Sínteses e caracterizações de materiais microporosos com estrutura cristalográfica mista e suas aplicações como catalisadores em reações de conversão de biomassa em produtos de química fina

Coordenação de Aperfeiçoamento de Pessoal de Nível Superior (CAPES)

Quality Assessment of Cardiac Magnetic Resonance Images at 1.5/3.0 T: Description and Validation of Standardized Criteria

PURPOSE: Cardiovascular magnetic resonance (CMR) has become a robust and important diagnostic imaging modality in cardiovascular medicine. However,insufficient image quality may compromise its diagnostic accuracy. No standardized criteria are available to assess the quality of CMR studies. We aimed todescribe and validate standardized criteria to evaluate the quality of CMR studies including: a) cine steady-state free precession, b) delayed gadoliniumenhancement, and c) adenosine stress first-pass perfusion. These criteria will serve for the assessment of the image quality in the setting of the Euro-CMR registry.METHOD AND MATERIALS: First, a total of 45 quality criteria were defined (35 qualitative criteria with a score from 0-3, and 10 quantitative criteria). Thequalitative score ranged from 0 to 105. The lower the qualitative score, the better the quality. The quantitative criteria were based on the absolute signal intensity (delayed enhancement) and on the signal increase (perfusion) of the anterior/posterior left ventricular wall after gadolinium injection. These criteria were then applied in 30 patients scanned with a 1.5T system and in 15 patients scanned with a 3.0T system. The examinations were jointly interpreted by 3 CMR experts and 1 study nurse. In these 45 patients the correlation between the results of the quality assessment obtained by the different readers was calculated.RESULTS: On the 1.5T machine, the mean quality score was 3.5. The mean difference between each pair of observers was 0.2 (5.7%) with a mean standarddeviation of 1.4. On the 3.0T machine, the mean quality score was 4.4. The mean difference between each pair of onservers was 0.3 (6.4%) with a meanstandard deviation of 1.6. The quantitative quality assessments between observers were well correlated for the 1.5T machine: R was between 0.78 and 0.99 (pCONCLUSION: The described criteria for the assessment of CMR image quality are robust and have a low inter-observer variability, especially on 1.5T systems.CLINICAL RELEVANCE/APPLICATION: These criteria will allow the standardization of CMR examinations. They will help to improve the overall quality ofexaminations and the comparison between clinical studies.

Elevated levels of plasma osteoprotegerin are associated with all-cause mortality risk and atherosclerosis in patients with stages 3 to 5 chronic kidney disease

Osteoprotegerin (OPG) regulates bone mass by inhibiting osteoclast differentiation and activation, and plays a role in vascular calcification. We evaluated the relationship between osteoprotegerin levels and inflammatory markers, atherosclerosis, and mortality in patients with stages 3-5 chronic kidney disease. A total of 145 subjects (median age 61 years, 61% men; 36 patients on hemodialysis, 55 patients on peritoneal dialysis, and 54 patients with stages 3-5 chronic kidney disease) were studied. Clinical characteristics, markers of mineral metabolism (including fibroblast growth factor-23 [FGF-23]) and inflammation (high-sensitivity C-reactive protein [hsCRP] and interleukin-6 [IL-6]), and the intima-media thickness (IMT) in the common carotid arteries were measured at baseline. Cardiac function was assessed by color tissue Doppler echocardiography. After 36 months follow-up, the survival rate by Kaplan-Meier analysis was significantly different according to OPG levels (χ2=14.33; P=0.002). Increased OPG levels were positively associated with IL-6 (r=0.38, P<0.001), FGF-23 (r=0.26, P<0.001) and hsCRP (r=0.0.24, P=0.003). In addition, OPG was positively associated with troponin I (r=0.54, P<0.001) and IMT (r=0.39, P<0.0001). Finally, in Cox analysis, only OPG (HR=1.07, 95%CI=1.02-1.13) and hsCRP (HR=1.02, 95%CI=1.01-1.04) were independently associated with increased risk of death. These results suggested that elevated levels of serum OPG might be associated with atherosclerosis and all-cause mortality in patients with chronic kidney disease.

