Oral Mucosal Melanoma of the Mandibular Gingiva: A Case Report

Orla mucosal melanoma is rare and is reported to be more aggressive than cutaneous melanoma. The incidence of oral mucosal melanoma peaks at 41 to 60 years of age and the male to female ratio is 2 to 1. Preferred sites in the oral mucosa include the hard palate and maxillary alveolar crests. Risk factors have not been clearly identified, but melanotic pigmentation is present in one-third of patients prior to the diagnosis of melanoma. We report an unusual case of oral mucosal melanoma of the mandibular gingiva with the main characteristics of an in situ lesion and areas of superficial invasion in a 45-year-old woman. The patient was treated with surgical resection of the lesion and a 54-month follow-up shows no evidence of recurrence. Oral mucosal melanomas are aggressive neoplasms that may arise from prior pigmented lesions in the oral mucosa. Classification of these tumors is not well-established and the main prognostic factor appears to be lymph node compromise. The main treatment modality is surgical resection. Cutis. 2010;86:89-93.

Effect of Disease Severity on the Performance of Cirrus Spectral-Domain OCT for Glaucoma Diagnosis

PURPOSE. To evaluate the effect of disease severity on the diagnostic accuracy of the Cirrus Optical Coherence Tomograph (Cirrus HD-OCT; Carl Zeiss Meditec, Inc., Dublin, CA) for glaucoma detection. METHODS. One hundred thirty-five glaucomatous eyes of 99 patients and 79 normal eyes of 47 control subjects were recruited from the longitudinal Diagnostic Innovations in Glaucoma Study (DIGS). The severity of the disease was graded based on the visual field index (VFI) from standard automated perimetry. Imaging of the retinal nerve fiber layer (RNFL) was obtained using the optic disc cube protocol available on the Cirrus HD-OCT. Pooled receiver operating characteristic (ROC) curves were initially obtained for each parameter of the Cirrus HD-OCT. The effect of disease severity on diagnostic performance was evaluated by fitting an ROC regression model, with VFI used as a covariate, and calculating the area under the ROC curve (AUCs) for different levels of disease severity. RESULTS. The largest pooled AUCs were for average thickness (0.892), inferior quadrant thickness (0.881), and superior quadrant thickness (0.874). Disease severity had a significant influence on the detection of glaucoma. For the average RNFL thickness parameter, AUCs were 0.962, 0.932, 0.886, and 0.822 for VFIs of 70%, 80%, 90%, and 100%, respectively. CONCLUSIONS. Disease severity had a significant effect on the diagnostic performance of the Cirrus HD-OCT and thus should be considered when interpreting results from this device and when considering the potential applications of this instrument for diagnosing glaucoma in the various clinical settings. (Invest Ophthalmol Vis Sci. 2010;51:4104-4109) DOI:10.1167/iovs.094716

Comparison between videofluoroscopy and endoscopic evaluation of swallowing for the diagnosis of dysphagia in children

OBJECTIVE: To compare videofluoroscopy swallowing study (VFSS) with the fiberoptic endoscopic evaluation of swallowing (FEES) in children and to determine the accuracy of FEES in the diagnosis of specific swallowing disorders. STUDY DESIGN: Cross-sectional study. SETTING: Hospital da Crianca Santo Antonio, affiliated with Santa Casa de Misericordia Hospital Complex, Porto Alegre, RS, Brazil. SUBJECTS AND METHODS: FEES findings were compared to those of VFSS in 30 children. Kappa coefficients for interobserver agreement were calculated. Thereafter, these coefficients were evaluated in terms of agreement between FEES and VFSS. In addition, the sensitivity, specificity, positive predictive value, and negative predictive value of FEES were calculated for four swallowing parameters (posterior spillover, pharyngeal residues, laryngeal penetration, and laryngotracheal aspiration). RESULTS: Interobserver agreement rates greater than 70 percent were obtained for all FEES parameters analyzed, except for pharyngeal residues with puree consistency (agreement = 66.7%, K = 0.296, P = 0.091). Laryngeal aspiration and penetration yielded the best level of agreement (100%, K = 1) for the laryngeal aspiration of puree residues. CONCLUSION: The diagnostic agreement between FEES (both observers) and VFSS was low. Regarding the analyzed parameters, laryngeal penetration and aspiration yielded the highest interobserver agreement in terms of FEES, and also showed the highest specificity and positive predictive value when compared to VFSS. (C) 2010 American Academy of Otolaryngology-Head and Neck Surgery Foundation. All rights reserved.

