854 resultados para C-reactive proteins
Resumo:
• As part of the 3E program, we conducted a systematic literature review and gathered consensus from 23 practising Australian rheumatologists to develop guidelines for early identification of ankylosing spondylitis and specialist referral. • In three rounds of break-out sessions followed by discussion and voting, the specialist panel addressed three questions related to diagnosis of ankylosing spondylitis: In individuals with back pain, what are the early clinical features that suggest ankylosing spondylitis? How useful is imaging in identifying early ankylosing spondylitis? Based on which clinical features should a general practitioner refer a patient to a rheumatologist for further evaluation? • The panel agreed on six recommendations related to the three questions: 1a. Early clinical features to suggest ankylosing spondylitis include inflammatory back pain and age at symptom onset < 45 years. 1b. The absence of symptomatic response to an appropriate course of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs makes the diagnosis of ankylosing spondylitis less likely. 1c. Raised inflammatory markers are supportive, but their absence does not rule out the diagnosis of ankylosing spondylitis. 2a. Despite low sensitivity to detect changes of early ankylosing spondylitis, plain radiographs of the pelvis and spine are appropriate initial imaging techniques. 2b. Magnetic resonance imaging is a useful imaging modality for detecting early changes of ankylosing spondylitis. 3. Individuals with inflammatory back pain should be referred to a rheumatologist for further evaluation. • Effective dissemination and implementation of these recommendations are important to standardise the approach to early diagnosis of ankylosing spondylitis.
Resumo:
Background and purpose: The purpose of this study is to examine the feasibility of developing plasma predictive value biomarkers of cerebral ischemic stroke before imaging evidence is acquired. Methods: Blood samples were obtained from 198 patients who attended our neurology department as emergencies - with symptoms of vertigo, numbness, limb weakness, etc. - within 4.5 h of symptom onset, and before imaging evidence was obtained and medical treatment. After the final diagnosis was made by MRI/DWI/MRA or CTA in the following 24-72 h, the above cases were divided into two groups: stroke group and non-stroke group according to the imaging results. The levels of baseline plasma antithrombin III (AT-III), thrombin-antithrombin III (TAT), fibrinogen, D-dimer and high-sensitivity C-reactive protein (hsCRP) in the two groups were assayed. Results: The level of the baseline AT-III in the stroke group was 118.07 ± 26.22%, which was lower than that of the non-stroke group (283.83 ± 38.39%). The levels of TAT, fibrinogen, hsCRP were 7.24 ± 2.28 μg/L, 5.49 ± 0.98 g/L, and 2.17 ± 1.07 mg/L, respectively, which were higher than those of the non-stroke group (2.53 ± 1.23 μg/L, 3.35 ± 0.50 g/L, 1.82 ± 0.67 mg/L). All the P-values were less than 0.001. The D-dimer level was 322.57 ± 60.34 μg/L, which was slightly higher than that of the non-stroke group (305.76 ± 49.52 μg/L), but the P-value was 0.667. The sensitivities of AT-III, TAT, fibrinogen, D-dimer and hsCRP for predicting ischemic stroke tendency were 97.37%, 96.05%, 3.29%, 7.89%, but the specificity was 93.62%, 82.61%, 100% and 100%, respectively, and all the P-values were less than 0.001. High levels of D-dimer and hsCRP were mainly seen in the few cases with severe large-vessel infarction. Conclusions: Clinical manifestations of acute focal neurological deficits were associated with plasma AT-III and fibrinogen. These tests might help the risk assessment of acute cerebral ischemic stroke and/or TIA with infarction tendency in the superacute stage before positive imaging evidence is obtained.
