27 resultados para Specific Serology

em Université de Lausanne, Switzerland


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Aberrant blood vessels enable tumor growth, provide a barrier to immune infiltration, and serve as a source of protumorigenic signals. Targeting tumor blood vessels for destruction, or tumor vascular disruption therapy, can therefore provide significant therapeutic benefit. Here, we describe the ability of chimeric antigen receptor (CAR)-bearing T cells to recognize human prostate-specific membrane antigen (hPSMA) on endothelial targets in vitro as well as in vivo. CAR T cells were generated using the anti-PSMA scFv, J591, and the intracellular signaling domains: CD3ζ, CD28, and/or CD137/4-1BB. We found that all anti-hPSMA CAR T cells recognized and eliminated PSMA(+) endothelial targets in vitro, regardless of the signaling domain. T cells bearing the third-generation anti-hPSMA CAR, P28BBζ, were able to recognize and kill primary human endothelial cells isolated from gynecologic cancers. In addition, the P28BBζ CAR T cells mediated regression of hPSMA-expressing vascular neoplasms in mice. Finally, in murine models of ovarian cancers populated by murine vessels expressing hPSMA, the P28BBζ CAR T cells were able to ablate PSMA(+) vessels, cause secondary depletion of tumor cells, and reduce tumor burden. Taken together, these results provide a strong rationale for the use of CAR T cells as agents of tumor vascular disruption, specifically those targeting PSMA. Cancer Immunol Res; 3(1); 68-84. ©2014 AACR.

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MicroRNAs (miRNAs) have been shown to play important roles in both brain development and the regulation of adult neural cell functions. However, a systematic analysis of brain miRNA functions has been hindered by a lack of comprehensive information regarding the distribution of miRNAs in neuronal versus glial cells. To address this issue, we performed microarray analyses of miRNA expression in the four principal cell types of the CNS (neurons, astrocytes, oligodendrocytes, and microglia) using primary cultures from postnatal d 1 rat cortex. These analyses revealed that neural miRNA expression is highly cell-type specific, with 116 of the 351 miRNAs examined being differentially expressed fivefold or more across the four cell types. We also demonstrate that individual neuron-enriched or neuron-diminished RNAs had a significant impact on the specification of neuronal phenotype: overexpression of the neuron-enriched miRNAs miR-376a and miR-434 increased the differentiation of neural stem cells into neurons, whereas the opposite effect was observed for the glia-enriched miRNAs miR-223, miR-146a, miR-19, and miR-32. In addition, glia-enriched miRNAs were shown to inhibit aberrant glial expression of neuronal proteins and phenotypes, as exemplified by miR-146a, which inhibited neuroligin 1-dependent synaptogenesis. This study identifies new nervous system functions of specific miRNAs, reveals the global extent to which the brain may use differential miRNA expression to regulate neural cell-type-specific phenotypes, and provides an important data resource that defines the compartmentalization of brain miRNAs across different cell types.

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A murine monoclonal antibody (SJL 2-4) specific for the antigen apo-cytochrome c was shown to inhibit both antigen-induced proliferation and lymphokine secretion by an apo-cytochrome c-specific BALB/c helper T cell clone. The inhibition was specific because additional apo-cytochrome c-specific T cell clones were not inhibited by the same monoclonal antibody. Time course studies of the inhibition indicated that the initial 8 hr of contact between T cell clones and antigen-presenting cells were critical for activation of the T cell clones. Inhibition of T cell functions by antigen-specific antibodies appeared to correlate with the antibody-antigen binding constant because a second monoclonal antibody (Cyt-1-59), with identical specificity but with a lower affinity constant for apo-cytochrome c, had very little inhibitory effect on the proliferation or lymphokine secretion of apo-cytochrome c-specific T cell clones.