DOG1 for the Diagnosis of Gastrointestinal Stromal Tumor (GIST): Comparison Between 2 Different Antibodies

Gastrointestinal stromal tumor (GIST) is the most common mesenchymal neoplasm of the gastrointestinal tract. Discovered on GIST-1 (DOG1) is a recently described protein expressed in GISTs irrespective of mutation status. The aim of this study was to investigate the immunohistochemical expression of DOG1 using 2 different monoclonal antibodies (DOG1.1 and the commercially available K9 antibody) in 668 GIST cases and to compare the results with the expression of KIT. DOG1 and KIT expression also were studied in most human normal tissues and several nonmesenchymal and mesenchymal tumors other than GIST. KIT was expressed in 643 (96.3%) GISTs. DOG1.1 and K9 were positive in 538 (80.5%) and 642 (96.1%) GIST cases, respectively. In 25 (3.7%) KIT-negative GIST cases, DOG1 was expressed in 5 (20.0%) and 19 (76.0%) using DOG1.1 and K9 antibodies, respectively. Only 0.9% of GISTs were negative for KIT, DOG1.1, and K9. Most normal human tissues did not reveal KIT and DOG1 expression. DOG1.1 was positive in only 2 of 57 synovial sarcomas and 1 of 61 soft tissue leiomyosarcomas. K9 was positive in 5 of 57 synovial sarcomas, 1 of 14 angiosarcomas, 1 of 61 soft tissue leiomyosarcomas, 3 of 4 adenoid cystic carcinomas of the head and neck, and in myoepithelial cells of 9 of 11. broadenomas of the breast. In conclusion, the commercially available K9 is of great utility for the diagnosis of most KIT-negative GISTs, and the combination of both KIT and K9 antibody in a panel of immunohistochemistry can define the diagnosis of GIST in more than 99% of cases.

Real-time quantitative PCR in cerebral toxoplasmosis diagnosis of Brazilian human immunodeficiency virus-infected patients

Cerebral toxoplasmosis is the most common cerebral mass lesion in AIDS patients in Brazil, and results in high mortality and morbidity, despite free access to HAART (highly active antiretroviral treatment). Molecular diagnosis based on conventional PCR (cnPCR) or real-time quantitative PCR (qrtPCR) has been indispensable for definitive diagnosis. We report here the evaluation of qrtPCR with blood and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) samples from AIDS patients in Brazil. This prospective study was conducted for 2 years, analysing DNA samples extracted from 149 AIDS patients (98 blood and 51 CSF samples) with confirmed clinical and radiological diagnosis The laboratory diagnosis included cnPCR (with the B22/B23 primer set) and indirect immunofluorescence (IF). For qrtPCR, two primer sets were simultaneously designed based on described genes and using a 6-carboxyfluorescein dye-labelled TaqMan MGB (minor groove binder) probe One was Bug, which amplified a sequence from the B1 gene The other was the RETg, which amplified a PCR product of the 529 bp sequence. The overall cnPCR and qrtPCR results were positive results were observed in 33.6% (50) patients The sensitivities were 98% for cnPCR (B22/B23), and 86 and 98% for qrtPCR (B1Tg and RETg, respectively). Negative reactions were observed in 66 4% patients. The specificities were 97% for cnPCR and qrtPCR (B1Tg). and 88.8% for RETg These data show that RETg PCR is highly sensitive as it amplifies a repeat region with many copies; however, its specificity is lower than the other markers However, B1Tg PCR had good specificity, but lower sensitivity Among the patients, 20 had blood and CSF collected simultaneously Thus, their results permitted us to analyse and compare molecular, serological and clinical diagnosis for a better understanding of the different scenarios of laboratorial and clinical diagnosis. For nine patients with confirmed cerebral toxoplasmosis diagnosis, four scenarios were observed: (i) and (ii) negative molecular diagnosis for CSF and positive for blood with variable IF titres for the sera and CSF (negative or positive), (iii) positive molecular diagnosis with CSF and negative with blood, and (iv) positive molecular diagnosis in both samples. In the latter two situations, normally the IF titres in sera and CSF are variable. Other opportunistic infections were shown in 11 patients Despite the IF titres in sera and CSF being variable, all of them had negative molecular diagnosis for both samples qrtPCR allows for a rapid identification of Toxoplasma gondii DNA in patient samples; in a minority of cases discrepancies occur with the cnPCR.

