191 resultados para sensitivity and sensibility


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Purpose: To compare MDCT, MRI and 18F-FDG PET/CT for the detection of peritoneal carcinomatosis due to ovarian cancerMethods and Materials: Fifteen women (mean age 65±) with clinical suspicion of ovarian cancer and peritoneal carcinomatosis underwent MDCT, MRI and 18F-FDG PET/CT, simultaneously and shortly performed before surgery (delay 8.1± days). According to the peritoneal cancer index nine abdominopelvic regions were defined. We applied four scores of lesion size on MDCT and MR images, while the maximal standard uptake value (SUVmax) was measured on 18F-FDG PET/CT. Three sites of lymphadenopathy and posterobasal pleural carcinomatosis were also analyzed. First, one radiologist blindly and separately read MDCT and MR images, while one nuclear physician blindly read PET/CT images grading each lesion according to four diagnostic certitudes. Secondly, all the images were reviewed jointly and compared with histopathology. Receiver operating characteristics (ROC) analysis was performed.Results: Peritoneal implants were proven in ten women (75%). Altogether, 228 abdominopelvic sites were compared. Sensitivity and specificity for MDCT was 90.2% and 90.6%, for MRI 93.5% and 86.3%, and for 18F-FDG PET/CT 92.7% and 95.7%, respectively. ROC area under the curve were 0.93 for MDCT and MRI, and 0.96 for 18F-FDG PET/CT respectively. No significant differences (p=0.11) were found between the three modalities.Conclusion: Although MRI revealed to be the most sensitive and 18F-FDG PET/CT the most specific modality, no significant differences were shown between the three techniques.

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A newly identified cytokine, osteoprotegerin (OPG) appears to be involved in the regulation of bone remodeling. In vitro studies suggest that OPG, a soluble member of the TNF receptor family of proteins, inhibits osteoclastogenesis by interrupting the intercellular signaling between osteoblastic stromal cells and osteoclast progenitors. As patients with chronic renal failure (CRF) often have renal osteodystrophy (ROD), we investigated the role of osteoprotegerin (OPG) in ROD, and investigated whether there was any relationship between serum OPG, intact parathyroid (PTH) (iPTH), vitamin D, and trabecular bone. Serum OPG combined with iPTH might be a useful tool in the noninvasive diagnosis of ROD, at least in cases in which the range of PTH values compromises reliable diagnosis. Thirty-six patients on maintenance hemodiafiltration (HDF) and a control group of 36 age and sex matched healthy subjects with no known metabolic bone disease were studied. The following assays were made on serum: iPTH, osteocalcin (BGP), bone alkaline phosphatase, 25(OH)-cholecalciferol, calcium, phosphate, OPG, IGF-1, estradiol, and free testosterone. Serum Ca++, P, B-ALP, BGP, IGF-1, iPTH, and OPG levels were significantly higher in HDF patients than in controls, while DXA measurements and quantitative ultrasound (QUS) parameters were significantly lower. On grouping patients according to their mean OPG levels, we observed significantly lower serum IGF-1, vitamin D3 concentrations, and lumbar spine and hip bone mineral density in the high OPG groups. No correlation was found between OPG and bone turnover markers, whereas a negative correlation was found between serum OPG and IGF-1 levels (r=-0.64, p=0.032). Serum iPTH concentrations were positively correlated with bone alkaline phosphatase (B-ALP) (r=0.69, p=0.038) and BGP (r=0.92, p<0.001). The findings made suggest that an increase in OPG levels may be a compensatory response to elevated bone loss. The low bone mineral density (BMD) levels found in the high OPG group might have been due to the significant decrease in serum IGF-1 and vitamin D3 observed. In conclusion, the findings made in the present study demonstrate that increased OPG in hemodiafiltration patients is only partly due to decreased renal clearance. As it may partly reflect a compensatory response to increased bone loss, this parameter might be helpful in the identification of patients with a marked reduction in trabecular BMD.

