992 resultados para Rapid diagnosis


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Abstract Background Smear-negative pulmonary tuberculosis (SNPTB) accounts for 30% of Pulmonary Tuberculosis (PTB) cases reported annually in developing nations. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) may provide an alternative for the rapid detection of Mycobacterium tuberculosis (MTB); however little data are available regarding the clinical utility of PCR in SNPTB, in a setting with a high burden of TB/HIV co-infection. Methods To evaluate the performance of the PCR dot-blot in parallel with pretest probability (Clinical Suspicion) in patients suspected of having SNPTB, a prospective study of 213 individuals with clinical and radiological suspicion of SNPTB was carried out from May 2003 to May 2004, in a TB/HIV reference hospital. Respiratory specialists estimated the pretest probability of active disease into high, intermediate, low categories. Expectorated sputum was examined by direct microscopy (Ziehl-Neelsen staining), culture (Lowenstein Jensen) and PCR dot-blot. Gold standard was based on culture positivity combined with the clinical definition of PTB. Results In smear-negative and HIV subjects, active PTB was diagnosed in 28.4% (43/151) and 42.2% (19/45), respectively. In the high, intermediate and low pretest probability categories active PTB was diagnosed in 67.4% (31/46), 24% (6/25), 7.5% (6/80), respectively. PCR had sensitivity of 65% (CI 95%: 50%–78%) and specificity of 83% (CI 95%: 75%–89%). There was no difference in the sensitivity of PCR in relation to HIV status. PCR sensitivity and specificity among non-previously TB treated and those treated in the past were, respectively: 69%, 43%, 85% and 80%. The high pretest probability, when used as a diagnostic test, had sensitivity of 72% (CI 95%:57%–84%) and specificity of 86% (CI 95%:78%–92%). Using the PCR dot-blot in parallel with high pretest probability as a diagnostic test, sensitivity, specificity, positive and negative predictive values were: 90%, 71%, 75%, and 88%, respectively. Among non-previously TB treated and HIV subjects, this approach had sensitivity, specificity, positive and negative predictive values of 91%, 79%, 81%, 90%, and 90%, 65%, 72%, 88%, respectively. Conclusion PCR dot-blot associated with a high clinical suspicion may provide an important contribution to the diagnosis of SNPTB mainly in patients that have not been previously treated attended at a TB/HIV reference hospital.

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Abstract Background In areas with limited structure in place for microscopy diagnosis, rapid diagnostic tests (RDT) have been demonstrated to be effective. Method The cost-effectiveness of the Optimal® and thick smear microscopy was estimated and compared. Data were collected on remote areas of 12 municipalities in the Brazilian Amazon. Data sources included the National Malaria Control Programme of the Ministry of Health, the National Healthcare System reimbursement table, hospitalization records, primary data collected from the municipalities, and scientific literature. The perspective was that of the Brazilian public health system, the analytical horizon was from the start of fever until the diagnostic results provided to patient and the temporal reference was that of year 2006. The results were expressed in costs per adequately diagnosed cases in 2006 U.S. dollars. Sensitivity analysis was performed considering key model parameters. Results In the case base scenario, considering 92% and 95% sensitivity for thick smear microscopy to Plasmodium falciparum and Plasmodium vivax, respectively, and 100% specificity for both species, thick smear microscopy is more costly and more effective, with an incremental cost estimated at US$549.9 per adequately diagnosed case. In sensitivity analysis, when sensitivity and specificity of microscopy for P. vivax were 0.90 and 0.98, respectively, and when its sensitivity for P. falciparum was 0.83, the RDT was more cost-effective than microscopy. Conclusion Microscopy is more cost-effective than OptiMal® in these remote areas if high accuracy of microscopy is maintained in the field. Decision regarding use of rapid tests for diagnosis of malaria in these areas depends on current microscopy accuracy in the field.