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Retroviral transfer of T cell antigen receptor (TCR) genes selected by circumventing tolerance to broad tumor- and leukemia-associated antigens in human leukocyte antigen (HLA)-A*0201 (A2.1) transgenic (Tg) mice allows the therapeutic reprogramming of human T lymphocytes. Using a human CD8 x A2.1/Kb mouse derived TCR specific for natural peptide-A2.1 (pA2.1) complexes comprising residues 81-88 of the human homolog of the murine double-minute 2 oncoprotein, MDM2(81-88), we found that the heterodimeric CD8 alpha beta coreceptor, but not normally expressed homodimeric CD8 alpha alpha, is required for tetramer binding and functional redirection of TCR- transduced human T cells. CD8+T cells that received a humanized derivative of the MDM2 TCR bound pA2.1 tetramers only in the presence of an anti-human-CD8 anti-body and required more peptide than wild-type (WT) MDM2 TCR+T cells to mount equivalent cytotoxicity. They were, however, sufficiently effective in recognizing malignant targets including fresh leukemia cells. Most efficient expression of transduced TCR in human T lymphocytes was governed by mouse as compared to human constant (C) alphabeta domains, as demonstrated with partially humanized and murinized TCR of primary mouse and human origin, respectively. We further observed a reciprocal relationship between the level of Tg WT mouse relative to natural human TCR expression, resulting in T cells with decreased normal human cell surface TCR. In contrast, natural human TCR display remained unaffected after delivery of the humanized MDM2 TCR. These results provide important insights into the molecular basis of TCR gene therapy of malignant disease.

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RESUME Nous n'avons pas de connaissance précise des facteurs à l'origine de l'hétérogénéité phénotypique des cellules T CD4 mémoires. Une troisième population phénotypique des cellules T CD4 mémoires, caractérisée par les marqueurs CD45RA+CCR7- a été identifiée dans cette étude. Cette population présente un état de différentiation avancée, comme en témoigne son histoire de réplication, ainsi que sa capacité de prolifération homéostatique. Les réponses des cellules T CD4 mémoires à différentes conditions de persistance et charge antigénique ont trois patterns phénotypiques différents, caractérisés par les marqueurs CD45RA et CCR7. La réponse CD4 mono -phénotypique CD45RA-CCR7+ ou CD45RA- CCR7- est associée à des conditions d'élimination de l'antigène (telle la réponse CD4 tétanos spécifique) ou à des conditions de persistance antigénique et de virémie élevée (telle la réponse HIV chronique ou la primo-infection CMV) respectivement. D'autre part, les réponses T CD4 multi -phénotypiques CD45RA-CCR7+ sont associées à des conditions d'exposition antigénique prolongée et de faible virémie (telles les infections CMV, EBV et HSV ou les infections HIV chez les long term non progressons). La réponse mono -phénotypique CD45RA- CCR7+ est propre aux cellules T CD4 secrétant de IL2, définies également comme centrales mémoires, la réponse CD45RA- CCR7- aux cellules T CD4 secrétant de l'IFNγ et finalement la réponse mufti-phénotypique aux cellules T CD4 secrétant à la fois de l'IL2 et de l' IFNγ. En conclusion, ces résultats témoignent d'une régulation de l'hétérogénéité phénotypique par l'exposition et la charge antigénique. ABSTRACT The factors responsible for the phenotypic heterogeneity of memory CD4 T cells are unclear. In the present study, we have identified a third population of memory CD4 T cells characterized as CD45RA+CCRT that, based on its replication history and the homeostatic proliferative capacity, was at an advanced stage of differentiation. Three different phenotypic patterns of memory CD4 T cell responses were delineated under different conditions of antigen (Ag) persistence and load using CD45RA and CCR7 as markers of memory T cells. Mono-phenotypic CD45RA'CCR7+ or CD45RA'CCR7' CD4 T cell responses were associated with conditions of Ag clearance (tetanus toxoid-specific CD4 T cell response) or Ag persistence and high load (chronic HIV-1 and primary CMV infections), respectively. Multi-phenotypic CD45RA CCR7+, CD45RA'CCRT and CD45RA+CCRT CD4 T cell responses were associated with protracted Ag exposure and low load (chronic CMV, EBV and HSV infections and HIV-1 infection in long-term nonprogressors). The mono-phenotypic CD45RA'CCR7+ response was typical of central memory (TCM) IL-2-secreting CD4 T cells, the mono-phenotypic CD45RA CCRT response of effector memory (TEM) IFN-γ -secreting CD4 T cells and the multi-phenotypic response of both IL-2- and IFN-γ -secreting cells. The present results indicate that the heterogeneity of different Ag-specific CD4 T cell responses is regulated by Ag exposure and Ag load.