Predictive Factors for Positive Surgical Margins and Their Locations After Robot-Assisted Laparoscopic Radical Prostatectomy

Background: Positive surgical margin (PSM) after radical prostatectomy (RP) has been shown to be an independent predictive factor for cancer recurrence. Several investigations have correlated clinical and histopathologic findings with surgical margin status after open RP. However, few studies have addressed the predictive factors for PSM after robot-assisted laparoscopic RP (RARP). Objective: We sought to identify predictive factors for PSMs and their locations after RARP. Design, setting, and participants: We prospectively analyzed 876 consecutive patients who underwent RARP from January 2008 to May 2009. Intervention: All patients underwent RARP performed by a single surgeon with previous experience of > 1500 cases. Measurements: Stepwise logistic regression was used to identify potential predictive factors for PSM. Three logistic regression models were built: (1) one using preoperative variables only, (2) another using all variables (preoperative, intraoperative, and postoperative) combined, and (3) one created to identify potential predictive factors for PSM location. Preoperative variables entered into the models included age, body mass index (BMI), prostate-specific antigen, clinical stage, number of positive cores, percentage of positive cores, and American Urological Association symptom score. Intra-and postoperative variables analyzed were type of nerve sparing, presence of median lobe, percentage of tumor in the surgical specimen, gland size, histopathologic findings, pathologic stage, and pathologic Gleason grade. Results and limitations: In the multivariable analysis including preoperative variables, clinical stage was the only independent predictive factor for PSM, with a higher PSM rate for T3 versus T1c (odds ratio [OR]: 10.7; 95% confidence interval [CI], 2.6-43.8) and for T2 versus T1c (OR: 2.9; 95% CI, 1.9-4.6). Considering pre-, intra-, and postoperative variables combined, percentage of tumor, pathologic stage, and pathologic Gleason score were associated with increased risk of PSM in the univariable analysis (p < 0.001 for all variables). However, in the multivariable analysis, pathologic stage (pT2 vs pT1; OR: 2.9; 95% CI, 1.9-4.6) and percentage of tumor in the surgical specimen (OR: 8.7; 95% CI, 2.2-34.5; p = 0.0022) were the only independent predictive factors for PSM. Finally, BMI was shown to be an independent predictive factor(OR: 1.1; 95% CI, 1.0-1.3; p = 0.0119) for apical PSMs, with increasing BMI predicting higher incidence of apex location. Because most of our patients were referred from other centers, the biopsy technique and the number of cores were not standardized in our series. Conclusions: Clinical stage was the only preoperative variable independently associated with PSM after RARP. Pathologic stage and percentage of tumor in the surgical specimen were identified as independent predictive factors for PSMs when analyzing pre-, intra-, and postoperative variables combined. BMI was shown to be an independent predictive factor for apical PSMs. (C) 2010 European Association of Urology. Published by Elsevier B. V. All rights reserved.