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Early Diagnosis of Miocardial Dysfunction in Patients with Hematological Malignancies Submitted to Chemotherapy. Preliminary Background: Considering the current diagnostic improvements and tl1erapeutic approaches, patients witl 1 cancer can now be healed or keep the disease under control, still, the chemotherapy may cause heart damage, evolving to Congestive Heart Failure. Recognition of those changes increases the chances of control the endpoints; hence, new parameters of cardiac and fluid mechanics analysis have been used to assess the myocardial function, pursuing an earlier diagnosis of the cardiac alterations. This study aimed to detect early cardiac dysfunction consequently to chemotherapy in patients with hematological malignancies (HM). Methods: Patients with leukemia and lymphoma, submitted to chemotherapy, without knowing heart diseases were studied. Healthy volunteers served as the control group. Conventional 2DE parameters of myocardial function were analyzed. The peak global longitudinal, circumferential and radial left ventricular (LV) strain were deternined by 2D and 3D speckle tracking (STE); peak area strain measured by 3D STE and LV torsionn, twisting rate, recoil / recoil rate assessed by 2D STE. The LV vortex formation time (VFT) during the rapid diastolic filling was estimated by the 2D mitral valve (MV) planimetry and Pulsed Doppler LV inflow by: VFT- 4(1-β) / π x α3 x LVEF Where 1- β is the E wave contribution to the LV stroke volume and α3 is a volumetric variable related to the MV area. The statistical level was settled on 5%. Results: See Table. Conclusion: Despite the differences between the two groups concerning the LVESV, LVEF and E´, those parameters still are in the normal range when considering the patients submitted to chemotherapy; thus, in the clinical setting, they are not so noticeable. The 3D GLS was smaller among the patients, oppositely to the 2D GLS, suggesting that the former variable is more accurate to assess tlhe LV systolic function. The VFT is a dimensionless measure of the optimal vortex development inside the LV chamber; reflecting the efficiency of the diastolic filling and, consequently, blood ejection. This index showed to be diminished in patients with HM submitted to chemotherapy, indicating an impairment of the in1pulse and thrust, hence appearing to be a very early marker of diastolic and systolic dysfunction in this group.

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Der Folsäure-basierte Radiotracer Etarfolatide (99mTc-EC 20) hat in der Vergangenheit sehr vielversprechende Ergebnisse im Bereich der frühzeitigen Diagnostik von Ovarialkarzinomen gezeigt. Einzelphotonen-Emissionscomputertomographie (SPECT) erlaubt dabei eine Visualisierung der Krankheit in einem sehr frühen Stadium – ermöglicht wird dies durch Folsäure, welche als Target Vektor dient. Um das erfolgreiche Prinzip der Radiofolate auf die Positronen-Emissionstomographie (PET) zu übertragen, welche eine noch höhere räumliche Auflösung ermöglicht, wurden in den letzten fünf Jahren bereits 18F-folate entwickelt. Deren hepatobiliären Exkretionsmuster, verursacht durch die relativ hohe Lipophilie der Strukturen, entsprachen jedoch nicht den Anforderungen. Eine optimierte Bioverteilung der Tracer in vivo kann durch eine generelle Erhöhung der Polarität erfolgen. Die Kombination aus einem polaren 68Ga-Komplex mit Folsäure als Target Vektor stellte den Fokus dieses Projektes dar. Ziel war die Entwicklung eines Radiofolates mit der Tendenz einer raschen renalen Ausscheidung und verringerter hepatobiliärer Anreicherung. Dazu wurde Folsäure regiospezifisch über ihre y-Säure an verschiedene bifunktionelle Chelatoren (BFCs) gekoppelt. Vier verschiedene Reaktionstypen wurden gewählt und durchgeführt: Cu-katalysierte sowie Cu-freie Click Reaktion, Amindbindung und Thioharnstoff Bildung. Es wurden sechs verschiedene Derivate erhalten und mit 68Ga radiomarkiert.

