Lack of extended venous thromboembolism prophylaxis in high-risk patients undergoing major orthopaedic or major cancer surgery. Electronic Assessment of VTE Prophylaxis in High-Risk Surgical Patients at Discharge from Swiss Hospitals (ESSENTIAL).

Extended pharmacological venous thromboembolism (VTE) prophylaxis beyond discharge is recommended for patients undergoing high-risk surgery. We prospectively investigated prophylaxis in 1,046 consecutive patients undergoing major orthopaedic (70%) or major cancer surgery (30%) in 14 Swiss hospitals. Appropriate in-hospital prophylaxis was used in 1,003 (96%) patients. At discharge, 638 (61%) patients received prescription for extended pharmacological prophylaxis: 564 (77%) after orthopaedic surgery, and 74 (23%) after cancer surgery (p < 0.001). Patients with knee replacement (94%), hip replacement (81%), major trauma (80%), and curative arthroscopy (73%) had the highest prescription rates for extended VTE prophylaxis; the lowest rates were found in patients undergoing major surgery for thoracic (7%), gastrointestinal (19%), and hepatobiliary (33%) cancer. The median duration of prescribed extended prophylaxis was longer in patients with orthopaedic surgery (32 days, interquartile range 14-40 days) than in patients with cancer surgery (23 days, interquartile range 11-30 days; p<0.001). Among the 278 patients with an extended prophylaxis order after hip replacement, knee replacement, or hip fracture surgery, 120 (43%) received a prescription for at least 35 days, and among the 74 patients with an extended prophylaxis order after major cancer surgery, 20 (27%) received a prescription for at least 28 days. In conclusion, approximately one quarter of the patients with major orthopaedic surgery and more than three quarters of the patients with major cancer surgery did not receive prescription for extended VTE prophylaxis. Future effort should focus on the improvement of extended VTE prophylaxis, particularly in patients undergoing major cancer surgery.

The fate and persistence of Leishmania major in mice of different genetic backgrounds: an example of exploitation of the immune system by intracellular parasites.

Leishmania spp. are intracellular protozoan parasites that are delivered within the dermis of their vertebrate hosts. Within this peripheral tissue and the draining lymph node, they find and/or rapidly create dynamic microenvironments that determine their ultimate fate, namely their more or less successful expansion, and favour their transmission to another vertebrate host though a blood-feeding vector. Depending on their genetic characteristics as well as the genetic make-up of their hosts, once within the dermis Leishmania spp. very rapidly drive and maintain sustained T cell-dependent immune responses that arbitrate their ultimate fate within their hosts. The analysis of the parasitism exerted by Leishmania major in mice of different genetic backgrounds has allowed us to recognize some of the early and late mechanisms driven by this parasite that lead to either uncontrolled or restricted parasitism. Uncontrolled parasitism by Leishmania major characterizing mice from a few inbred strains (e.g. BALB/c) is associated with the expansion of parasite reactive Th2 CD4 lymphocytes and results from their rapid and sustained activity. In contrast, restricted parasitism characteristic of mice from the majority of inbred strains results from the development of a polarized parasite-specific Th1 CD4 response. This murine model of infection has already been and will continue to be particularly instrumental in dissecting the rules controlling the pathway of differentiation of T cells in vivo. In the long run, the understanding of these rules should contribute to the rational development of novel immunotherapeutic interventions against severe infectious diseases.

Magmatic fluids in the Breccia-hosted epithermal Au-Ag deposit of Rosia Montana, Romania