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Objectives Nosocomial Pseudomonas aeruginosa pneumonia remains a major concern in critically ill patients. We explored the potential impact of microorganism-targeted adjunctive immunotherapy in such patients. Patients and methods This multicentre, open pilot Phase 2a clinical trial (NCT00851435) prospectively evaluated the safety, pharmacokinetics and potential efficacy of three doses of 1.2 mg/kg panobacumab, a fully human monoclonal anti-lipopolysaccharide IgM, given every 72 h in 18 patients developing nosocomial P. aeruginosa (serotype O11) pneumonia. Results Seventeen out of 18 patients were included in the pharmacokinetic analysis. In 13 patients receiving three doses, the maximal concentration after the third infusion was 33.9 ± 8.0 μg/mL, total area under the serum concentration-time curve was 5397 ± 1993 μg h/mL and elimination half-life was 102.3 ± 47.8 h. Panobacumab was well tolerated, induced no immunogenicity and was detected in respiratory samples. In contrast to Acute Physiology and Chronic Health Evaluation II (APACHE II) prediction, all 13 patients receiving three doses survived, with a mean clinical resolution in 9.0 ± 2.7 days. Two patients suffered a recurrence at days 17 and 20. Conclusions These data suggest that panobacumab is safe, with a pharmacokinetic profile similar to that in healthy volunteers. It was associated with high clinical cure and survival rates in patients developing nosocomial P. aeruginosa O11 pneumonia. We concluded that these promising results warrant further trials.

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In liver, the glyoxylate cycle contributes to two metabolic functions, urea and glucose synthesis. One of the key enzymes in this pathway is glyoxylate reductase/hydroxypyruvate reductase (GRHPR) whose dysfunction in human causes primary hyperoxaluria type 2, a disease resulting in oxalate accumulation and formation of kidney stones. In this study, we provide evidence for a transcriptional regulation by the peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor alpha (PPARalpha) of the mouse GRHPR gene in liver. Mice fed with a PPARalpha ligand or in which PPARalpha activity is enhanced by fasting increase their GRHPR gene expression via a peroxisome proliferator response element located in the promoter region of the gene. Consistent with these observations, mice deficient in PPARalpha present higher plasma levels of oxalate in comparison with their wild type counterparts. As expected, the administration of a PPARalpha ligand (Wy-14,643) reduces the plasma oxalate levels. Surprisingly, this effect is also observed in null mice, suggesting a PPARalpha-independent action of the compound. Despite a high degree of similarity between the transcribed region of the human and mouse GRHPR gene, the human promoter has been dramatically reorganized, which has resulted in a loss of PPARalpha regulation. Overall, these data indicate a species-specific regulation by PPARalpha of GRHPR, a key gene of the glyoxylate cycle.

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Background: Plasmodium falciparum(P. falciparum) merozoite surfaceprotein 2 (MSP-2) is one of bloodstage proteins that are associated withprotection from malaria. MSP-2 consistsof a highly polymorphic centralrepeat region flanked by a dimorphicregion that defines the two allelicfamilies, 3D7 and FC27; N- and Cterminalregions are conserved domains.Long synthetic peptides (LSP)representing the two allelic familiesof MSP-2 and constant regions arerecognized by sera from donors livingin endemic areas; and specific antibodies(Abs) are associated with protectionand active in antibody dependentcellular inhibition (ADCI) in vitro.However, the fine specificity ofAb response to the two allelic familiesof MSP-2 is unknown. Methods: Peptidesrepresenting dimorphic regionof 3D7 and FC27 families and theirC-terminal (common fragment to thetwo families) termed 3D7-D (88 aa),FC27-D (48 aa) and C (40 aa) respectivelywere synthesized. Overlapping20 mer peptides covering dimorphicand constant regions of two familieswere also synthesized for epitopemapping. Human sera were obtainedfrom donors living in malaria endemicareas. SpecificDand CregionsAbs were purified from single or poolhuman sera. Sera from mice were obtainedafter immunization with thetwo families LSP mixture in three differentadjuvants: alhydrogel (Alum),Glucopyranosyl Lipid Adjuvant-Stableoil-in-water Emulsion (GLA-SE)and Virosome. For ADCI, P. falciparum(strain 3D7) parasite wasmaintained in culture at 0.5% parasitemiaand 4% hematocrit in air tightbox at love oxygen (2%) and 37 ºC.Results: We identified several epitopesfrom the dimorphic and constantregions of both families of MSP-2, inmice and humans (adults and children).In human, most recognizedepitopes were the same in differentendemic regions for each domain ofthe two families of MSP-2. In mice,the differential recognition of epitopewas depending on the strain of mouseand interestingly on the adjuvantused. GLA-SE and alum as adjuvantswere more often associated with therecognition of multiple epitopes thanvirosomes. Epitope-specific Abs recognizednative merozoites of P.falciparum and were active in ADCIto block development of parasite.Conclusion: The delineation of a limitednumber of epitopes could be exploitedto develop MSP-2 vaccinesactive on both allelic families ofMSP-2.