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By analogy to gliosarcoma, the term "ependymosarcoma" has recently been coined to thematize the rare phenomenon of a malignant mesenchymal component arising within an ependymoma. We report on an example of this paradigm, involving tanycytic ependymoma as the host tumor in a 40-year-old female who underwent two tumor extirpation procedures at one-year interval. She first presented with severe headaches, and was seen by imaging to harbor a moderately enhancing mass 2.5cm in diameter at the rostral septum pellucidum accompanied by occlusive hydrocephalus. Microscopically, the tumor consisted of solid, wavy fascicles of elongated cells that were occasionally interrupted by vague perivascular pseudorosettes. Mitotic activity was absent, and less than 1% of nuclei immunoreacted for MIB-1. A histological diagnosis of tanycytic ependymoma (WHO grade II) was rendered, and no adjuvant therapy given. At recurrence, the lesion was 3.5cm in diameter, intensely enhancing, and had already seeded into the subarachnoid space. Histology showed a biphasic glial-sarcomatous architecture with remnants of the original ependymoma now displaying hypercellularity and atypical - yet not frankly anaplastic - features. The sarcomatous moiety consisted of spindle and epithelioid cells densely interwoven with reticulin fibers. While the ependymal component was GFAP and S100 protein positive, and featured punctate staining for EMA, none of these markers was expressed in the adjacent sarcoma. Instead, the latter reacted for vimentin and smooth muscle actin. To the best of our knowledge, this is the first documentation of tanycytic ependymoma undergoing malignant transformation, one driven by a highly anaplastic mesenchymal component, corresponding to "ependymosarcoma".

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Recently, the field of forensics has experienced a rapid increase in the use of modern cross-sectional imaging in forensic investigations. We examined the value of post-mortem computed tomography (CT) imaging relative to autopsy for distinguishing aspiration into the lungs from airways, from lung alterations due to other causes, and for identifying the aspirated material. We selected 54 bodies submitted to whole-body CT scanning prior to autopsy. All cases had autopsy findings of blood (31 cases), fresh water (12 cases), or gastric content (11 cases) aspiration. The radiological images were retrospectively analyzed for airway and lung aspiration. In all cases, CT imaging detected pulmonary abnormalities suggestive of aspiration. Nevertheless, analysis of the CT images alone was not able to identify the aspirated material or to distinguish pulmonary findings of aspiration from lung changes due to other causes, except for a few cases of hemo-aspiration. However, due to its ability to visualize the entire parenchyma, CT imaging was superior to autopsy in providing additional data about the distribution and severity of the aspiration as well as in detecting small abnormalities. Post-mortem CT imaging should be considered as a superior tool for forensic investigations of aspiration due to its ability to document diagnostic conclusions and to guide the forensic pathologist during lung tissue examination.

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Background Urinary tract infections (UTI) are frequent in outpatients. Fast pathogen identification is mandatory for shortening the time of discomfort and preventing serious complications. Urine culture needs up to 48 hours until pathogen identification. Consequently, the initial antibiotic regimen is empirical. Aim To evaluate the feasibility of qualitative urine pathogen identification by a commercially available real-time PCR blood pathogen test (SeptiFast®) and to compare the results with dipslide and microbiological culture. Design of study Pilot study with prospectively collected urine samples. Setting University hospital. Methods 82 prospectively collected urine samples from 81 patients with suspected UTI were included. Dipslide urine culture was followed by microbiological pathogen identification in dipslide positive samples. In parallel, qualitative DNA based pathogen identification (SeptiFast®) was performed in all samples. Results 61 samples were SeptiFast® positive, whereas 67 samples were dipslide culture positive. The inter-methodological concordance of positive and negative findings in the gram+, gram- and fungi sector was 371/410 (90%), 477/492 (97%) and 238/246 (97%), respectively. Sensitivity and specificity of the SeptiFast® test for the detection of an infection was 0.82 and 0.60, respectively. SeptiFast® pathogen identifications were available at least 43 hours prior to culture results. Conclusion The SeptiFast® platform identified bacterial DNA in urine specimens considerably faster compared to conventional culture. For UTI diagnosis sensitivity and specificity is limited by its present qualitative setup which does not allow pathogen quantification. Future quantitative assays may hold promise for PCR based UTI pathogen identification as a supplementation of conventional culture methods.