The breccia-hosted epithermal Au-Ag deposit of Rosia Montana is located 7 kin northeast of Abrud, in the northern part of the South Apuseni Mountains, Romania. Estimated total reserves of 214.91 million metric toils (Mt) of ore at 1.46 g/t An and 6.9 g/t Ag (10.1 Moz of An and 47.6 Moz of Ag) make Rosia Montana one of the largest gold deposits in Europe. At this location, Miocene calc-alkaline magmatic and hydrothermal activity was associated with local extensional tectonics within a strike-slip regime related to the indentation of the Adriatic microplate into the European plate during the Carpathian orogenesis. The host rocks of the magmatic complex consist of pre-Mesozoic metamorphosed continental crust covered by Cretaceous turbiditic sediment (flysch). Magmatic activity at Rosia Montana and its surroundings occurred in several pulses and lasted about 7 m.y, Rosia Montana is a breccia-hosted epithermal system related to strong phreatomagmatic activity due to the shallow emplacement of the Montana dacite. The Montana dacite intruded Miocene volcaniclastic material (volcaniclastic breccias) and crops out at Cetate and Carnic Hills. Current mining is focused primarily on the Cetate open pit, which was mapped in detail, leading to the recognition of three distinct breccia bodies: the dacite breccia with a dominantly hydrothermal matrix, the gray polymict breccia with a greater proportion of sand-sized matrix support, and the black polymict breccia, which reached to the surface, contains carbonized tree trunks and has a dominantly barren elastic matrix. The hydrothermal alteration is pervasive. Adularia alteration with a phyllic overprint is ubiquitous; silicification and argillic alteration occur locally. Mineralization consists of quartz, adularia, carbonates (commonly Mn-rich), pyrite, Fe-poor sphalerite, galena, chalcopyrite, tetrahedrite, and native gold and occurs as disseminations, as well as in veins and filling vugs within the Montana dacite and the different breccias. The age of mineralization (12.85 +/- 0.07 Ma) was determined by Ar-40- Ar-39 dating on hydrothermal adularia crystals from vugs in the dacite breccia in the Cetate open pit. Microthermometric measurements of fluid inclusions in quartz phenocrysts from the Montana dacite revealed two fluid types that are absent from the hydrothermal breccia and must have been trapped at depth prior to dacite dome emplacement: brine inclusions (32-55 -wt % NaCl equiv, homogenizing at T-h > 460 degrees C) and intermediate density fluids (4.9-15.6 wt % NaCl equiv, T, between 345 degrees-430 degrees C). Secondary aqueous fluid inclusion assemblages in the phenocrysts have salinities of 0.2 to 2.2 wt percent NaCl equiv and T-h of 200 degrees to 280 degrees C. Fluid inclusion assemblages in hydrothermal quartz from breccias and veins have salinities of 0.2 to 3.4 wt percent NaCl equiv and T-h, from 200 degrees to 270 degrees C. The oxygen isotope composition of several zones of an ore-related epithermal quartz crystal indicate a very constant delta O-18 of 4.5 to 5.0 per mil for the mineralizing fluid, despite significant salinity and temperature variation over time. Following microthermometry, selected fluid inclusion assemblages were analyzed by laser ablation-inductively coupled-plasma mass spectrometry (LA-ICMS). Despite systematic differences in salinity between phenocryst-hosted fluids trapped at depth and fluids from quartz in the epithermal breccias, all fluids have overlapping major and trace cation ratios, including identical Na/K/Rb/Sr/Cs/Ba. Consistent with the constant near-magmatic oxygen isotope composition of the hydrothermal fluids, these data strongly indicate a common magmatic component of these chemically conservative solutes in all fluids. Cu, Pb, Zn, and Mn show variations in concentration relative to the relatively non-reactive alkalis, reflecting the precipitation of sulfide minerals together with An in the epithermal breccia, and possibly of Cu in an inferred subjacent porphyry environment. The magmatic-hydrothermal processes responsible for epithermal Au-Ag mineralization at Rosia Montana are, however, not directly related to the formation of the spatially associated porphyry Cu-Au deposit of Rosia Poieni, which occurred lout 3 m.y. later.

The MyD88 protein 88 pathway is differently involved in immune responses induced by distinct substrains of Leishmania major.

Host resistance to Leishmania major is highly dependent on the development of a Th1 immune response. The TLR adaptator myeloid differentiation protein 88 (MyD88) has been implicated in the Th1 immune response associated with the resistant phenotype observed in C57BL/6 mice after infection with L. major. To investigate whether the MyD88 pathway is differentially used by distinct substrains of parasites, MyD88(-/-) C57BL/6 mice were infected with two substrains of L. major, namely L. major LV39 and L. major IR75. MyD88(-/-) mice were susceptible to both substrains of L. major, although with different kinetics of infection. The mechanisms involved during the immune response associated with susceptibility of MyD88(-/-) mice to L. major is however, parasite substrain-dependent. Susceptibility of MyD88(-/-) mice infected with L. major IR75 is a consequence of Th2 immune-deviation, whereas susceptibility of MyD88(-/-) mice to infection with L. major LV39 resulted from an impaired Th1 response. Depletion of regulatory T cells (Treg) partially restored IFN-gamma secretion and the Th1 immune response in MyD88(-/-) mice infected with L. major LV39, demonstrating a role of Treg activity in the development of an impaired Th1 response in these mice.

Processing of metacaspase into a cytoplasmic catalytic domain mediating cell death in Leishmania major.