An insight into the beginning stage of the aqueous ring opening metathesis polymerization of exo,exo-7-oxabicyclo[2.2.1]hept-5-ene-2,3-dicarboxylic acid with Ru(III) compounds: the consumption of Ru(III) species in the presence of carboxylic acids monitored by ESR spectroscopy

The presence of paramagnetic species in the aqueous ring opening metathesis polymerizations of the exo,exo-7-oxabicyclo[2.2.1]hept-5-ene-2,3-dicarboxylic acid monomer with RuCl(3) and K(2)[RuCl(5)H(2)O] compounds was studied using ESR techniques. It was observed that the intensities of the Ru(III) signals in the ESR spectra decrease on the time scale of the induction period so that the ROMP can take place. The intensity of the Ru(III) signal almost disappeared 50 min after reacting with K(2)[RuCl(5)H(2)O] and after 100 mm in the case of RuCl(3). Reactions of the cis-[Ru(NH(3))(4)(H(2)O)(2)](tfms)(3) and [Ru(NH(3))(5)H(2)O](tfms)(3) complexes with the monomer and different organic compounds representing the organic functions in the monomer (furan, norbornene, but-2-ene-1,4-diol and formic, acetic, oxalic and maleic acids) were also monitored by ESR and UV/vis spectra. It was deduced that the organic acids provide the disappearance of the Ru(III) signal. The proton NMR relaxation times of the residual water in D(2)O for reactions with oxalic acid suggested that the presence of paramagnetic ions in the solution decreases along with

Prevalência e fatores de risco à persistência de hábitos bucais de sucção não nutritiva em crianças de 3 a 5 anos de idade

Coordenação de Aperfeiçoamento de Pessoal de Nível Superior

Molecular consequences of the loss of 3'→5' exonuclease activity of DNA polymerases delta and epsilon

The DNA replication polymerases δ and ϵ have an inherent proofreading mechanism in the form of a 3'→5' exonuclease. Upon recognition of errant deoxynucleotide incorporation into DNA, the nascent primer terminus is partitioned to the exonuclease active site where the incorrectly paired nucleotide is excised before resumption of polymerization. The goal of this project was to identify the cellular and molecular consequences of an exonuclease deficiency. The proofreading capability of model system MEFs with EXOII mutations was abolished without altering polymerase function.^ It was hypothesized that 3'→5' exonucleases of polymerases δ and ϵ are critical for prevention of replication stress and important for sensitization to nucleoside analogs. To test this hypothesis, two aims were formulated: Determine the effect of the exonuclease active site mutation on replication related molecular signaling and identify the molecular consequences of an exonuclease deficiency when replication is challenged with nucleoside analogs.^ Via cell cycle studies it was determined that larger populations of exonuclease deficient cells are in the S-phase. There was an increase in levels of replication proteins, cell population growth and DNA synthesis capacity without alteration in cell cycle progression. These findings led to studies of proteins involved in checkpoint activation and DNA damage sensing. Finally, collective modifications at the level of DNA replication likely affect the strand integrity of DNA at the chromosomal level.^ Gemcitabine, a DNA directed nucleoside analog is a substrate of polymerases δ and ϵ and exploits replication to become incorporated into DNA. Though accumulation of gemcitabine triphosphate was similar in all cell types, incorporation into DNA and rates of DNA synthesis were increased in exonuclease defective cells and were not consistent with clonogenic survival. This led to molecular signaling investigations which demonstrated an increase in S-phase cells and activation of a DNA damage response upon gemcitabine treatment.^ Collectively, these data indicate that the loss of exonuclease results in a replication stress response that is likely required to employ other repair mechanisms to remove unexcised mismatches introduced into DNA during replication. When challenged with nucleoside analogs, this ongoing stress response coupled with repair serves as a resistance mechanism to cell death.^

The mammalian phosphatidylinositol 3-phosphate 5-kinase (PIKfyve) regulates endosome-to-TGN retrograde transport

The yeast gene fab1 and its mammalian orthologue Pip5k3 encode the phosphatidylinositol 3-phosphate [PtdIns(3)P] 5-kinases Fab1p and PIKfyve, respectively, enzymes that generates phosphatidylinositol 3,5-bisphosphate [PtdIns(3,5)P(2)]. A shared feature of fab1Delta yeast cells and mammalian cells overexpressing a kinase-dead PIKfyve mutant is the formation of a swollen vacuolar phenotype: a phenotype that is suggestive of a conserved function for these enzymes and their product, PtdIns(3,5)P(2), in the regulation of endomembrane homeostasis. In the current study, fixed and live cell imaging has established that, when overexpressed at low levels in HeLa cells, PIKfyve is predominantly associated with dynamic tubular and vesicular elements of the early endosomal compartment. Moreover, through the use of small interfering RNA, it has been shown that suppression of PIKfyve induces the formation of swollen endosomal structures that maintain their early and late endosomal identity. Although internalisation, recycling and degradative sorting of receptors for epidermal growth factor and transferrin was unperturbed in PIKfyve suppressed cells, a clear defect in endosome to trans-Golgi-network (TGN) retrograde traffic was observed. These data argue that PIKfyve is predominantly associated with the early endosome, from where it regulates retrograde membrane trafficking to the TGN. It follows that the swollen endosomal phenotype observed in PIKfyve-suppressed cells results primarily from a reduction in retrograde membrane fission rather than a defect in multivesicular body biogenesis.