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INTRODUCTION: Rivaroxaban (RXA) is licensed for prophylaxis of venous thromboembolism after major orthopaedic surgery of the lower limbs. Currently, no test to quantify RXA in plasma has been validated in an inter-laboratory setting. Our study had three aims: to assess i) the feasibility of RXA quantification with a commercial anti-FXa assay, ii) its accuracy and precision in an inter-laboratory setting, and iii) the influence of 10mg of RXA on routine coagulation tests. METHODS: The same chromogenic anti-FXa assay (Hyphen BioMed) was used in all participating laboratories. RXA calibrators and sets of blinded probes (aim ii.) were prepared in vitro by spiking normal plasma. The precise RXA content was assessed by high-pressure liquid chromatography-tandem mass spectrometry. For ex-vivo studies (aim iii), plasma samples from 20 healthy volunteers taken before and 2 - 3hours after ingestion of 10mg of RXA were analyzed by participating laboratories. RESULTS: RXA can be assayed chromogenically. Among the participating laboratories, the mean accuracy and the mean coefficient of variation for precision of RXA quantification were 7.0% and 8.8%, respectively. Mean RXA concentration was 114±43μg/L .RXA significantly altered prothrombin time, activated partial thromboplastin time, factor analysis for intrinsic and extrinsic factors. Determinations of thrombin time, fibrinogen, FXIII and D-Dimer levels were not affected. CONCLUSIONS: RXA plasma levels can be quantified accurately and precisely by a chromogenic anti-FXa assay on different coagulometers in different laboratories. Ingestion of 10mg RXA results in significant alterations of both PT- and aPTT-based coagulation assays.

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In high hyperdiploid acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL), the concurrence of specific trisomies confers a more favorable outcome than hyperdiploidy alone. Interphase fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) complements conventional cytogenetics (CC) through its sensitivity and ability to detect chromosome aberrations in nondividing cells. To overcome the limits of manual I-FISH, we developed an automated four-color I-FISH approach and assessed its ability to detect concurrent aneuploidies in ALL. I-FISH was performed using centromeric probes for chromosomes 4, 6, 10, and 17. Parameters established for nucleus selection and signal detection were evaluated. Cutoff values were determined. Combinations of aneuploidies were considered relevant when each aneuploidy was individually significant. Results obtained in 10 patient samples were compared with those obtained with CC. Various combinations of aneuploidies were identified. All clones detected by CC were observed also by I-FISH, and I-FISH revealed numerous additional abnormal clones in all patients, ranging from < or =1% to 31.6% of cells analyzed. We conclude that four-color automated I-FISH permits the identification of concurrent aneuploidies of potential prognostic significance. Large numbers of cells can be analyzed rapidly. The large number of nuclei scored revealed a high level of chromosome variability both at diagnosis and relapse, the prognostic significance of which is of considerable clinical interest and merits further evaluation.

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PURPOSE: To investigate the influence of demethylation with 5-aza-cytidine (AZA) on radiation sensitivity and to define the intrinsic radiation sensitivity of methylation deficient colorectal carcinoma cells. METHODS AND MATERIALS: Radiation sensitizing effects of AZA were investigated in four colorectal carcinoma cell lines (HCT116, SW480, L174 T, Co115), defining influence of AZA on proliferation, clonogenic survival, and cell cycling with or without ionizing radiation. The methylation status for cancer or DNA damage response-related genes silenced by promoter methylation was determined. The effect of deletion of the potential target genes (DNMT1, DNMT3b, and double mutants) on radiation sensitivity was analyzed. RESULTS: AZA showed radiation sensitizing properties at >or=1 micromol/l, a concentration that does not interfere with the cell cycle by itself, in all four tested cell lines with a sensitivity-enhancing ratio (SER) of 1.6 to 2.1 (confidence interval [CI] 0.9-3.3). AZA successfully demethylated promoters of p16 and hMLH1, genes associated with ionizing radiation response. Prolonged exposure to low-dose AZA resulted in sustained radiosensitivity if associated with persistent genomic hypomethylation after recovery from AZA. Compared with maternal HCT116 cells, DNMT3b-defcient deficient cells were more sensitive to radiation with a SER of 2.0 (CI 0.9-2.1; p = 0.03), and DNMT3b/DNMT1-/- double-deficient cells showed a SER of 1.6 (CI 0.5-2.7; p = 0.09). CONCLUSIONS: AZA-induced genomic hypomethylation results in enhanced radiation sensitivity in colorectal carcinoma. The mediators leading to sensitization remain unknown. Defining the specific factors associated with radiation sensitization after genomic demethylation may open the way to better targeting for the purpose of radiation sensitization.