Metacaspases are cysteine peptidases that could play a role similar to caspases in the cell death programme of plants, fungi and protozoa. The human protozoan parasite Leishmania major expresses a single metacaspase (LmjMCA) harbouring a central domain with the catalytic dyad histidine and cysteine as found in caspases. In this study, we investigated the processing sites important for the maturation of LmjMCA catalytic domain, the cellular localization of LmjMCA polypeptides, and the functional role of the catalytic domain in the cell death pathway of Leishmania parasites. Although LmjMCA polypeptide precursor form harbours a functional mitochondrial localization signal (MLS), we determined that LmjMCA polypeptides are mainly localized in the cytoplasm. In stress conditions, LmjMCA precursor forms were extensively processed into soluble forms containing the catalytic domain. This domain was sufficient to enhance sensitivity of parasites to hydrogen peroxide by impairing the mitochondrion. These data provide experimental evidences of the importance of LmjMCA processing into an active catalytic domain and of its role in disrupting mitochondria, which could be relevant in the design of new drugs to fight leishmaniasis and likely other protozoan parasitic diseases.

Measurement of the whole body clearance of infused glycerol as a test of liver function after major hepatectomy.

Major liver resection can be used in the treatment of liver cancer. The functional capacity of liver parenchyma needs to be evaluated preoperatively because it conditions the outcome. We assessed whether the whole body clearance of glycerol, a substrate essentially metabolized in liver cells, may be suitable as a simple test of liver function. Seven patients after major hepatectomy, six patients after colectomy and 12 healthy subjects were studied. Patients were investigated on the first day after surgery. All participants were studied during a 150-min basal period followed by a 120-min infusion of 16 mumol kg-1 min-1 13C-labelled glycerol. Whole body glycerol clearance was calculated from the change in plasma glycerol concentration. Whole body glucose production was measured with 6,6 2H2 glucose infused as a tracer in the basal state and during glycerol infusion. In addition, 13C glucose synthesis was monitored to quantitate gluconeogenesis from glycerol. Patients after liver resection had higher plasma glycerol concentrations and lower whole body glycerol clearance than healthy subjects and patients after colectomy. They also had higher plasma glucagon concentrations. Their fasting glucose production was mildly elevated in the fasting state and did not change after glycerol infusion, indicating a normal hepatic autoregulation of glucose production. These results indicate that whole body glycerol clearance can be simply determined from plasma glycerol concentrations during exogenous glycerol infusion. It is significantly reduced in patients after major hepatectomy, suggesting that it constitutes a sensitive test of hepatic function. Its use as a preoperative testing procedure remains to be evaluated.

Contribution of major cardiovascular risk factors to familial premature coronary artery disease : the GENECARD project

Résumé: Objectifs: Cette étude relève la prévalence des principaux facteurs de risque cardiovasculaire dans les coronaropathies précoces (P-CAD) familiales, survenant chez au moins deux frères et/ou soeurs d'une même fratrie. Méthodes: Nous avons recruté 213 survivants atteints de P-CAD, issus de 103 fratries, diagnostiqués avant l'âge de 50 ans chez les hommes et 55 ans chez les femmes. La présence ou non d'hypertension, d'hypercholestérolémie, d'obésité et de tabagisme a été documentée au moment de l'événement chez 163 de ces patients (145 hommes et 18 femmes). Chaque patient a été comparé à deux individus de même âge et sexe, chez qui un diagnostic de P-CAD «sporadique» (non familiale) était posé, et à trois individus choisis au hasard parmi la population générale. Résultats: En comparaison de la population générale, les patients atteints de P-CAD sporadique avaient une prévalence supérieure pour 1 'hypertension (29% vs. 14%, p<0.001), le cholestérol (54% vs. 33%, p<0.001), l'obésité (20% vs. 13%, p<0.001) et le tabagisme (76% vs. 39%, p<0.001). Ces facteurs de risque étaient de prévalences similaires, voire supérieures chez les patients atteints de P-CAD familiale (43% [p<0.05 vs. P-CAD sporadiques], 58% [p=0.07], 21% et 72%) respectivement). Seulement 7 (4%) des 163 patients atteints de P-CAD familiale et 22 (7%) des 326 patients atteints de P-CAD sporadique, ne présentaient aucun facteur de risque cardiovasculaire, comparés à 167 (34%) des 489 patients issus de la population générale. Conclusions: Les facteurs de risque cardiovasculaire classiques et réversibles ont une haute prévalence chez les patients atteints de P-CAD familiale. Ce fait rend improbable une contribution génétique prédominante, agissant en l'absence de facteurs de risque. Abstract: Objectives: This study was designed to assess the prevalence of major cardiovascular risk factors in familial premature coronary artery disease (P-CAD), affecting two or more siblings within one sibship. Background: Premature CAD has a genetic component. It remains to be established whether familial P-CAD is due to genes acting independently from major cardiovascular risk factors. Methods: We recruited 213 P-CAD survivors from 103 sibships diagnosed before age ?50 (men) or ?55 (women) years old. Hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, obesity, and smoking were documented at the time of the event in 163 patients (145 men and 18 women). Each patient was compared with two individuals of the same age and gender, diagnosed with sporadic (nonfamilial) P-CAD, and three individuals randomly sampled from the general population. Results: Compared with the general population, patients with sporadic P-CAD had a higher prevalence of hypertension (29% vs. 14%, p < 0.001), hypercholesterolemia (54% vs. 33%, p < 0.001), obesity (20% vs. 13%, p < 0.001), and smoking (76% vs. 39%, p < 0.001). These risk factors were equally or even more prevalent in patients with familial P-CAD (43% [p < 0.05 vs. sporadic P-CAD], 58% [p = 0.07], 21% and 72%, respectively). Overall, only 7 (4%) of 163 of patients with familial P-CAD and 22 (7%) of 326 of patients with sporadic P-CAD had none of these conditions, as compared with 167 (34%) of 489 patients in the general population. Conclusions: Classic, remediable risk factors are highly prevalent in patients with familial P-CAD. Accordingly, a major contribution of genes acting in the absence of these risk factors is unlikely