Management of acromegaly in Latin America: expert panel recommendations

Although there are international guidelines orienting physicians on how to manage patients with acromegaly, such guidelines should be adapted for use in distinct regions of the world. A panel of neuroendocrinologists convened in Mexico City in August of 2007 to discuss specific considerations in Latin America. Of major discussion was the laboratory evaluation of acromegaly, which requires the use of appropriate tests and the adoption of local institutional standards. As a general rule to ensure diagnosis, the patient`s GH level during an oral glucose tolerance test and IGF-1 level should be evaluated. Furthermore, to guide treatment decisions, both GH and IGF-1 assessments are required. The treatment of patients with acromegaly in Latin America is influenced by local issues of cost, availability and expertise of pituitary neurosurgeons, which should dictate therapeutic choices. Such treatment has undergone profound changes because of the introduction of effective medical interventions that may be used after surgical debulking or as first-line medical therapy in selected cases. Surgical resection remains the mainstay of therapy for small pituitary adenomas (microadenomas), potentially resectable macroadenomas and invasive adenomas causing visual defects. Radiotherapy may be indicated in selected cases when no disease control is achieved despite optimal surgical debulking and medical therapy, when there is no access to somatostatin analogues, or when local issues of cost preclude other therapies. Since not all the diagnostic tools and treatment options are available in all Latin American countries, physicians need to adapt their clinical management decisions to the available local resources and therapeutic options.

alpha-Melanocyte Stimulating Hormone Analogue AP214 Protects Against Ischemia Induced Acute Kidney Injury in a Porcine Surgical Model

Purpose: alpha-Melanocyte stimulating hormone protects kidneys against ischemia and sepsis induced acute kidney injury in rodents. We examined the efficacy of a-melanocyte stimulating hormone analogue AP214 to protect against acute kidney injury in higher vertebrates. Materials and Methods: We performed a prospective, blinded, randomized, placebo controlled study in 26 pigs. Laparoscopic technique was used for left nephrectomy and to induce complete warm ischemia in the right kidney for 120 minutes. AP214 (200 mu g/kg intravenously) was administered daily on the day of surgery and for 5 days thereafter. Kidney function was measured for 9 days. We measured changes in serum creatinine, estimated glomerular filtration rate, serum C-reactive protein and urine interleukin-18. Results: In the placebo control and AP214 groups mean peak serum creatinine was 10.2 vs 3.92 mg/dl and the estimated glomerular filtration rate nadir was 22.9 vs 62.6 ml per minute per kg (each p = 0.001). Functional nadir occurred at 72 vs 24 hours in the control vs AP214 groups. Estimated glomerular filtration rate outcome on postoperative day 9 was 118 vs 156 ml per minute per kg in the control vs AP214 groups (p = 0.04). Conclusions: We noted a robust renoprotective effect of AP214. A similar AP214 effect may be observed in humans. Future research includes mechanistic studies in pigs and a phase II human clinical trial of AP214 in kidney transplant and partial nephrectomy populations.

Biopsy-Proven Pulmonary Determinants of Heart Disease

Heart disease (HD) can stress the alveolar blood-gas barrier, resulting in parenchymal inflammation and remodeling. Patients with HD may therefore display any of the symptoms commonly attributed to primary pulmonary disease, although tissue documentation of corresponding changes through surgical lung biopsy (SLB) is rarely done. Intent on exploring the basis of HD-related alveolar-capillary barrier dysfunction, a retrospective analysis of SLB histopathology was conducted in patients with clinically diagnosed HD, diffuse pulmonary infiltrates, and no evidence of primary pulmonary disease. Patients eligible for the study had a clinical diagnosis of heart disease, acute or chronic, and presented with diffuse infiltrates on chest X-ray. All qualified subjects (N = 23) who underwent diagnostic SLB between January 1982 and December 2005 were subsequently examined. Specific biopsy parameters investigated included demonstrable edema, siderophage influx, hemorrhage, venous and lymphatic ectasia, vascular sclerosis, capillary congestion, and fibroblast proliferation. Based on observed alveolar-capillary barrier (ACB) alterations, three main morphologic groups emerged: one group (6 patients) with alveolar edema; a second group (11 patients) characterized by pulmonary congestion; and a final group (6 patients) showing microscopic foci of acute ACB lung injury. Alveolar-capillary stress due to acute high-pressure or volume overload often manifests as diffuse pulmonary infiltrates with variable but generally predictable histopathology. In patients with biopsy-proven alveolar edema, pulmonary congestion, or acute microscopic lung injury, the clinician must be alert for the possibility of primary heart disease, particularly if the patient is elderly or when a history of myocardial, valvular, or coronary vascular disease exists.