Resumo:
Physical inactivity, low cardiorespiratory fitness, and abdominal obesity are direct and mediating risk factors for cardiovascular disease (CVD). The results of recent studies suggest that individuals with higher levels of physical activity or cardiorespiratory fitness have lower CVD and all-cause mortality than those with lower activity or fitness levels regardless of their level of obesity. The interrelationships of physical activity, fitness, and abdominal obesity with cardiovascular risk factors have not been studied in detail. The aim of this study was to investigate the associations of different types of leisure time physical activity and aerobic fitness with cardiovascular risk factors in a large population of Finnish adults. In addition, a novel aerobic fitness test was implemented and the distribution of aerobic fitness was explored in men and women across age groups. The interrelationships of physical activity, aerobic fitness and abdominal obesity were examined in relation to cardiovascular risk factors. This study was part of the National FINRISK Study 2002, which monitors cardiovascular risk factors in a Finnish adult population. The sample comprised 13 437 men and women aged 25 to 74 years and was drawn from the Population Register as a stratified random sample according to 10-year age groups, gender and area. A separate physical activity study included 9179 subjects, of whom 5 980 participated (65%) in the study. At the study site, weight, height, waist and hip circumferences, and blood pressure were measured, a blood sample was drawn, and an aerobic fitness test was performed. The fitness test estimated maximal oxygen uptake (VO2max) and was based on a non-exercise method by using a heart rate monitor at rest. Waist-to-hip ratio (WHR) was calculated by dividing waist circumference with hip circumference and was used as a measure of abdominal obesity. Participants filled in a questionnaire on health behavior, a history of diseases, and current health status, and a detailed 12-month leisure time physical activity recall. Based on the recall data, relative energy expenditure was calculated using metabolic equivalents, and physical activity was divided into conditioning, non-conditioning, and commuting physical activity. Participants aged 45 to 74 years were later invited to take part in a 2-hour oral glucose tolerance test with fasting insulin and glucose measurements. Based on the oral glucose tolerance test, undiagnosed impaired glucose tolerance and type 2 diabetes were defined. The estimated aerobic fitness was lower among women and decreased with age. A higher estimated aerobic fitness and a lower WHR were independently associated with lower systolic and diastolic blood pressure, lower total cholesterol and triglyceride levels, and with higher high-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol and HDL to total cholesterol ratio. The associations of the estimated aerobic fitness with diastolic blood pressure, triglycerides, and HDL to total cholesterol ratio were stronger in men with a higher WHR. High levels of conditioning and non-conditioning physical activity were associated with lower high-sensitivity C-reactive protein (CRP) levels. High levels of conditioning and overall physical activities were associated with lower insulin and glucose levels. The associations were stronger among women than men. A better self-rated physical fitness was associated with a higher estimated aerobic fitness, lower CRP levels, and lower insulin and glucose levels in men and women. In each WHR third, the risk of impaired glucose tolerance and type 2 diabetes was higher among physically inactive individuals who did not undertake at least 30 minutes of moderate-intensity physical activity on five days per week. These cross-sectional data show that higher levels of estimated aerobic fitness and regular leisure time physical activity are associated with a favorable cardiovascular risk factor profile and that these associations are present at all levels of abdominal obesity. Most of the associations followed a dose-response manner, suggesting that already low levels of physical activity or fitness are beneficial to health and that larger improvements in risk factor levels may be gained from higher activity and fitness levels. The present findings support the recommendation to engage regularly in leisure time physical activity, to pursue a high level of aerobic fitness, and to prevent abdominal obesity.
Resumo:
Intracranial artery aneurysms (IAs) are estimated to be present in 2.3% of the population. A rupture of an IA causes subarachnoid hemorrhage, with up to 50% mortality. The annual low rupture risk of an IA indicates that most IAs never rupture. The current treatment options are invasive and somewhat risky. Thus rupture-prone IAs should be identified and this requires a better understanding of the IA wall pathobiology. Inflammatory cell infiltrations have been found to precede IA rupture, indicating the role of inflammation in IA wall degeneration and rupture. The complement system is a key mediator of inflammation and house-hold processing of injured tissue. This study aimed at identifying the role of complement activation in IA wall degeneration and the complement activators involved and determining how the complement system is regulated in the IA wall. In immunostainings, the end-product of complement activation, the terminal complement complex (TCC), was located mainly in the outer part of the IA wall, in areas that had also sustained loss of cells. In electron microscopy, the area of maximum TCC accumulation contained cellular debris and evidence of both apoptotic and necrotic cell death. Complement activation correlated with IA wall degeneration and rupture, de-endothelialization, and T-cell and CD163-positive macrophage infiltration. The complement system was found to become activated in all IAs by the classical pathway, with recruitment of alternative pathway amplification. Of the potential activators immunoglobulins G and M and oxidatively modified lipids were found in large areas. Lipid accumulation was observed to clearly colocalize with TCC and C-reactive protein. In the luminal parts of the IA wall, complement activation was limited by cellular expression of protectin (CD59) and extracellular matrix-bound inhibitors, C4b binding protein and factor H whereas the outer part of the wall lacked cells expressing protectin as well as matrix-bound factor H. In single nucleotide polymorphism-analysis, age-related macular degeneration-associated factor H Y402H polymorphism did not associate with the presence of IAs or their rupture The data suggest that complement activation and TCC formation are involved in IA wall degeneration and rupture. Complement seems to become activated by more than one specific activator. The association of complement with de-endothelialization and expression of several complement activators indicate a possible role of endothelial dysfunction and/or impaired clearance mechanisms. Impaired complement regulation seems to be associated with increased complement activation in IA walls. These results stress the role of chronic inflammation in IA wall pathobiology and the regulatory role of complement within this process. Imaging inflammation would possibly enhance the diagnostics of rupture-prone IAs, and targeting IA treatment to prevent chronic inflammation might improve IA treatment in the future.