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Primary sensory cortex discriminates incoming sensory information and generates multiple processing streams toward other cortical areas. However, the underlying cellular mechanisms remain unknown. Here, by making whole-cell recordings in primary somatosensory barrel cortex (S1) of behaving mice, we show that S1 neurons projecting to primary motor cortex (M1) and those projecting to secondary somatosensory cortex (S2) have distinct intrinsic membrane properties and exhibit markedly different membrane potential dynamics during behavior. Passive tactile stimulation evoked faster and larger postsynaptic potentials (PSPs) in M1-projecting neurons, rapidly driving phasic action potential firing, well-suited for stimulus detection. Repetitive active touch evoked strongly depressing PSPs and only transient firing in M1-projecting neurons. In contrast, PSP summation allowed S2-projecting neurons to robustly signal sensory information accumulated during repetitive touch, useful for encoding object features. Thus, target-specific transformation of sensory-evoked synaptic potentials by S1 projection neurons generates functionally distinct output signals for sensorimotor coordination and sensory perception.

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Background: Infection with EBV and a lack in vitamin D may be important environmental triggers of MS. 1,25-(OH)2D3 mediates a shift of antigen presenting cells (APC) and CD4+ T cells to a less inflammatory profile. Although CD8+ T cells do express the vitamin D receptor, a direct effect of 1,25(OH)2D3 on these cells has not been demonstrated until now. Since CD8+ T cells are important immune mediators of the inflammatory response in MS, we examined whether vitamin D directly affects the CD8+ T cell response, and more specifically if it modulates the EBV-specific CD8+ T cell response. Material and Methods: To explore whether the vitamin D status may influence the pattern of the EBV-specific CD8+ T cell response, PBMC of 10 patients with early MS and 10 healthy controls (HC) were stimulated with a pool of immunodominant 8-10 mer peptide epitopes known to elicit CD8+ T cell responses. PBMC were stimulated with this EBV CD8 peptide pool, medium (negative control) or anti- CD3/anti-CD28 beads (positive control). The following assays were performed: ELISPOT to assess the secretion of IFN-gamma by T cells in general; cytometric beads array (CBA) and ELISA to determine whichcytokines were released by EBV-specific CD8+ T cells after six days of culture; and intracellular cytokine staining assay to determine by which subtype of T cells secreted given cytokines. To examine whether vitamin D could directly modulate CD8+ T cell immune responses, we depleted CD4+ T cells using negative selection. Results: We found that pre-treatment of vitamin D had an antiinflammatory action on both EBV-specific CD8+ T cells and on CD3/ CD28-stimulated T cells: secretion of pro-inflammatory cytokines (IFNgamma and TNF-alpha) was decreased, whereas secretion of antiinflammatory cytokines (IL-5 and TGF-beta) was increased. At baseline, CD8+ T cells of early MS patients showed a higher secretion of TNFalpha and lower secretion of IL-5. Addition of vitamin D did not restore the same levels of both cytokines as compared to HC. Vitamin D-pretreated CD8+T cells exhibited a decreased secretion of IFN-gamma and TNF-alpha, even after depletion of CD4+ T cells from culture. Conclusion: Vitamin D has a direct anti-inflammatory effect on CD8+ T cells independently from CD4+ T cells. CD8+ T cells of patients with earlyMS are less responsive to the inflammatory effect of vitamin D than HC, pointing toward an intrinsic dysregulation of CD8+ T cells. The modulation of EBV-specific CD8+T cells by vitaminDsuggests that there may be interplay between these twomajor environmental factors of MS. This study was supported by a grant from the Swiss National Foundation (PP00P3-124893), and by an unrestricted research grant from Bayer to RDP.