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Osteoporotic hip fractures increase dramatically with age and are responsible for considerable morbidity and mortality. Several treatments to prevent the occurrence of hip fracture have been validated in large randomized trials and the current challenge is to improve the identification of individuals at high risk of fracture who would benefit from therapeutic or preventive intervention. We have performed an exhaustive literature review on hip fracture predictors, focusing primarily on clinical risk factors, dual X-ray absorptiometry (DXA), quantitative ultrasound, and bone markers. This review is based on original articles and meta-analyses. We have selected studies that aim both to predict the risk of hip fracture and to discriminate individuals with or without fracture. We have included only postmenopausal women in our review. For studies involving both men and women, only results concerning women have been considered. Regarding clinical factors, only prospective studies have been taken into account. Predictive factors have been used as stand-alone tools to predict hip fracture or sequentially through successive selection processes or by combination into risk scores. There is still much debate as to whether or not the combination of these various parameters, as risk scores or as sequential or concurrent combinations, could help to better predict hip fracture. There are conflicting results on whether or not such combinations provide improvement over each method alone. Sequential combination of bone mineral density and ultrasound parameters might be cost-effective compared with DXA alone, because of fewer bone mineral density measurements. However, use of multiple techniques may increase costs. One problem that precludes comparison of most published studies is that they use either relative risk, or absolute risk, or sensitivity and specificity. The absolute risk of individuals given their risk factors and bone assessment results would be a more appropriate model for decision-making than relative risk. Currently, a group appointed by the World Health Organization and lead by Professor John Kanis is working on such a model. It will therefore be possible to further assess the best choice of threshold to optimize the number of women needed to screen for each country and each treatment.

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One of the challenges of tumour immunology remains the identification of strongly immunogenic tumour antigens for vaccination. Reverse immunology, that is, the procedure to predict and identify immunogenic peptides from the sequence of a gene product of interest, has been postulated to be a particularly efficient, high-throughput approach for tumour antigen discovery. Over one decade after this concept was born, we discuss the reverse immunology approach in terms of costs and efficacy: data mining with bioinformatic algorithms, molecular methods to identify tumour-specific transcripts, prediction and determination of proteasomal cleavage sites, peptide-binding prediction to HLA molecules and experimental validation, assessment of the in vitro and in vivo immunogenic potential of selected peptide antigens, isolation of specific cytolytic T lymphocyte clones and final validation in functional assays of tumour cell recognition. We conclude that the overall low sensitivity and yield of every prediction step often requires a compensatory up-scaling of the initial number of candidate sequences to be screened, rendering reverse immunology an unexpectedly complex approach.

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Doping with natural steroids can be detected by evaluating the urinary concentrations and ratios of several endogenous steroids. Since these biomarkers of steroid doping are known to present large inter-individual variations, monitoring of individual steroid profiles over time allows switching from population-based towards subject-based reference ranges for improved detection. In an Athlete Biological Passport (ABP), biomarkers data are collated throughout the athlete's sporting career and individual thresholds defined adaptively. For now, this approach has been validated on a limited number of markers of steroid doping, such as the testosterone (T) over epitestosterone (E) ratio to detect T misuse in athletes. Additional markers are required for other endogenous steroids like dihydrotestosterone (DHT) and dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA). By combining comprehensive steroid profiles composed of 24 steroid concentrations with Bayesian inference techniques for longitudinal profiling, a selection was made for the detection of DHT and DHEA misuse. The biomarkers found were rated according to relative response, parameter stability, discriminative power, and maximal detection time. This analysis revealed DHT/E, DHT/5β-androstane-3α,17β-diol and 5α-androstane-3α,17β-diol/5β-androstane-3α,17β-diol as best biomarkers for DHT administration and DHEA/E, 16α-hydroxydehydroepiandrosterone/E, 7β-hydroxydehydroepiandrosterone/E and 5β-androstane-3α,17β-diol/5α-androstane-3α,17β-diol for DHEA. The selected biomarkers were found suitable for individual referencing. A drastic overall increase in sensitivity was obtained. The use of multiple markers as formalized in an Athlete Steroidal Passport (ASP) can provide firm evidence of doping with endogenous steroids.