Resumo:
Rituximab, a monoclonal antibody against B-cell specific CD20 antigen, is used for the treatment of non-Hodgkin lymphomas (NHL) and chronic lymphatic leukemia. In combination with chemotherapeutics rituximab has remarkably improved the outcome of NHL patients, but a vast variation in the lengths of remissions remains and the outcome of individual patients is difficult to predict. This thesis has searched for an explanation for this by studying the effector mechanisms of rituximab and by comparing gene expression in lymphoma tissue samples of patients with long- and short-term survival. This work demonstrated that activation of complement (C) system is in vitro more efficient effector mechanism of rituximab than cellular mechanisms or apoptosis. Activation of the C system was also shown in vivo during rituximab treatment. However, intravenously administered rituximab could not enter the cerebrospinal fluid, and neither C activation nor removal of lymphoma cells was observed in central nervous system. In vitro cytotoxicity assays showed that rituximab-induced cell killing could be markedly improved with simultaneous neutralization of the C regulatory proteins CD46 (Membrane cofactor protein), CD55 (Decay-accelerating factor), and CD59 (protectin). In a retrospective study of follicular lymphoma (FL) patients, low lymphoma tissue mRNA expressions of CD59 and CD55 were associated with a good prognosis and in a progressive flow cytometry study high expression of CD20 relative to CD55 was correlated to a longer progression free survival. Gene expression profile analysis revealed that expression of certain often cell cycle, signal transduction or immune response related genes correlate with clinical outcome of FL patients. Emphasizing the role of tumor microenvironment the best differentiating genes Smad1 and EphA1 were demonstrated to be mainly expressed in the non-malignant cells of tumors. In conclusion, this thesis shows that activation of the C system is a clinically important effector mechanism of rituximab and that microenvironment factor in tumors and expression of C regulatory proteins affect markedly the efficacy of immunochemotherapy. This data can be used to identify more accurately the patients for whom immunochemotherapy is given. It may also be beneficial in development of rituximab-containing and other monoclonal antibody therapies against cancer.
Resumo:
Sepsis is associated with a systemic inflammatory response. It is characterised by an early proinflammatory response and followed by a state of immunosuppression. In order to improve the outcome of patients with infection and sepsis, novel therapies that influence the systemic inflammatory response are being developed and utilised. Thus, an accurate and early diagnosis of infection and evaluation of immune state are crucial. In this thesis, various markers of systemic inflammation were studied with respect to enhancing the diagnostics of infection and of predicting outcome in patients with suspected community-acquired infection. A total of 1092 acutely ill patients admitted to a university hospital medical emergency department were evaluated, and 531 patients with a suspicion of community-acquired infection were included for the analysis. Markers of systemic inflammation were determined from a blood sample obtained simultaneously with a blood culture sample on admission to hospital. Levels of phagocyte CD11b/CD18 and CD14 expression were measured by whole blood flow cytometry. Concentrations of soluble CD14, interleukin (IL)-8, and soluble IL-2 receptor α (sIL-2Rα) were determined by ELISA, those of sIL-2R, IL-6, and IL-8 by a chemiluminescent immunoassay, that of procalcitonin by immunoluminometric assay, and that of C-reactive protein by immunoturbidimetric assay. Clinical data were collected retrospectively from the medical records. No marker of systemic inflammation, neither CRP, PCT, IL-6, IL-8, nor sIL-2R predicted bacteraemia better than did the clinical signs of infection, i.e., the presence of infectious focus or fever or both. IL-6 and PCT had the highest positive likelihood ratios to identify patients with hidden community-acquired infection. However, the use of a single marker failed to detect all patients with infection. A combination of markers including a fast-responding reactant (CD11b expression), a later-peaking reactant (CRP), and a reactant originating from inflamed tissues (IL-8) detected all patients with infection. The majority of patients (86.5%) with possible but not verified infection showed levels exceeding at least one cut-off limit of combination, supporting the view that infection was the cause of their acute illness. The 28-day mortality of patients with community-acquired infection was low (3.4%). On admission to hospital, the low expression of cell-associated lipopolysaccharide receptor CD14 (mCD14) was predictive for 28-day mortality. In the patients with severe forms of community-acquired infection, namely pneumonia and sepsis, high levels of soluble CD14 alone did not predict mortality, but a high sCD14 level measured simultaneously with a low mCD14 raised the possibility of poor prognosis. In conclusion, to further enhance the diagnostics of hidden community-acquired infection, a combination of inflammatory markers is useful; 28-day mortality is associated with low levels of mCD14 expression at an early phase of the disease.