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The World Health Organization (WHO) criteria for the diagnosis of osteoporosis are mainly applicable for dual X-ray absorptiometry (DXA) measurements at the spine and hip levels. There is a growing demand for cheaper devices, free of ionizing radiation such as promising quantitative ultrasound (QUS). In common with many other countries, QUS measurements are increasingly used in Switzerland without adequate clinical guidelines. The T-score approach developed for DXA cannot be applied to QUS, although well-conducted prospective studies have shown that ultrasound could be a valuable predictor of fracture risk. As a consequence, an expert committee named the Swiss Quality Assurance Project (SQAP, for which the main mission is the establishment of quality assurance procedures for DXA and QUS in Switzerland) was mandated by the Swiss Association Against Osteoporosis (ASCO) in 2000 to propose operational clinical recommendations for the use of QUS in the management of osteoporosis for two QUS devices sold in Switzerland. Device-specific weighted "T-score" based on the risk of osteoporotic hip fractures as well as on the prediction of DXA osteoporosis at the hip, according to the WHO definition of osteoporosis, were calculated for the Achilles (Lunar, General Electric, Madison, Wis.) and Sahara (Hologic, Waltham, Mass.) ultrasound devices. Several studies (totaling a few thousand subjects) were used to calculate age-adjusted odd ratios (OR) and area under the receiver operating curve (AUC) for the prediction of osteoporotic fracture (taking into account a weighting score depending on the design of the study involved in the calculation). The ORs were 2.4 (1.9-3.2) and AUC 0.72 (0.66-0.77), respectively, for the Achilles, and 2.3 (1.7-3.1) and 0.75 (0.68-0.82), respectively, for the Sahara device. To translate risk estimates into thresholds for clinical application, 90% sensitivity was used to define low fracture and low osteoporosis risk, and a specificity of 80% was used to define subjects as being at high risk of fracture or having osteoporosis at the hip. From the combination of the fracture model with the hip DXA osteoporotic model, we found a T-score threshold of -1.2 and -2.5 for the stiffness (Achilles) determining, respectively, the low- and high-risk subjects. Similarly, we found a T-score at -1.0 and -2.2 for the QUI index (Sahara). Then a screening strategy combining QUS, DXA, and clinical factors for the identification of women needing treatment was proposed. The application of this approach will help to minimize the inappropriate use of QUS from which the whole field currently suffers.

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Point-of-care (POC) tests offer potentially substantial benefits for the management of infectious diseases, mainly by shortening the time to result and by making the test available at the bedside or at remote care centres. Commercial POC tests are already widely available for the diagnosis of bacterial and viral infections and for parasitic diseases, including malaria. Infectious diseases specialists and clinical microbiologists should be aware of the indications and limitations of each rapid test, so that they can use them appropriately and correctly interpret their results. The clinical applications and performance of the most relevant and commonly used POC tests are reviewed. Some of these tests exhibit insufficient sensitivity, and should therefore be coupled to confirmatory tests when the results are negative (e.g. Streptococcus pyogenes rapid antigen detection test), whereas the results of others need to be confirmed when positive (e.g. malaria). New molecular-based tests exhibit better sensitivity and specificity than former immunochromatographic assays (e.g. Streptococcus agalactiae detection). In the coming years, further evolution of POC tests may lead to new diagnostic approaches, such as panel testing, targeting not just a single pathogen, but all possible agents suspected in a specific clinical setting. To reach this goal, the development of serology-based and/or molecular-based microarrays/multiplexed tests will be needed. The availability of modern technology and new microfluidic devices will provide clinical microbiologists with the opportunity to be back at the bedside, proposing a large variety of POC tests that will allow quicker diagnosis and improved patient care.

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To make a comprehensive evaluation of organ-specific out-of-field doses using Monte Carlo (MC) simulations for different breast cancer irradiation techniques and to compare results with a commercial treatment planning system (TPS). Three breast radiotherapy techniques using 6MV tangential photon beams were compared: (a) 2DRT (open rectangular fields), (b) 3DCRT (conformal wedged fields), and (c) hybrid IMRT (open conformal+modulated fields). Over 35 organs were contoured in a whole-body CT scan and organ-specific dose distributions were determined with MC and the TPS. Large differences in out-of-field doses were observed between MC and TPS calculations, even for organs close to the target volume such as the heart, the lungs and the contralateral breast (up to 70% difference). MC simulations showed that a large fraction of the out-of-field dose comes from the out-of-field head scatter fluence (>40%) which is not adequately modeled by the TPS. Based on MC simulations, the 3DCRT technique using external wedges yielded significantly higher doses (up to a factor 4-5 in the pelvis) than the 2DRT and the hybrid IMRT techniques which yielded similar out-of-field doses. In sharp contrast to popular belief, the IMRT technique investigated here does not increase the out-of-field dose compared to conventional techniques and may offer the most optimal plan. The 3DCRT technique with external wedges yields the largest out-of-field doses. For accurate out-of-field dose assessment, a commercial TPS should not be used, even for organs near the target volume (contralateral breast, lungs, heart).