An essential role for transmembrane TNF in the resolution of the inflammatory lesion induced by Leishmania major infection.

TNF is an essential player in infections with Leishmania major, contributing to the control of the inflammatory lesion and, to a lesser degree, to parasite killing. However, the relative contribution of the soluble and transmembrane forms of TNF in these processes is unknown. To investigate the role of transmembrane TNF (mTNF) in the control of L. major infections, mTNF-knock-in (mTNF(Delta/Delta)) mice, which express functional mTNF but do not release soluble TNF, were infected with L. major, and the development of the inflammatory lesion and the immune response was compared to that occurring in L. major-infected TNF(-/-) and wild-type mice. mTNF(Delta/Delta) mice controlled the infection and resolved their inflammatory lesion as well as wild-type mice, a process associated with the early clearance of neutrophils at the site of parasite infection. In contrast, L. major-infected TNF(-/-) mice developed non-healing lesions, characterized by an elevated presence of neutrophils at the site of infection and partial control of parasite number within the lesions. Altogether, the results presented here demonstrate that mTNF, in absence of soluble TNF, is sufficient to control infection due to L. major, enabling the regulation of inflammation, and the optimal killing of Leishmania parasites at the site of infection.

The fusion protein of wild-type canine distemper virus is a major determinant of persistent infection.

The wild-type A75/17 canine distemper virus (CDV) strain induces a persistent infection in the central nervous system but infects cell lines very inefficiently. In contrast, the genetically more distant Onderstepoort CDV vaccine strain (OP-CDV) induces extensive syncytia formation. Here, we investigated the roles of wild-type fusion (F(WT)) and attachment (H(WT)) proteins in Vero cells expressing, or not, the canine SLAM receptor by transfection experiments and by studying recombinants viruses expressing different combinations of wild-type and OP-CDV glycoproteins. We show that low fusogenicity is not due to a defect of the envelope proteins to reach the cell surface and that H(WT) determines persistent infection in a receptor-dependent manner, emphasizing the role of SLAM as a potent enhancer of fusogenicity. However, importantly, F(WT) reduced cell-to-cell fusion independently of the cell surface receptor, thus demonstrating that the fusion protein of the neurovirulent A75/17-CDV strain plays a key role in determining persistent infection.

The early IL-4 response to Leishmania major responsible for progressive disease in BALB/c mice is subject to the control of autocrine IL-2 production and regulatory CD4+C25+ T cells