Resumo:
Cardiovascular diseases (CVDs) are the leading cause of mortality in the world. Studies of the impact of single nutrients on the risk for CVD have often provided inconclusive results, and recent research in nutritional epidemiology with a more holistic whole-diet approach has proven fruitful. Moreover, dietary habits in childhood and adolescence may play a role in later health and disease, either independently or by tracking into adulthood. The main aims of this study were to find childhood and adulthood determinants of adulthood diet, to identify dietary patterns present among the study population and to study the associations between long-term food choices and cardiovascular health in young Finnish adults. The study is a part of the multidisciplinary Cardiovascular Risk in Young Finns study, which is an ongoing, prospective cohort study with a 21-year follow-up. At baseline in 1980, the subjects were children and adolescents aged 3 to 18 years (n included in this study = 1768), and young adults aged 24 to 39 years at the latest follow-up study in 2001 (n = 1037). Food consumption and nutrient intakes were assessed with repeated 48-hour dietary recalls. Other determinations have included comprehensive risk factor assessments using blood tests, physical measurements and questionnaires. In the latest follow-up, ultrasound examinations were performed to study early atherosclerotic vascular changes. The average intakes showed substantial changes since 1980. Intakes of fat and saturated fat had decreased, whereas the consumption of fruits and vegetables had increased. Intake of fat and consumption of vegetables in childhood and physical activity in adulthood were important health behavioural determinants of adult diet. Additionally, a principal component analysis was conducted to identify major dietary patterns at each study point. A similar set of two major patterns was recognised throughout the study. The traditional dietary pattern positively correlated with the consumption of traditional Finnish foods, such as rye, potatoes, milk, butter, sausages and coffee, and negatively correlated with fruit, berries and dairy products other than milk. This type of diet was independently associated with several risk factors of CVD, such as total and low-density lipoprotein cholesterol, apolipoprotein B and C-reactive protein concentrations among both genders, as well as with systolic blood pressure and insulin levels among women. The traditional pattern was also independently associated with intima media thickness (IMT), a subclinical predictor of CVD, in men but not in women. The health-conscious pattern, predominant among female subjects, non-smokers and urbanites, was characterised by more health-conscious food choices such as vegetables, legumes and nuts, tea, rye, fish, cheese and other dairy products, as well as by the consumption of alcoholic beverages. This pattern was inversely, but less strongly, associated with cardiovascular risk factors. Tracking of the dietary pattern scores was observed, particularly among subjects who were adolescents at baseline. Moreover, a long-term high intake of protein concurrent with a low intake of fat was positively associated with IMT. These findings suggest that food behaviour and food choices are to some extent established as early as in childhood or adolescence and may significantly track into adulthood. Long-term adherence to traditional food choices seems to increase the risk for developing CVD, especially among men. Those with intentional or unintentional low fat diets, but with high intake of protein may also be at increased risk for CVD. The findings offer practical, food-based information on the relationship between diet and CVD and encourage further use of the whole-diet approach in epidemiological research. The results support earlier findings that long-term food choices play a role in the development of CVD. The apparent influence of childhood habits is important to bear in mind when planning educational strategies for the primary prevention of CVD. Further studies on food choices over the entire lifespan are needed.
Resumo:
Introduction Recent reports have highlighted the prevalence of vitamin D deficiency and suggested an association with excess mortality in critically ill patients. Serum vitamin D concentrations in these studies were measured following resuscitation. It is unclear whether aggressive fluid resuscitation independently influences serum vitamin D. Methods Nineteen patients undergoing cardiopulmonary bypass were studied. Serum 25(OH)D3, 1α,25(OH)2D3, parathyroid hormone, C-reactive protein (CRP), and ionised calcium were measured at five defined timepoints: T1 - baseline, T2 - 5 minutes after onset of cardiopulmonary bypass (CPB) (time of maximal fluid effect), T3 - on return to the intensive care unit, T4 - 24 hrs after surgery and T5 - 5 days after surgery. Linear mixed models were used to compare measures at T2-T5 with baseline measures. Results Acute fluid loading resulted in a 35% reduction in 25(OH)D3 (59 ± 16 to 38 ± 14 nmol/L, P < 0.0001) and a 45% reduction in 1α,25(OH)2D3 (99 ± 40 to 54 ± 22 pmol/L P < 0.0001) and i(Ca) (P < 0.01), with elevation in parathyroid hormone (P < 0.0001). Serum 25(OH)D3 returned to baseline only at T5 while 1α,25(OH)2D3 demonstrated an overshoot above baseline at T5 (P < 0.0001). There was a delayed rise in CRP at T4 and T5; this was not associated with a reduction in vitamin D levels at these time points. Conclusions Hemodilution significantly lowers serum 25(OH)D3 and 1α,25(OH)2D3, which may take up to 24 hours to resolve. Moreover, delayed overshoot of 1α,25(OH)2D3 needs consideration. We urge caution in interpreting serum vitamin D in critically ill patients in the context of major resuscitation, and would advocate repeating the measurement once the effects of the resuscitation have abated.