Sea-surface reconstructions of the western Pacific Ocean during the last 5.3 million years

The late Neogene was a time of cryosphere development in the northern hemisphere. The present study was carried out to estimate the sea surface temperature (SST) change during this period based on the quantitative planktonic foraminiferal data of 8 DSDP sites in the western Pacific. Target factor analysis has been applied to the conventional transfer function approach to overcome the no-analog conditions caused by evolutionary faunal changes. By applying this technique through a combination of time-slice and time-series studies, the SST history of the last 5.3 Ma has been reconstructed for the low latitude western Pacific. Although the present data set is close to the statistical limits of factor analysis, the clear presence of sensible variations in individual SST time-series suggests the feasibility and reliability of this method in paleoceanographic studies. The estimated SST curves display the general trend of the temperature fluctuations and reveal three major cool periods in the late Neogene, i.e. the early Pliocene (4.7 3.5 Ma), the late Pliocene (3.1-2.7 Ma), and the latest Pliocene to early Pleistocene (2.2-1.0 Ma). Cool events are reflected in the increase of seasonality and meridional SST gradient in the subtropical area. The latest Pliocene to early Pleistocene cooling is most important in the late Neogene climatic evolution. It differs from the previous cool events in its irreversible, steplike change in SST, which established the glacial climate characteristic of the late Pleistocene. The winter and summer SST decreased by 3.3-5.4°C and 1.0 2.1C in the subtropics, by 0.9°C and 0.6C in the equatorial region, and showed little or no cooling in the tropics. Moreover, this cooling event occurred as a gradual SST decrease during 2.2 1.0 Ma at the warmer subtropical sites, while that at cooler subtropical site was an abrupt SST drop at 2.2 Ma. In contrast, equatorial and tropical western Pacific experienced only minor SST change in the entire late Neogene. In general, subtropics was much more sensitive to climatic forcing than tropics and the cooling events were most extensive in the cooler subtropics. The early Pliocene cool periods can be correlated to the Antarctic ice volume fluctuation, and the latest Pliocene early Pleistocene cooling reflects the climatic evolution during the cryosphere development of the northern hemisphere.

A SUBSET OF 3´ TO 5´ EXORIBONUCLEASES ARE THE PRIMARY ENZYMES RESPONSIBLE FOR THE DEGRADATION OF PGPG IN CYCLIC DI-GMP SIGNALING

Bis-(3´-5´)-cyclic dimeric guanosine monophosphate, or cyclic di-GMP (c-di-GMP) is a ubiquitous bacterial second messenger that regulates processes such biofilm formation, motility, and virulence. C-di-GMP is synthesized by diguanylate cyclases (DGCs), while phosphodiesterases (PDE-As) end signaling by linearizing c-di-GMP to 5ʹ-phosphoguanylyl-(3ʹ,5ʹ)-guanosine (pGpG), which is then hydrolyzed to two GMPs by previously unidentified enzymes termed PDE-Bs. To identify the PDE-B responsible for pGpG turnover, a screen for pGpG binding proteins in a Vibrio cholerae open reading frame library was conducted to identify potential pGpG binding proteins. This screen led to identification of oligoribonuclease (Orn). Purified Orn binds to pGpG and can cleave pGpG to GMP in vitro. A deletion mutant of orn in Pseudomonas aeruginosa was highly defective in pGpG turnover and accumulated pGpG. Deletion of orn also resulted in accumulation c-di-GMP, likely through pGpG-mediated inhibition of the PDE-As, causing an increase in c-di-GMP-governed auto-aggregation and biofilm. Thus, we found that Orn serves as the primary PDE-B enzyme in P. aeruginosa that removes pGpG, which is necessary to complete the final step in the c-di-GMP degradation pathway. However, not all bacteria that utilize c-di-GMP signaling also have an ortholog of orn, suggesting that other PDE-Bs must be present. Therefore, we asked whether RNases that cleave small oligoribonucleotides in other species could also act as PDE-Bs. NrnA, NrnB, and NrnC can rapidly degrade pGpG to GMP. Furthermore, they can reduce the elevated aggregation and biofilm formation in P. aeruginosa ∆orn. Together, these results indicate that rather than having a single dedicated PDE-B, different bacteria utilize distinct RNases to cleave pGpG and complete c-di-GMP signaling. The ∆orn strain also has a growth defect, indicating changes in other regulatory processes that could be due to pGpG accumulation, c-di-GMP accumulation, or another effect due to loss of Orn. We sought to investigate the genetic pathways responsible for these growth defect phenotypes by use of a transposon suppressor screen, and also investigated transcriptional changes using RNA-Seq. This work identifies that c-di-GMP degradation intersects with RNA degradation at the point of the Orn and the functionally related RNases.

