell ratio is > or = 9:1, and therefore the threshold for resting gamma delta T cell activation is likely to be high. Once a nonspecific inflammatory response occurs, such as after invasion by M. tuberculosis, this ratio is altered, favoring gamma delta T cell activation by alveolar macrophages.

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CD4+ and gamma delta T cells are activated readily by Mycobacterium tuberculosis. To examine their role in the human immune response to M. tuberculosis, CD4+ and gamma delta T cells from healthy tuberculin-positive donor were studied for patterns of Ag recognition, cytotoxicity, and cytokine production in response to M. tuberculosis-infected mononuclear phagocytes. Both T cell subsets responded to intact M. tuberculosis and its cytosolic Ags. However, CD4+ and gamma delta T cells differed in the range of cytosolic Ags recognized: reactivity to a wide m.w. range of Ags for CD4+ T cells, and a restricted pattern for gamma delta T cells, with dominance of Ags of 10 to 15 kDa. Both T cell subsets were equally cytotoxic for M. tuberculosis-infected monocytes. Furthermore, both CD4+ and gamma delta T cells produced large amounts of IFN-gamma: mean pg/ml of IFN-gamma in supernatants was 2458 +/- 213 for CD4+ and 2349 +/- 245 for gamma delta T cells. By filter-spot ELISA (ELISPOT), the frequency of IFN-gamma-secreting gamma delta T cells was one-half of that of CD4+ T cells in response to M. tuberculosis, suggesting that gamma delta T cells on a per cell basis were more efficient producers of IFN-gamma than CD4+ T cells. In contrast, CD4+ T cells produced more IL-2 than gamma delta T cells, which correlated with diminished T cell proliferation of gamma delta T cells compared with CD4+ T cells. These results indicate that CD4+ and gamma delta T cell subsets have similar effector functions (cytotoxicity, IFN-gamma production) in response to M. tuberculosis-infected macrophages, despite differences in the Ags recognized, IL-2 production, and efficiency of IFN-gamma production.

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Spirometry is the most widely used lung function test in the world. It is fundamental in diagnostic and functional evaluation of various pulmonary diseases. In the studies described in this thesis, the spirometric assessment of reversibility of bronchial obstruction, its determinants, and variation features are described in a general population sample from Helsinki, Finland. This study is a part of the FinEsS study, which is a collaborative study of clinical epidemiology of respiratory health between Finland (Fin), Estonia (Es), and Sweden (S). Asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) constitute the two major obstructive airways diseases. The prevalence of asthma has increased, with around 6% of the population in Helsinki reporting physician-diagnosed asthma. The main cause of COPD is smoking with changes in smoking habits in the population affecting its prevalence with a delay. Whereas airway obstruction in asthma is by definition reversible, COPD is characterized by fixed obstruction. Cough and sputum production, the first symptoms of COPD, are often misinterpreted for smokers cough and not recognized as first signs of a chronic illness. Therefore COPD is widely underdiagnosed. More extensive use of spirometry in primary care is advocated to focus smoking cessation interventions on populations at risk. The use of forced expiratory volume in six seconds (FEV6) instead of forced vital capacity (FVC) has been suggested to enable office spirometry to be used in earlier detection of airflow limitation. Despite being a widely accepted standard method of assessment of lung function, the methodology and interpretation of spirometry are constantly developing. In 2005, the ATS/ERS Task Force issued a joint statement which endorsed the 12% and 200 ml thresholds for significant change in forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1) or FVC during bronchodilation testing, but included the notion that in cases where only FVC improves it should be verified that this is not caused by a longer exhalation time in post-bronchodilator spirometry. This elicited new interest in the assessment of forced expiratory time (FET), a spirometric variable not usually reported or used in assessment. In this population sample, we examined FET and found it to be on average 10.7 (SD 4.3) s and to increase with ageing and airflow limitation in spirometry. The intrasession repeatability of FET was the poorest of the spirometric variables assessed. Based on the intrasession repeatability, a limit for significant change of 3 s was suggested for FET during bronchodilation testing. FEV6 was found to perform equally well as FVC in the population and in a subgroup of subjects with airways obstruction. In the bronchodilation test, decreases were frequently observed in FEV1 and particularly in FVC. The limit of significant increase based on the 95th percentile of the population sample was 9% for FEV1 and 6% for FEV6 and FVC; these are slightly lower than the current limits for single bronchodilation tests (ATS/ERS guidelines). FEV6 was proven as a valid alternative to FVC also in the bronchodilation test and would remove the need to control duration of exhalation during the spirometric bronchodilation test.