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Genetic Epidemiology of Metabolic Syndrome is a multinational, family-based study to explore the genetic basis of the metabolic syndrome. Atherogenic dyslipidemia (defined as low plasma high-density lipoprotein cholesterol with elevated triglycerides (&lt;25th and &gt;75th percentile for age, gender, and country, respectively) identified affected subjects for the metabolic syndrome. This report examines the frequency at which atherogenic dyslipidemia predicts the metabolic syndrome of the National Cholesterol Education Program Adult Treatment Panel III (ATP-III). One thousand four hundred thirty-six (854 men/582 women) affected patients by our criteria were compared with 1,672 (737 men/935 women) unaffected persons. Affected patients had more hypertension, obesity, and hyperglycemia, and they met a higher number of ATP-III criteria (3.2 +/- 1.1 SD vs 1.3 +/- 1.1 SD, p &lt;0.001). Overall, 76% of affected persons also qualified for the ATP-III definition (Cohen's kappa 0.61, 95% confidence interval 0.59 to 0.64), similar to a separate group of 464 sporadic, unrelated cases (75%). Concordance increased from 41% to 82% and 88% for ages &lt; or =35, 36 to 55, and &gt; or =55 years, respectively. Affected status was also independently associated with waist circumference (p &lt;0.001) and fasting glucose (p &lt;0.001) but not systolic blood pressure (p = 0.43). Thus, the lipid-based criteria used to define affection status in this study substantially parallels the ATP-III definition of metabolic syndrome in subjects aged &gt;35 years. In subjects aged &lt;35 years, atherogenic dyslipidemia frequently occurs in the absence of other metabolic syndrome risk factors.

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OBJECTIVES: Laboratory detection of vancomycin-intermediate Staphylococcus aureus (VISA) and their heterogeneous VISA (hVISA) precursors is difficult. Thus, it is possible that vancomycin failures against supposedly vancomycin-susceptible S. aureus are due to undiagnosed VISA or hVISA. We tested this hypothesis in experimental endocarditis.¦METHODS: Rats with aortic valve infection due to the vancomycin-susceptible (MIC 2 mg/L), methicillin-resistant S. aureus M1V2 were treated for 2 days with doses of vancomycin that mimicked the pharmacokinetics seen in humans following intravenous administration of 1 g of the drug every 12 h. Half of the treated animals were killed 8 h after treatment arrest and half 3 days thereafter. Population analyses were done directly on vegetation homogenates or after one subculture in drug-free medium to mimic standard diagnostic procedures.¦RESULTS: Vancomycin cured 14 of 26 animals (54%; P<0.05 versus controls) after 2 days of treatment. When vegetation homogenates were plated directly on vancomycin-containing plates, 6 of 13 rats killed 8 h after treatment arrest had positive cultures, 1 of which harboured hVISA. Likewise, 6 of 13 rats killed 3 days thereafter had positive valve cultures, 5 of which harboured hVISA. However, one subculture of vegetations in drug-free broth was enough to revert all the hVISA phenotypes to the susceptible pattern of the parent. Thus, vancomycin selected for hVISA during therapy of experimental endocarditis due to vancomycin-susceptible S. aureus. These hVISA were associated with vancomycin failure. The hVISA phenotype persisted in vivo, even after vancomycin arrest, but was missed in vitro after a single passage of the vegetation homogenate on drug-free medium.¦CONCLUSIONS: hVISA might escape detection in clinical samples if they are subcultured before susceptibility tests.