Resumo:
Vasomotor hot flushes are complained of by approximately 75% of postmenopausal women, but their frequency and severity show great individual variation. Hot flushes have been present in women attending observational studies showing cardiovascular benefit associated with hormone therapy use, whereas they have been absent or very mild in randomized hormone therapy trials showing cardiovascular harm. Therefore, if hot flushes are a factor connected with vascular health, they could perhaps be one explanation for the divergence of cardiovascular data in observational versus randomized studies. For the present study 150 healthy, recently postmenopausal women showing a large variation in hot flushes were studied in regard to cardiovascular health by way of pulse wave analysis, ambulatory blood pressure and several biochemical vascular markers. In addition, the possible impact of hot flushes on outcomes of hormone therapy was studied. This study shows that women with severe hot flushes exhibit a greater vasodilatory reactivity as assessed by pulse wave analysis than do women without vasomotor symptoms. This can be seen as a hot flush-related vascular benefit. Although severe night-time hot flushes seem to be accompanied by transient increases in blood pressure and heart rate, the diurnal blood pressure and heart rate profiles show no significant differences between women without and with mild, moderate or severe hot flushes. The levels of vascular markers, such as lipids, lipoproteins, C-reactive protein and sex hormone-binding globulin show no association with hot flush status. In the 6-month hormone therapy trial the women were classified as having either tolerable or intolerable hot flushes. These groups were treated in a randomized order with transdermal estradiol gel, oral estradiol alone or in combination with medroxyprogesterone acetate, or with placebo. In women with only tolerable hot flushes, oral estradiol leads to a reduced vasodilatory response and increases in 24-hour and daytime blood pressures as compared to women with intolerable hot flushes receiving the same therapy. No such effects were observed with the other treatment regimes or in women with intolerable hot flushes. The responses of vascular biomarkers to hormone therapy are unaffected by hot flush status. In conclusion, hot flush status contributes to cardiovascular health before and during hormone therapy. Severe hot flushes are associated with an increased vasodilatory, and thus, a beneficial vascular status. Oral estradiol leads to vasoconstrictive changes and increases in blood pressure, and thus to possible vascular harm, but only in women whose hot flushes are so mild that they would probably not lead to the initiation of hormone therapy in clinical practice. Healthy, recently postmenopausal women with moderate to severe hot flushes should be given the opportunity to use hormone therapy alleviate hot flushes, and if estrogen is prescribed for indications other than for the control of hot flushes, transdermal route of administration should be favored.
Resumo:
Placental abruption, one of the most significant causes of perinatal mortality and maternal morbidity, occurs in 0.5-1% of pregnancies. Its etiology is unknown, but defective trophoblastic invasion of the spiral arteries and consequent poor vascularization may play a role. The aim of this study was to define the prepregnancy risk factors of placental abruption, to define the risk factors during the index pregnancy, and to describe the clinical presentation of placental abruption. We also wanted to find a biochemical marker for predicting placental abruption early in pregnancy. Among women delivering at the University Hospital of Helsinki in 1997-2001 (n=46,742), 198 women with placental abruption and 396 control women were identified. The overall incidence of placental abruption was 0.42%. The prepregnancy risk factors were smoking (OR 1.7; 95% CI 1.1, 2.7), uterine malformation (OR 8.1; 1.7, 40), previous cesarean section (OR 1.7; 1.1, 2.8), and history of placental abruption (OR 4.5; 1.1, 18). The risk factors during the index pregnancy were maternal (adjusted OR 1.8; 95% CI 1.1, 2.9) and paternal smoking (2.2; 1.3, 3.6), use of alcohol (2.2; 1.1, 4.4), placenta previa (5.7; 1.4, 23.1), preeclampsia (2.7; 1.3, 5.6) and chorioamnionitis (3.3; 1.0, 10.0). Vaginal bleeding (70%), abdominal pain (51%), bloody amniotic fluid (50%) and fetal heart rate abnormalities (69%) were the most common clinical manifestations of placental abruption. Retroplacental blood clot was seen by ultrasound in 15% of the cases. Neither bleeding nor pain was present in 19% of the cases. Overall, 59% went into preterm labor (OR 12.9; 95% CI 8.3, 19.8), and 91% were delivered by cesarean section (34.7; 20.0, 60.1). Of the newborns, 25% were growth restricted. The perinatal mortality rate was 9.2% (OR 10.1; 95% CI 3.4, 30.1). We then tested selected biochemical markers for prediction of placental abruption. The