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Most of the diseases affecting public health, like hypertension, are multifactorial by etiology. Hypertension is influenced by genetic, life style and environmental factors. Estimation of the influence of genes to the risk of essential hypertension varies from 30 to 50%. It is plausible that in most of the cases susceptibility to hypertension is determined by the action of more than one gene. Although the exact molecular mechanism underlying essential hypertension remains obscure, several monogenic forms of hypertension have been identified. Since common genetic variations may predict, not only to susceptibility to hypertension, but also response to antihypertensive drug therapy, pharmacogenetic approaches may provide useful markers in finding relations between candidate genes and phenotypes of hypertension. The aim of this study was to identify genetic mutations and polymorphisms contributing to human hypertension, and examine their relationships to intermediate phenotypes of hypertension, such as blood pressure (BP) responses to antihypertensive drugs or biochemical laboratory values. Two groups of patients were investigated in the present study. The first group was collected from the database of patients investigated in the Hypertension Outpatient Ward, Helsinki University Central Hospital, and consisted of 399 subjects considered to have essential hypertension. Frequncies of the mutant or variant alleles were compared with those in two reference groups, healthy blood donors (n = 301) and normotensive males (n = 175). The second group of subjects with hypertension was collected prospectively. The study subjects (n=313) underwent a protocol lasting eight months, including four one-month drug treatment periods with antihypertensive medications (thiazide diuretic, β-blocker, calcium channel antagonist, and an angiotensin II receptor antagonist). BP responses and laboratory values were related to polymorphims of several candidate genes of the renin-angiotensin system (RAS). In addition, two patients with typical features of Liddle’s syndrome were screened for mutations in kidney epithelial sodium channel (ENaC) subunits. Two novel mutations causing Liddle’s syndrome were identified. The first mutation identified located in the beta-subunit of ENaC and the second mutation found located in the gamma-subunit, constituting the first identified Liddle mutation locating in the extracellular domain. This mutation showed 2-fold increase in channel activity in vitro. Three gene variants, of which two are novel, were identified in ENaC subunits. The prevalence of the variants was three times higher in hypertensive patients (9%) than in reference groups (3%). The variant carriers had increased daily urinary potassium excretion rate in relation to their renin levels compared with controls suggesting increased ENaC activity, although in vitro they did not show increased channel activity. Of the common polymorphisms of the RAS studied, angiotensin II receptor type I (AGTR1) 1166 A/C polymorphism was associated with modest changes in RAS activity. Thus, patients homozygous for the C allele tended to have increased aldosterone and decreased renin levels. In vitro functional studies using transfected HEK293 cells provided additional evidence that the AGTR1 1166 C allele may be associated with increased expression of the AGTR1. Common polymorphisms of the alpha-adducin and the RAS genes did not significantly predict BP responses to one-month monotherapies with hydroclorothiazide, bisoprolol, amlodipin, or losartan. In conclusion, two novel mutations of ENaC subunits causing Liddle’s syndrome were identified. In addition, three common ENaC polymorphisms were shown to be associated with occurrence of essential hypertension, but their exact functional and clinical consequences remain to be explored. The AGTR1 1166 C allele may modify the endocrine phenotype of hypertensive patients, when present in homozygous form. Certain widely studied polymorphisms of the ACE, angiotensinogen, AGTR1 and alpha-adducin genes did not significantly affect responses to a thiazide, β-blocker, calcium channel antagonist, and angiotensin II receptor antagonist.

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Rest tremor, rigidity, and slowness of movements-considered to be mainly due to markedly reduced levels of dopamine (DA) in the basal ganglia-are characteristic motor symptoms of Parkinson's disease (PD). Although there is yet no cure for this illness, several drugs can alleviate the motor symptoms. Among these symptomatic therapies, L-dopa is the most effective. As a precursor to DA, it is able to replace the loss of DA in the basal ganglia. In the long run L-dopa has, however, disadvantages. Motor response complications, such as shortening of the duration of drug effect ("wearing-off"), develop in many patients. In addition, extensive peripheral metabolism of L-dopa by aromatic amino acid decarboxylase and catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT) results in its short half-life, low bioavailability, and reduced efficacy. Entacapone, a nitrocatechol-structured compound, is a highly selective, reversible, and orally active inhibitor of COMT. It increases the bioavailability of L-dopa by reducing its peripheral elimination rate. Entacapone extends the duration of clinical response to each L-dopa dose in PD patients with wearing-off fluctuations. COMT is important in the metabolism of catecholamines. Its inhibition could, therefore, theoretically lead to adverse cardiovascular reactions, especially in circumstances of enhanced sympathetic activity (physical exercise). PD patients may be particularly vulnerable to such effects due to high prevalence of cardiovascular autonomic dysfunction, and the common use of monoamine oxidase B inhibitor selegiline, another drug with effects on catecholamine metabolism. Both entacapone and selegiline enhance L-dopa's clinical effect. Their co-administration may therefore lead to pharmacodynamic interactions, either beneficial (improved L-dopa efficacy) or harmful (increased dyskinesia). We investigated the effects of repeated dosing (3-5 daily doses for 1-2 weeks) of entacapone 200 mg administered either with or without selegiline (10 mg once daily), on several safety and efficacy parameters in 39 L-dopa-treated patients with mild to moderate PD in three double-blind placebo-controlled, crossover studies. In the first two, the cardiovascular, clinical, and biochemical responses were assessed repeatedly for 6 hours after drug intake, first with L-dopa only (control), and then after a 2 weeks on study drugs (entacapone vs. entacapone plus selegiline in one; entacapone vs. selegiline vs. entacapone plus selegiline in the other). The third study included cardiovascular reflex and spiroergometric exercise testing, first after overnight L-dopa withdrawal (control), and then after 1 week on entacapone plus selegiline as adjuncts to L-dopa. Ambulatory ECG was recorded in two of the studies. Blood pressure, heart rate, ECG, cardiovascular autonomic function, cardiorespiratory exercise responses, and the resting/exercise levels of circulating catecholamines remained unaffected by entacapone, irrespective of selegiline. Entacapone significantly enhanced both L-dopa bioavailability and its clinical response, the latter being more pronounced with the co-administration of selegiline. Dyskinesias were also increased during simultaneous use of both entacapone and selegiline as L-dopa adjuncts. Entacapone had no effect on either work capacity or work efficiency. The drug was well tolerated, both with and without selegiline. Conclusions: the use of entacapone-either alone or combined with selegiline-seems to be hemodynamically safe in L-dopa-treated PD patients, also during maximal physical effort. This is in line with the safety experience from larger phase III studies. Entacapone had no effect on cardiovascular autonomic function. Concomitant administration of entacapone and selegiline may enhance L-dopa's clinical efficacy but may also lead to increased dyskinesia.