The implications of microsurgical anatomy for surgical approaches to the sellar region

The knowledge of the normal anatomy and variations regarding the management of tumors of the sellar region is paramount to perform safe surgical procedures. The sellar region is located in the center of the middle cranial fossa; it contains complex anatomical structures, and is the site of various pathological processes: tumor, vascular, developmental, and neuroendocrine. We review the microsurgical anatomy (microscopic and endoscopic) of this region and discuss the surgical nuances regarding this topic, based on anatomical concepts.

Predictive models for diagnosis of pleural effusions secondary to tuberculosis or cancer

Background and objective: Tuberculosis (TB) and cancer are two of the main causes of pleural effusions which frequently share similar clinical features and pleural fluid profiles. This study aimed to identify diagnostic models based on clinical and laboratory variables to differentiate tuberculous from malignant pleural effusions. Methods: A retrospective study of 403 patients (200 with TB; 203 with cancer) was undertaken. Univariate analysis was used to select the clinical variables relevant to the models composition. Variables beta coefficients were used to define a numerical score which presented a practical use. The performances of the most efficient models were tested in a sample of pleural exudates (64 new cases). Results: Two models are proposed for the diagnosis of effusions associated with each disease. For TB: (i) adenosine deaminase (ADA), globulins and the absence of malignant cells in the pleural fluid; and (ii) ADA, globulins and fluid appearance. For cancer: (i) patient age, fluid appearance, macrophage percentage and presence of atypical cells in the pleural fluid; and (ii) as for (i) excluding atypical cells. Application of the models to the 64 pleural effusions showed accuracy higher than 85% for all models. Conclusions: The proposed models were effective in suggesting pleural tuberculosis or cancer.

Quantitative myocardial contrast echocardiography during pharmacological stress for diagnosis of coronary artery disease: a systematic review and meta-analysis of diagnostic accuracy studies

Aims We conducted a meta-analysis to evaluate the accuracy of quantitative stress myocardial contrast echocardiography (MCE) in coronary artery disease (CAD). Methods and results Database search was performed through January 2008. We included studies evaluating accuracy of quantitative stress MCE for detection of CAD compared with coronary angiography or single-photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) and measuring reserve parameters of A, beta, and A beta. Data from studies were verified and supplemented by the authors of each study. Using random effects meta-analysis, we estimated weighted mean difference (WMD), likelihood ratios (LRs), diagnostic odds ratios (DORs), and summary area under curve (AUC), all with 95% confidence interval (0). Of 1443 studies, 13 including 627 patients (age range, 38-75 years) and comparing MCE with angiography (n = 10), SPECT (n = 1), or both (n = 2) were eligible. WMD (95% CI) were significantly less in CAD group than no-CAD group: 0.12 (0.06-0.18) (P < 0.001), 1.38 (1.28-1.52) (P < 0.001), and 1.47 (1.18-1.76) (P < 0.001) for A, beta, and A beta reserves, respectively. Pooled LRs for positive test were 1.33 (1.13-1.57), 3.76 (2.43-5.80), and 3.64 (2.87-4.78) and LRs for negative test were 0.68 (0.55-0.83), 0.30 (0.24-0.38), and 0.27 (0.22-0.34) for A, beta, and A beta reserves, respectively. Pooled DORs were 2.09 (1.42-3.07), 15.11 (7.90-28.91), and 14.73 (9.61-22.57) and AUCs were 0.637 (0.594-0.677), 0.851 (0.828-0.872), and 0.859 (0.842-0.750) for A, beta, and A beta reserves, respectively. Conclusion Evidence supports the use of quantitative MCE as a non-invasive test for detection of CAD. Standardizing MCE quantification analysis and adherence to reporting standards for diagnostic tests could enhance the quality of evidence in this field.