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BACKGROUND: American College of Cardiology/American Heart Association guidelines for the diagnosis and management of heart failure recommend investigating exacerbating conditions such as thyroid dysfunction, but without specifying the impact of different thyroid-stimulation hormone (TSH) levels. Limited prospective data exist on the association between subclinical thyroid dysfunction and heart failure events. METHODS AND RESULTS: We performed a pooled analysis of individual participant data using all available prospective cohorts with thyroid function tests and subsequent follow-up of heart failure events. Individual data on 25 390 participants with 216 248 person-years of follow-up were supplied from 6 prospective cohorts in the United States and Europe. Euthyroidism was defined as TSH of 0.45 to 4.49 mIU/L, subclinical hypothyroidism as TSH of 4.5 to 19.9 mIU/L, and subclinical hyperthyroidism as TSH <0.45 mIU/L, the last two with normal free thyroxine levels. Among 25 390 participants, 2068 (8.1%) had subclinical hypothyroidism and 648 (2.6%) had subclinical hyperthyroidism. In age- and sex-adjusted analyses, risks of heart failure events were increased with both higher and lower TSH levels (P for quadratic pattern <0.01); the hazard ratio was 1.01 (95% confidence interval, 0.81-1.26) for TSH of 4.5 to 6.9 mIU/L, 1.65 (95% confidence interval, 0.84-3.23) for TSH of 7.0 to 9.9 mIU/L, 1.86 (95% confidence interval, 1.27-2.72) for TSH of 10.0 to 19.9 mIU/L (P for trend <0.01) and 1.31 (95% confidence interval, 0.88-1.95) for TSH of 0.10 to 0.44 mIU/L and 1.94 (95% confidence interval, 1.01-3.72) for TSH <0.10 mIU/L (P for trend=0.047). Risks remained similar after adjustment for cardiovascular risk factors. CONCLUSION: Risks of heart failure events were increased with both higher and lower TSH levels, particularly for TSH ≥10 and <0.10 mIU/L.

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In hyperdiploid acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL), the simultaneous occurrence of specific aneuploidies confers a more favourable outcome than hyperdiploidy alone. Interphase (I) FISH complements conventional cytogenetics (CC) through its sensitivity and ability to detect chromosome aberrations in non-dividing cells. To overcome the limits of manual I-FISH, we developed an automated four-colour I-FISH approach and assessed its ability to detect concurrent aneuploidies in ALL. I-FISH was performed using centromeric probes for chromosomes 4, 6, 10 and 17. Parameters established for automatic nucleus selection and signal detection were evaluated (3 controls). Cut-off values were determined (10 controls, 1000 nuclei/case). Combinations of aneuploidies were considered relevant when each aneuploidy was individually significant. Results obtained in 10 ALL patients (1500 nuclei/patient) were compared with those by CC. Various combinations of aneuploidies were identified. All clones detected by CC were observed by I-FISH. I-FISH revealed numerous additional abnormal clones, ranging between 0.1% and 31.6%, based on the large number of nuclei evaluated. Four-colour automated I-FISH permits the identification of concurrent aneuploidies of prognostic significance in hyperdiploid ALL. Large numbers of cells can be analysed rapidly by this method. Owing to its high sensitivity, the method provides a powerful tool for the detection of small abnormal clones at diagnosis and during follow up. Compared to CC, it generates a more detailed cytogenetic picture, the biological and clinical significance of which merits further evaluation. Once optimised for a given set of probes, the system can be easily adapted for other probe combinations.

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OBJECTIVE: Ultrasounds are a useful tool when looking for indirect evidence in favor of pulmonary embolism. The aim of this study was to determine the incidence of acute cor pulmonale and deep venous thrombosis revealed by ultrasonographic techniques in a population of patients presenting with pulmonary embolism. METHODS: 96 consecutive patients with a mean (+/- SD) age of 65 +/- 15 years, admitted to our hospital for pulmonary embolism were included in this study. The diagnosis of pulmonary embolism was made either by spiral computed tomography or selective pulmonary angiography. Each patient subsequently underwent both trans-thoracic echocardiography and venous ultrasonography. The diagnostic criterion used for defining acute cor pulmonale by echocardiography was the right to left ventricular end-diastolic area ratio over (or equal to) 0.6. Diagnosis of deep venous thrombosis was supported by the visualization of thrombi or vein incompressibility and/or the absence of venous flow or loss of flow variability by venous ultrasonography. RESULTS: Using ultrasounds, an acute cor pulmonale was found in 63% of our patients while 79% were found to have deep venous thrombosis and 92% of the patients had either acute cor pulmonale or deep venous thrombosis or both. All of the patients with proximal pulmonary embolism had acute cor pulmonale and/or deep venous thrombosis. The presence of acute cor pulmonale on echocardiography was significantly higher in patients with proximal pulmonary embolism (p &lt; 0.0001). CONCLUSION: This study emphasizes the potential value of ultrasonographic techniques in the diagnosis of acute pulmonary embolism.