Síntesis, caracterización y estudio de compuestos de coordinación con el ligando N,N¿dimetil-N-N-bis(2-hidroxi-3-metoxi-5-metilbencil) etilendiamina (H2L)

257 p.

Metabólitos secundários das esponjas Aplysina fistularis e Dysidea sp. e atividade antituberculose da 11-cetofistularina-3

The present investigation reports the isolation of aeroplysinin-2, 2-(3,5-dibromo-4-methoxyphenyl)-N,N,N-trimethyletanamonium, 7,9-dibromo-10-hydroxy-8-methoxy-1-oxa-2-azaspiro[4.5]deca-2,6,8-trien-3-carboxylic acid and its methyl ester, 11-oxoaerothionin, aerothionin, 11-keto-12-hydroxyaerothionin, 11-ketofistularin-3 and fistularin-3 from Aplysina fistularis, as well as of furodysinin lactone and 9α,11α-epoxicholest-7-en-3β,5α,6α,10-tetrol-6-acetate from Dysidea sp. Although the extracts of both sponges displayed antituberculosis activity, only 11-ketofistularin-3 isolated from A. fistularis displayed antimycobacterial activity against Mycobacterium tuberculosis H34Rv, with MIC at 16 μg/mL and SI of 40, a result that reinforce that fistularin-3 derivatives are interesting leads for the development of antituberculosis drugs.

Thermo-optical characteristics and concentration quenching effects in Nd(3+)doped yttrium calcium borate glasses

In this work we present a comprehensive study of the spectroscopic and thermo-optical properties of a set of samples with composition xNd(2)O(3)-(5-x)Y(2)O(3-)40CaO-55B(2)O(3) (0 <= x <= 1.0 mol%). Their fluorescence quantum efficiency (eta) values were determined using the thermal lens technique and the dependence on the ionic concentration was analyzed in terms of energy transfer processes, based on the Forster-Dexter model of multipolar ion-ion interactions. A maximum eta = 0.54 was found to be substantially higher than for yttrium aluminoborate crystals and glasses with comparable Nd(3+) content. As for the thermo-optical properties of yttrium calcium borate, they are comparable to other well-known laser glasses. The obtained energy transfer microparameters and the weak dependence of. on the Nd(3+) concentration with a high optimum Nd(3+) concentration put this system as a strong candidate for photonics applications. (C) 2011 American Institute of Physics. [doi:10.1063/1.3567091]

Polymer matrix sensitizing effect on photoluminescence properties of Eu(3+)-beta-diketonate complex doped into poly-beta-hydroxybutyrate (PHB) in film form

In this work is reported the sensitization effect by polymer matrices on the photoluminescence properties of diaquatris(thenoyltrifluoroacetonate)europium(III), [Eu(tta)(3)(H(2)O)(2)], doped into poly-beta-hydroxybutyrate (PHB) with doping percentage at 1, 3, 5, 7 and 10% (mass) in film form. TGA results indicated that the Eu(3+) complex precursor was immobilized in the polymer matrix by the interaction between the Eu(3+) complex and the oxygen atoms of the PHB polymer when the rare earth complex was incorporated in the polymeric host. The thermal behaviour of these luminescent systems is similar to that of the undoped polymer, however, the T(onset) temperature of decomposition decreases with increase of the complex doping concentration. The emission spectra of the Eu(3+) complex doped PHB films recorded at 298 K exhibited the five characteristic bands arising from the (5)D(0) -> (7)F(J) intraconfigurational transitions (J = 0-4). The fact that the quantum efficiencies eta of the doped film increased significantly revealed that the polymer matrix acts as an efficient co-sensitizer for Eu(3+) luminescent centres and therefore enhances the quantum efficiency of the emitter (5)D(0) level. The luminescence intensity decreases, however, with increasing precursor concentration in the doped polymer to greater than 5% where a saturation effect is observed at this specific doping percentage, indicating that changes in the polymeric matrix improve the absorption property of the film, consequently quenching the luminescent effect.