median of the maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) multiples of median (MoM) (1.21) was significantly higher in the abruption group (n=57) than in the control group (n=108) (1.07) (p=0.004) at 15-16 gestational weeks. In multivariate analysis, elevated MSAFP remained as an independent risk factor for placental abruption, adjusting for parity ≥ 3, smoking, previous placental abruption, preeclampsia, bleeding in II or III trimester, and placenta previa. MSAFP ≥ 1.5 MoM had a sensitivity of 29% and a false positive rate of 10%. The levels of the maternal serum free beta human chorionic gonadotrophin MoM did not differ between the cases and the controls. None of the angiogenic factors (soluble endoglin, soluble fms-like tyrosine kinase 1, or placental growth factor) showed any difference between the cases (n=42) and the controls (n=50) in the second trimester. The levels of C-reactive protein (CRP) showed no difference between the cases (n=181) and the controls (n=261) (median 2.35 mg/l [interquartile range {IQR} 1.09-5.93] versus 2.28 mg/l [IQR 0.92-5.01], not significant) when tested in the first trimester (mean 10.4 gestational weeks). Chlamydia pneumoniae specific immunoglobulin G (IgG) and immunoglobulin A (IgA) as well as C. trachomatis specific IgG, IgA and chlamydial heat-shock protein 60 antibody rates were similar between the groups. In conclusion, although univariate analysis identified many prepregnancy risk factors for placental abruption, only smoking, uterine malformation, previous cesarean section and history of placental abruption remained significant by multivariate analysis. During the index pregnancy maternal alcohol consumption and smoking and smoking by the partner turned out to be the major independent risk factors for placental abruption. Smoking by both partners multiplied the risk. The liberal use of ultrasound examination contributed little to the management of women with placental abruption. Although second-trimester MSAFP levels were higher in women with subsequent placental abruption, clinical usefulness of this test is limited due to low sensitivity and high false positive rate. Similarly, angiogenic factors in early second trimester, or CRP levels, or chlamydial antibodies in the first trimester failed to predict placental abruption.
Resumo:
Thirty percent of 70-year-old women have osteoporosis; after age of 80 its prevalence is up to 70%. Postmenopausal women with osteoporosis seem to be at an increased risk for cardiovascular events, and deterioration of oral health, as shown by attachment loss of teeth, which is proportional to the severity of osteoporosis. Osteoporosis can be treated with many different medication, e.g. estrogen and alendronate. We randomized 90 elderly osteoporotic women (65-80 years of age) to receive hormone therapy (HT)(2mg E2+NETA), 10mg alendronate, and their combination for two years and compared their effects on bone mineral density (BMD) and turnover, two surrogate markers of the risk of cardiovascular diseases, C-reactive protein (CRP) and E-selectin, as well as oral health. The effect of HT on health-related quality of life (HRQoL) was studied in the population-based cohort of 1663 postmenopausal women (mean age 68 yr) (585 estrogen users and 1078 non-users). BMD was measured with dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DXA) at 0, 12 and 24 months. Urinary N-telopeptide (NTX) of type I collagen, a marker of bone resorption, and serum aminoterminal propeptide of human type I procollagen (PINP), a marker of bone formation, were measured every six months of treatment. Serum CRP and E-selectin, were measured at 0, 6, and 12 months. Dental, and periodontal conditions, and gingival crevicular fluid (GCF) matrix metalloproteinase (MMP)-8 levels were studied to evaluate the oral health status and for the mouth symptoms a structured questionnaire was used. The HRQoL was measured with 15D questionnaire. Lumbar spine BMD increased similarly in all treatment groups (6.8-8.4% and 9.1-11.2%). Only HT increased femoral neck BMD at both 12 (4.9%) and 24 months (5.8%), at the latter time point the HT group differed significantly from the other groups. HT reduced bone marker levels of NTX and PINP significantly less than other two groups.Oral HT significantly increased serum CRP level by 76.5% at 6 and by 47.1% (NS) at 12 months, and decreased serum E-selectin level by 24.3% and 30.0%. Alendronate had no effect on these surrogate markers. Alendronate caused a decrease in the resting salivary flow rate and tended to increase GCF MMP-8 levels. Otherwise, there was no effect on the parameters of oral health. HT improved the HRQoL of elderly women significantly on the dimensions of usual activities, vitality and sexual activity, but the overall improvement in HRQoL was neither statistically significant nor clinically important. In conclusion, bisphosphonates might be the first option to start the treatment of postmenopausal osteoporosis in the old age.