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NPM1 mutations, the most frequent molecular alterations in acute myeloid leukemia (AML), have become important for risk stratification and treatment decisions for patients with normal karyotype AML. Rapid screening for NPM1 mutations should be available shortly after diagnosis. Several methods for detecting NPM1 mutations have been described, most of which are technically challenging and require additional laboratory equipment. We developed and validated an assay that allows specific, rapid, and simple screening for NPM1 mutations. FAST PCR spanning exons 8 to 12 of the NPM1 gene was performed on 284 diagnostic AML samples. PCR products were visualized on a 2 % agarose E-gel and verified by direct sequencing. The FAST PCR screening method showed a specificity and sensitivity of 100 %, i.e., all mutated cases were detected, and none of negative cases carried mutations. The limit of detection was at 5-10 % of mutant alleles. We conclude that the FAST PCR assay is a highly specific, rapid (less than 2 h), and sensitive screening method for the detection of NPM1 mutations. Moreover, this method is inexpensive and can easily be integrated in the routine molecular diagnostic work-up of established risk factors in AML using standard laboratory equipment.

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We describe a fast and unambiguous method for haplotyping the (TG)mTn repeat in IVS8 and determining three other single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs) in exons 10, 14a and 24 in the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) gene affecting correct splicing of the CFTR pre-mRNA using primer extension and mass spectrometry. The diagnostic products are generated by primer extension (PEX) reactions, which require a single detection primer complementary to a region downstream of a target strand's variable site. On addition of a polymerase and an appropriate mixture of dNTP's and 2', 3'-dideoxynucleotide triphosphates (ddNTP's), the primer is extended through the mutation region until the first ddNTP is incorporated and the mass of the extension products determines the composition of the variable site. Analysis of patient DNA assigned the correct and unambiguous haplotype for the (TG)mTn repeat in intron 8 of the CFTR gene. Additional crucial SNPs influencing correct splicing in exon 10, 14 and 24 can easily be detected by biplexing the assay to genotype allelic variants important for correct splicing of the CFTR pre-mRNA. Different PEX reactions with subsequent mass spectrometry generate sufficient data, to enable unambiguous and easy haplotyping of the (TG)mTn repeat in the CFTR gene. The method can be easily extended to the inclusion of additional SNPs of interest by biplexing some of the PEX reactions. All experimental steps required for PEX are amenable to the high degree of automation desirable for a high-throughput diagnostic setting, facilitating the work of clinicians involved in the diagnosis of non-classic cystic fibrosis.

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We present a case of an intraoperative acute aortic type A dissection (AADA) extending from the distal ascending aorta to the distal aortic arch, initially not visible on the transesophageal echocardiography (TEE). The rapid confirmation of the diagnosis by means of direct epiaortic ultrasound scanning facilitated decision-making and the subsequent successful surgical treatment.

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Rapid diagnostic tests (RDT) are sometimes recommended to improve the home-based management of malaria. The accuracy of an RDT for the detection of clinical malaria and the presence of malarial parasites has recently been evaluated in a high-transmission area of southern Mali. During the same study, the cost-effectiveness of a 'test-and-treat' strategy for the home-based management of malaria (based on an artemisinin-combination therapy) was compared with that of a 'treat-all' strategy. Overall, 301 patients, of all ages, each of whom had been considered a presumptive case of uncomplicated malaria by a village healthworker, were checked with a commercial RDT (Paracheck-Pf). The sensitivity, specificity, and positive and negative predictive values of this test, compared with the results of microscopy and two different definitions of clinical malaria, were then determined. The RDT was found to be 82.9% sensitive (with a 95% confidence interval of 78.0%-87.1%) and 78.9% (63.9%-89.7%) specific compared with the detection of parasites by microscopy. In the detection of clinical malaria, it was 95.2% (91.3%-97.6%) sensitive and 57.4% (48.2%-66.2%) specific compared with a general practitioner's diagnosis of the disease, and 100.0% (94.5%-100.0%) sensitive but only 30.2% (24.8%-36.2%) specific when compared against the fulfillment of the World Health Organization's (2003) research criteria for uncomplicated malaria. Among children aged 0-5 years, the cost of the 'test-and-treat' strategy, per episode, was about twice that of the 'treat-all' (U.S.$1.0. v. U.S.$0.5). In older subjects, however, the two strategies were equally costly (approximately U.S.$2/episode). In conclusion, for children aged 0-5 years in a high-transmission area of sub-Saharan Africa, use of the RDT was not cost-effective compared with the presumptive treatment of malaria with an ACT. In older patients, use of the RDT did not reduce costs. The question remains whether either of the strategies investigated can be made affordable for the affected population.