Validity of (-)-[H-3]-CGP 12177A as a radioligand for the 'putative beta(4)-adrenoceptor' in rat atrium

1 We have recently suggested the existence in the heart of a 'putative beta(4)-adrenoceptor' based on the cardiostimulant effects of non-conventional partial agonists, compounds that cause cardiostimulant effects at greater concentrations than those required to block beta(1)- and Bz-adrenoceptors. We sought to obtain further evidence by establishing and validating a radioligand binding assay for this receptor with (-)-[H-3]-CGP 12177A ((-)-4-(3-tertiarybutylamino-2-hydroxypropoxy) benzimidazol-2-one) in rat atrium. We investigated (-)-[H-3]-CGP 12177A for this purpose for two reasons, because it is a nonconventional partial agonist and also because it is a hydrophilic radioligand. 2 Increasing concentrations of(-)-[H-3]-CGP 12177A, in the absence or presence of 20 mu M (-)-CGP 12177A to define non-specific binding, resulted in a biphasic saturation isotherm. Low concentrations bound to beta(1)- and beta(2)-adrenoceptors (pK(D) 9.4+/-0.1, B-max 26.9+/-3.1 fmol mg(-1) protein) and higher concentrations bound to the 'putative beta(4)-adrenoceptor' (pK(D) 7.5+/-0.1, B-max 47.7+/-4.9 fmol mg(-1) protein). In other experiments designed to exclude beta(1)- and beta(2)-adrenoceptors, (-)-[H-3]-CGP 12177A (1-200 nM) binding in the presence of 500 nM (-)-propranolol was also saturable (pK(D) 7.6+/-0.1, B-max 50.8+/-7.4 fmol mg(-1) protein). 3 The non-conventional partial agonists (-)-CGP 12177A (pK(i) 7.3+/-0.2), (+/-)-cyanopindolol (pK(i) 7.6+/-0.2), (-)-pindolol (pK(i) 6.6+/-0.1) and (+)-carazolol (pk(i), 7.2+/-0.2) and the antagonist (-)-bupranolol (pK(i) 6.6+/-0.2), all competed for (-)-[H-3]-CGP 12177A binding in the presence of 500 nM (-)-propranolol at the 'putative beta(4)-adrenoceptor', with affinities closely similar to potencies and affinities determined in organ bath studies. 4 The catecholamines competed with (-)-[H-3]-CGP 12177A at the 'putative beta(4)-adrenoceptor' in a stereoselective manner, (-)-noradrenaline (pK(iH) 6.3 +/- 0.3, pK(i), 3.5 +/- 0.1), (-)-adrenaline (pK(iH) 6.5 +/- 0.2, pK(iL) 2.9 +/- 0.1), (-)-isoprenaline (pK(iH) 6.2 +/- 0.5, pK(iL) 3.3 +/- 0.1), (+)-isoprenaline (pK(i) < 1.7), (-)-R0363 ((-)-(1-(3,4-dimethoxyphenethylamino)-3-(3,4-dihydroxyphenoxy)-2-propranol)oxalate, pK(i) 5.5 +/- 0.1). 5 The inclusion of guanosine 5-triphosphate (GTP 0.1 mM) had no effect on binding of (-)-CGP 12177A or (-)-isoprenaline to the 'putative beta(4)-adrenoceptor'. In competition binding studies, (-)-CGP 12177A competed with (-)-[H-3]-CGP 12177A for one receptor state in the absence (pK(i) 7.3 +/- 0.2) or presence of GTP (pK(i) 7.3 +/- 0.2). (-)-Isoprenaline competed with (-)-[H-3]-CGP 12177A for two states in the absence (pK(iH) 6.6 +/- 0.3, pK(iL) 3.5 +/- 0.1; % H 25 +/- 7) or presence of GTP (pK(iH) 6.2 +/- 0.5, pK(iL) 3.4 +/- 0.1; % H 37 +/- 6). In contrast, at beta(1)-adrenoceptors, GTP stabilized the low affinity state of the receptor for (-)-isoprenaline. 6 The specificity of binding to the 'putative beta(4)-adrenoceptor' was tested with compounds active at other receptors. High concentrations of the beta(4)-adrenoceptor agonists, BRL 37344 ((RR + SS)[4-[2-[[2-(3-chlorophenyl)-2-hydroxy -ethyl]amino]propyl]phenoxy]acetic acid, 6 mu M), SR 58611A (ethyl((7S)-7-[(2R)-2-(3-chlorophenyl)-2-hydroxyethylamino]-5,6,7,8-tetrahydronaphtyl-2-yloxy) acetate hydrochloride, 6 mu M), ZD 2079 ((+/-)-1-phenyl-2-(2-4-carboxymethylphenoxy)-ethylamino)ethan-1-ol, 60 mu M), CL 316243 (disodium (R,R)-5-[2-[2-(3-chlorophenyl)-2-hydroxyethyl-amino]propyl]- 1,3-benzodioxole-2,2-dicarboxylate, 60 mu M) and antagonist SR 59230A (3-(2-ethylphenoxy)-1-[(1S)-1,2,3,4-tetrahydronaphth-1-ylamino]-2S-2-propanol oxalate, 6 mu M) caused less than 22% inhibition of (-)-[H-3]-CGP 12177A binding in the presence of 500 nM (-)-propranolol. Histamine (1 mM), atropine (1 mu M), phentolamine (10 mu M), 5-HT(100 mu M) and the 5-HT4 receptor antagonist SE 207710 ((1-butyl-4-piperidinyl)-methyl 8-amino-7-iodo-1 ,4-benzodioxan-5-carboxylate, 10 nM) caused less than 26% inhibition of binding. 7 Non-conventional partial agonists, the antagonist (-)-bupranolol and catecholamines all competed for (-)-[H-3]-CGP 12177A binding in the absence of (-)-propranolol at beta(1)-adrenoceptors, with affinities (pK(i)) ranging from 1.6-3.6 log orders greater than at the 'putative beta(4)-adrenoceptor'. 8 We have established and validated a radioligand binding assay in rat atrium for the 'putative beta(4)-adrenoceptor' which is distinct from beta(1)-, beta(2)- and beta(3)-adrenoceptors. The stereoselective interaction with the catecholamines provides further support for the classification of the receptor as 'putative beta(4)-adrenoceptor'.