Resumo:
Muscle hypertrophy occurs following increased protein synthesis, which requires activation of the ribosomal complex. Additionally, increased translational capacity via elevated ribosomal RNA (rRNA) synthesis has also been implicated in resistance training-induced skeletal muscle hypertrophy. The time course of ribosome biogenesis following resistance exercise (RE) and the impact exerted by differing recovery strategies remains unknown. In the present study, the activation of transcriptional regulators, the expression levels of pre-rRNA, and mature rRNA components were measured through 48 h after a single-bout RE. In addition, the effects of either low-intensity cycling (active recovery, ACT) or a cold-water immersion (CWI) recovery strategy were compared. Nine male subjects performed two bouts of high-load RE randomized to be followed by 10 min of either ACT or CWI. Muscle biopsies were collected before RE and at 2, 24, and 48 h after RE. RE increased the phosphorylation of the p38-MNK1-eIF4E axis, an effect only evident with ACT recovery. Downstream, cyclin D1 protein, total eIF4E, upstream binding factor 1 (UBF1), and c-Myc proteins were all increased only after RE with ACT. This corresponded with elevated abundance of the pre-rRNAs (45S, ITS-28S, ITS-5.8S, and ETS-18S) from 24 h after RE with ACT. In conclusion, coordinated upstream signaling and activation of transcriptional factors stimulated pre-rRNA expression after RE. CWI, as a recovery strategy, markedly blunted these events, suggesting that suppressed ribosome biogenesis may be one factor contributing to the impaired hypertrophic response observed when CWI is used regularly after exercise.
Resumo:
Some perioperative clinical factors related to the primary cemented arthroplasty operation for osteoarthritis of the hip or knee joint are studied and discussed in this thesis. In a randomized, double-blind study, 39 patients were divided into two groups: one receiving tranexamic acid and the other not receiving it. Tranexamic acid was given in a dose of 10 mg/kg before the operation and twice thereafter, at 8-hour intervals. Total blood loss was smaller in the tranexamic acid group than in the control group. No thromboembolic complications were noticed. In a prospective, randomized study, 58 patients with hip arthroplasty and 39 patients with knee arthroplasty were divided into groups with postoperative closed-suction drainage and without drainage. There was no difference in healing of the wounds, postoperative blood transfusions, complications or range of motion. As a result of this study, the use of drains is no longer recommended. In a randomised study the effectiveness of a femoral nerve block (25 patients) was compared with other methods of pain control (24 patients) on the first postoperative day after total knee arthroplasty. The femoral block consisted of a single injection administered at patients´ bedside during the surgeon´s hospital rounds. Femoral block patients reported less pain and required half of the amount of oxycodone. Additional femoral block or continued epidural analgesia was required more frequently by the control group patients. Pain management with femoral blocks resulted in less work for nursing staff. In a retrospective study of 422 total hip and knee arthroplasty cases the C-reactive protein levels and clinical course were examined. After hip and knee arthroplasty the maximal C-reactive protein values are seen on the second and third postoperative days, after which the level decreases rapidly. There is no difference between patients with cemented or uncemented prostheses. Major postoperative complications may cause a further increase in C-reactive protein levels at one and two weeks. In-hospital and outpatient postoperative control radiographs of 200 hip and knee arthroplasties were reviewed retrospectively. If postoperative radiographs are of good quality, there seems to be no need for early repetitive radiographs. The quality and safety of follow-up is not compromised by limiting follow-up radiographs to those with clinical indications. Exposure of the patients and the staff to radiation is reduced. Reading of the radiographs by only the treating orthopaedic surgeon is enough. These factors may seem separate from each other, but linking them together may help the treating orthopaedic surgeon to adequate patient care strategy. Notable savings can be achieved.