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BACKGROUND: Frailty is a relatively new geriatric concept referring to an increased vulnerability to stressors. Various definitions have been proposed, as well as a range of multidimensional instruments for its measurement. More recently, a frailty phenotype that predicts a range of adverse outcomes has been described. Understanding frailty is a particular challenge both from a clinical and a public health perspective because it may be a reversible precursor of functional dependence. The Lausanne cohort Lc65+ is a longitudinal study specifically designed to investigate the manifestations of frailty from its first signs in the youngest old, identify medical and psychosocial determinants, and describe its evolution and related outcomes. METHODS/DESIGN: The Lc65+ cohort was launched in 2004 with the random selection of 3054 eligible individuals aged 65 to 70 (birth year 1934-1938) in the non-institutionalized population of Lausanne (Switzerland). The baseline data collection was completed among 1422 participants in 2004-2005 through questionnaires, examination and performance tests. It comprised a wide range of medical and psychosocial dimensions, including a life course history of adverse events. Outcomes measures comprise subjective health, limitations in activities of daily living, mobility impairments, development of medical conditions or chronic health problems, falls, institutionalization, health services utilization, and death. Two additional random samples of 65-70 years old subjects will be surveyed in 2009 (birth year 1939-1943) and in 2014 (birth year 1944-1948). DISCUSSION: The Lc65+ study focuses on the sequence "Determinants --> Components --> Consequences" of frailty. It currently provides information on health in the youngest old and will allow comparisons to be made between the profiles of aging individuals born before, during and at the end of the Second World War.

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PURPOSE: To determine and compare the diagnostic performance of magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) and computed tomography (CT) for the diagnosis of tumor extent in advanced retinoblastoma, using histopathologic analysis as the reference standard. DESIGN: Systematic review and meta-analysis. PARTICIPANTS: Patients with advanced retinoblastoma who underwent MRI, CT, or both for the detection of tumor extent from published diagnostic accuracy studies. METHODS: Medline and Embase were searched for literature published through April 2013 assessing the diagnostic performance of MRI, CT, or both in detecting intraorbital and extraorbital tumor extension of retinoblastoma. Diagnostic accuracy data were extracted from included studies. Summary estimates were based on a random effects model. Intrastudy and interstudy heterogeneity were analyzed. MAIN OUTCOME MEASURES: Sensitivity and specificity of MRI and CT in detecting tumor extent. RESULTS: Data of the following tumor-extent parameters were extracted: anterior eye segment involvement and ciliary body, optic nerve, choroidal, and (extra)scleral invasion. Articles on MRI reported results of 591 eyes from 14 studies, and articles on CT yielded 257 eyes from 4 studies. The summary estimates with their 95% confidence intervals (CIs) of the diagnostic accuracy of conventional MRI at detecting postlaminar optic nerve, choroidal, and scleral invasion showed sensitivities of 59% (95% CI, 37%-78%), 74% (95% CI, 52%-88%), and 88% (95% CI, 20%-100%), respectively, and specificities of 94% (95% CI, 84%-98%), 72% (95% CI, 31%-94%), and 99% (95% CI, 86%-100%), respectively. Magnetic resonance imaging with a high (versus a low) image quality showed higher diagnostic accuracies for detection of prelaminar optic nerve and choroidal invasion, but these differences were not statistically significant. Studies reporting the diagnostic accuracy of CT did not provide enough data to perform any meta-analyses. CONCLUSIONS: Magnetic resonance imaging is an important diagnostic tool for the detection of local tumor extent in advanced retinoblastoma, although its diagnostic accuracy shows room for improvement, especially with regard to sensitivity. With only a few-mostly old-studies, there is very little evidence on the diagnostic accuracy of CT, and generally these studies show low diagnostic accuracy. Future studies assessing the role of MRI in clinical decision making in terms of prognostic value for advanced retinoblastoma are needed.