Better CD4+T Cell Recovery in Brazilian HIV-Infected Individuals Under HAART Due to Cumulative Carriage of SDF-1-3`A, CCR2-V64I, CCR5-D32 and CCR5-Promoter 59029A/G Polymorphisms

Polymorphisms of chemokines and chemokine-receptors genes have been shown to influence the rate of progression to AIDS; however, their influence on response to HAART remains unclear. We investigated the frequency of the SDF-1-3`A, CCR2-64I, CCR5-D32 and CCR5-Promoter-59029-A/G polymorphisms in Brazilian HIV-1-infected and uninfected individuals and their influence on CD4+ T-cell evolution HIV-1 infected individuals before and during HAART. Polymorphism detection was done in a transversal study of 200 HIV-1-infected and 82 uninfected individuals. The rate of CD4+ T cell increase or decrease was studied in a cohort of 155 HIV-1 infected individuals on pre and post-HAART. Polymorphisms were determined by PCR associated with RFLP. The rate of CD4+ T-cell decline or increase was also determined. HIV-1 infected and uninfected subjects showed, respectively, frequencies of 0.193 and 0.220 for SDF-1-3`A, of 0.140 and 0.110 for CCR2-V64I, of 0.038 and 0.055 for CCR5-D32, and of 0.442 and 0.390 for CCR5-P-59029-A/G. HIV-1-infected subjects carrying one, two or three of these four polymorphisms showed better CD4+ T-cell recovery than HIV-1-infected subjects carrying the four wild-type alleles (+2.7, +1.6, +3.5, and -0.9 lymphocytes/mu l/month, respectively). Regression logistic analysis showed that the CCR5-D32/CCR2-V64I association was predictor of positive CD4+ T cell slope after HAART. The distribution of polymorphisms did not differ between HIV-1-infected and uninfected individuals, but differed from more homogenous ethnic groups probably reflecting the miscegenation of the Brazilian population. We add further evidence of the role of these polymorphisms by showing that the CD4 gain was influenced by carriage of one or more of the polymorphisms studied here. These results highlight the possibility that these genetic traits can be useful to identify patients at risk for faster progression to AIDS or therapeutic failure.