Resumo:
Age-related macular degeneration (AMD; OMIM # 603075) is an eye disease of the elderly, signs of which appear after the age of 50. In the Western world it is a leading cause of permanent visual loss with a prevalence of 8.5% in persons under 54 years of age and of 37% in persons over 75 years of age. Early forms of AMD may be asymptomatic, but in the late forms usually a central scotoma in the visual field follows severely complicating daily tasks. Smoking, age, and genetic predisposition are known risk factors for AMD. Until recently no true susceptibility genes had been identified though the composition of drusen deposits, the hallmarks of AMD, has suggested that the complement system might play a role in the pathogenesis of AMD. When four groups reported in March 2005, that, on chromosome 1q32, a Y402H variant in the complement factor H (CFH) gene confers risk for AMD in independent Caucasian samples, a new period in the field of genetic research of AMD started. CFH is a key regulator of the complement system. Thus, it is logical to speculate, that it plays a role in the pathogenesis of AMD. We performed a case-control association study to analyse whether the CFH Y402H variant contain a risk for AMD in the Finnish population. Although the population of Finland represents a genetic isolate, the CFH Y402H polymorphism was associated with AMD also in our patient sample with similar risk allele frequencies as in the other Caucasian populations. We further evaluated the effects of this variant, but no association between lesion subtype (predominantly classic, minimally classic or occult lesion) or lesion size of neovascular AMD and the CFH Y402H variant was detected. Neither did the variant have an effect on the photodynamic therapy (PDT) outcome. The patients that respond to PDT carried the risk genotype as frequently as those who did not respond, and no difference was found in the number of PDT sessions needed in patients with or without the risk genotypes of CFH Y402H. Functional analyses, however, showed that the binding of C-reactive protein (CRP) to CFH was significantly reduced in patients with the risk genotype of Y402H. In the past two years, the LOC387715/ high-temperature requirement factor A1 (HTRA1) locus on 10q26 has also been repeatedly associated with AMD in several populations. The recent discovery of the LOC387715 protein on the mitochondrial outer membrane suggests that the LOC387715 gene, not HTRA1, is the true predisposing gene in this region, although its biological function is still unknown. In our Finnish patient material, patients with AMD carried the A69S risk genotype of LOC387715 more frequently than the controls. Also, for the first time, an interaction between the CFH Y402H and the LOC387715 A69S variants was found. The most recently detected susceptibilty gene of AMD, the complement component 3 (C3) gene, encodes the central component of the complement system, C3. In our Finnish sample, an additive gene effect for the C3 locus was detected, though weaker than the effects for the two main loci, CFH and LOC387715. Instead, the hemicentin-1 or the elongation of very long chain fatty acids-like 4 genes that have also been suggested as candidate genes for AMD did not carry a risk for AMD in the Finnish population. This was the first series of molecular genetic study of AMD in Finland. We showed that two common risk variants, CFH Y402H and LOC387715 A69S, represent a high risk of AMD also in the isolated Finnish population, and furthermore, that they had a statistical interaction. It was demonstrated that the CFH Y402H risk genotype affects the binding of CFH to CRP thus suggesting that complement indeed plays an important role in the pathogenesis of AMD.
Resumo:
Epidemiological and experimental studies suggest that changes in gut microbial balance are associated with increases in the prevalence of allergic diseases. Probiotics are proposed to provide beneficial immunoregulatory signals which aid in oral tolerance achievement and alleviation of symptoms of allergic diseases. The present study evaluates both the immunological mechanisms of probiotics in infants with allergic diseases and their preventive aspect among infants prone to allergy. Furthermore, the purpose of the study was to characterise the immunological features of cord blood mononuclear cells (CBMCs) in infants at high genetic risk for allergy. GATA-3 expression (p = 0.03), interleukin (IL) -2(p = 0.026), and IL-5 (p = 0.013) secretion of stimulated CBMCs were higher in IgE-sensitized infants at age 2 than in non-allergic, non-sensitized infants. Lactobacillus GG (LGG) treatment increased secretion of IFN-γ by PBMCs in vitro in infants with cow s milk allergy (CMA) (p = 0.006) and in infants with IgE-associated eczema (p = 0.017), when compared to levels in the placebo group. A probiotic mixture, increased secretion of IL-4 by PBMCs in vitro in infants with CMA (p = 0.028), when compared with placebo-group levels. The LGG treatment induced higher plasma C-reactive protein (CRP) (p = 0.021) and IL-6 (p = 0.036) levels in infants with IgE-associated eczema than in the placebo group. The probiotic mixture induced higher plasma IL-10 levels in infants with eczema (p = 0.016). In the prevention study of allergic dis-eases, the infants receiving the probiotic mixture had higher plasma levels of CRP (p = 0.008), total IgA (p = 0.016), total IgE (p = 0.047), and IL-10 (p = 0.002) than did infants in the placebo group. Increased CRP level at age 6 months was associated with a decreased risk for eczema at age 2 not only in the infants who received probiotics but also in the placebo group (p = 0.034). In conclusion, the priming of the GATA-3 and IL-5 pathway can occur in utero, and a primary feature of T-cells predisposing to IgE-sensitization seems to directly favour Th2 deviation. LGG treatment induced increased plasma levels of CRP and IL-6 in infants with IgE-associated eczema, suggesting an activation of innate immu-nity. The probiotic mixture, when given to allergy-prone infants, induced inflammation, detected as increased plasma CRP levels, which at age 6 months was associated with decreased risk for eczema at age 2.The probiotic-induced response in allergy prone infants was characterized by their higher plasma IL-10, total IgE, and CRP levels, without induction of an allergen-specific IgE response. In this respect, the probiotics in infancy appear to induce protective immune profiles that are characteristic for chronic low-grade inflammation, a response resembling that of helminth-like infections.