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BACKGROUND: Recent studies have shown that a low clinical pretest probability may be adequate for excluding heparin-induced thrombocytopenia. However, for patients with intermediate or high pretest probability, laboratory testing is essential for confirming or refuting the diagnosis. Rapid assessment of anti-PF4/heparin-antibodies may assist clinical decision-making. OBJECTIVES: To evaluate the performance of rapid ID-H/PF4-PaGIA. In particular, we verified reproducibility of results between plasma and serum specimens, between fresh and frozen samples, and between different ID-H/PF4-polymer lots (polystyrene beads coated with heparin/PF4-complexes). PATIENTS/METHODS: The samples studied were 1376 plasma and 914 corresponding serum samples from patients investigated for suspected heparin-induced thrombocytopenia between January 2000 and October 2008. Anti-PF4/heparin-antibodies were assessed by ID-H/PF4-PaGIA, commercially available ELISAs and heparin-induced platelet aggregation test. RESULTS: Among 914 paired plasma/serum samples we noted discordant results (negative vs. low-titre positive) in nine instances (1%; 95%CI, 0.4-1.6%). Overall, agreement between titres assessed in plasma vs. serum was highly significant (Spearman correlation coefficient, 0.975; P < 0.0001). Forty-seven samples tested both fresh and after freezing/thawing showed a good agreement, with one discordant positive/negative result (Spearman correlation coefficient, 0.970; P < 0.0001). Among 1376 plasma samples we noted a strikingly variable incidence of false negative results (none - 82%; 95%CI, 66-98%), depending on the employed ID-H/PF4-polymer lot. Faulty lots can be recognized by titrating commercial positive controls and stored samples of HIT-patients. CONCLUSION: Laboratories performing the assay should implement stringent internal quality controls in order to recognize potentially faulty ID-H/PF4-polymer lots, thus avoiding false negative results.

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The diagnosis of a drug hypersensitivity reaction (DHR) is a challenging task because multiple and complex mechanisms are involved. Better understanding of immunologic pathomechanisms in DHRs and rapid progress in cellular-based in-vitro tests can help to adjust the correct diagnostic strategy to individual patients with different clinical manifestations of drug allergy. Thus, drug hypersensitivity diagnosis needs to rely on a combination of medical history and different in vivo and in vitro tests. In this article, the authors discuss current in vitro techniques, most recent findings, and new promising tools in the diagnosis of T-cell-mediated drug hypersensitivity.

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Cryptococcus spp. commonly causes infection in immunocompromised hosts. Clinical presentation of cryptococcal meningoencephalitis (CM) is variable, but headache, fever and a high intracranial pressure should suggest the diagnosis. The cryptococcal antigen test is a specific and sensitive rapid test that can be performed on blood or cerebrospinal fluid. We report a case of CM in a patient with previously undetected lymphocytopenia. Because cryptococcal antigen test results were negative, diagnosis and treatment were delayed.

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Blisters in the newborn period can be a sign of potentially life-threatening conditions. An accurate and rapid diagnostic is therefore crucial to distinguish among the numerous conditions which can present with blisters in the neonate. A diagnosis based on the clinical picture alone, however, is not sufficient nor possible in the most cases. A diagnostic algorithm will be presented.