Résumé : La majorité des souches de souris de laboratoire sont résistantes à l'infection par le parasite Leishmania major (L. major). A l'opposé, les souris de la souche BALB développent une maladie évolutive. La résistance et la sensibilité sont corrélées avec l'apparition de lymphocytes T CD4+ spécifiques du parasite, Th1 (de l'anglais T helper) ou Th2 respectivement. La réponse aberrante Th2 chez les souris de la souche BALB/c dépend, au moins en partie, de façon critique de la production rapide d'IL-4 suite à l'infection. Ce pic précoce d'IL-4 est produit par une population de lymphocytes T CD4+ restreinte aux molécules du MHC de classe II, exprimant les chaînes du récepteur des cellules T Vß4-Va8. Ces lymphocytes sont spécifiques d'un épitope de l'homologue Leishmania de la molécule RACK1 des mammifères, appelée LACK. Il a été clairement démontré que l'IL-4 rapidement produite par ces cellules T CD4+ Vß4-Va8 induit la maturation Th2 responsable de la sensibilité vis-à-vis de L. major. Des expériences ont été entreprises pour étudier la régulation de cette réponse précoce d'IL-4. Dans ce travail, nous avons documenté, dans les cellules provenant des ganglions de souris sensibles infectées par L. major, une augmentation de la transcription de l'ARNm de l'IL-2 qui précède la réponse précoce d'IL-4. La neutralisation de l'IL-2 durant les premiers jours d'infection induit la maturation des cellules Thl et la résistance vis-à-vis de L. major. Ces effets de l'anticorps anti-IL-2 neutralisant sont liés à sa capacité d'interférer avec la transcription rapide d'IL-4 des cellules CD4+ réactives à l'antigène LACK. Une augmentation similaire d'IL-2 survient chez les souris résistantes C57BL/6 qui sont incapables de générer la réponse précoce d'IL-4. Cependant, la protéiné LACK induit une transcription précoce d'IL-2 uniquement chez les souris sensibles. Des expériences de reconstitution utilisant des souris C.B.-17 SCID et des cellules T CD4+ réactives à LACK provenant de souris BALB/c IL-2-~démontrent un mode d'action autocrine de l'IL-2 sur la régulation de la réponse précoce d'IL4. Par conséquent, chez les souris C57BL/6, l'absence du pic précoce d'ARNm de l'IL-4 important pour la progression de la maladie paraît liée à l'incapacité des cellules T CD4+ réactives à LACK de produire de l'IL-2. Un rôle dans le contrôle de la production précoce d'IL-4 par les cellules T régulatrices CD4+CD25+ a été investigué en déplétant in vivo cette population de cellules. La déplétion induit une élévation du pic précoce de l'ARNm de l'IL-4 dans les ganglions drainant de souris BALB/c, ainsi qu'une exacerbation du cours de la maladie avec des taux augmentés d'IL-4 dans les ganglions. La réponse rapide d'IL-2 vis-à-vis de L. major est aussi significativement augmentée chez les souris BALB/c déplétées en cellules CD4+CD25+. De plus, nous avons démontré que le transfert de 10puissance(7) cellules provenant de la rate de souris BALB/c déplétées en cellules T régulatrices CD4+CD25+ rend les souris SCID sensibles à l'infection et permet la différentiation Th2. Au contraire, les souris SCID reconstituées avec 10' cellules de la rate de souris BALB/c contrôle sont résistantes à infection par L. major et développent une réponse Thl. Chez les souris SCID reconstituées avec des cellules de rate déplétées en cellules exprimant le marqueur CD25, le traitement avec un anticorps neutralisant l'IL-4 au moment de l'infection par L. major prévient le développement de la réponse Th2 et rend ces souris résistantes à l'infection. Ces résultats démontrent que les cellules T régulatrices CD4+CD25+ jouent un rôle dans la régulation du pic précoce d'IL-4 responsable du développement cellulaire Th2 dans ce modèle d'infection. Summary Mice from most strains are resistant to infection with Leishmania major (L. major). In contrast, BALB mice develop progressive disease. Resistance and susceptibility result from parasite-specific CD4+ Thl or Th2 cells, respectively. The aberrant Th2 response in BALB/c mice depends, at least in part, upon the production of IL-4 early after infection. The CD4+ T cells responsible for this early IL-4 response to L. major express a restricted TCR repertoire (Vß4-Va8) and respond to an I-Ad-restricted epitope of the Leishmania homologue of mammalian RACK1, designated LACK. The role of these cells and the IL-4 they produce for subsequent Th2 cell development and disease progression in BALB/c mice was demonstrated. Experiments have been undertaken to study the regulation of the rapid IL-4 production to L. major. In this report, we document an IL-2 mRNA burst, preceding the reported early IL-4 response, in draining lymph nodes of susceptible mice infected with L. major. Neutralization of IL-2 during the first days of infection redirected Thl cell maturation and resistance to L. major, through interference with the rapid IL-4 transcription in LACKreactive CD4+ cells. A burst of IL-2 transcripts also occurred in infected C57BL/6 mice that do not mount an early IL-4 response. However, although the LACK protein induced IL-2 transcripts in susceptible mice, it failed to trigger this response in resistant C57BL/6 mice. Reconstitution experiments using C.B.-17 SCID mice and LACK-reactive CD4+ T cells from IL-2-/- BALB/c mice showed that triggering of the early IL-4 response required autocrine IL2. Thus, in C57BL/6 mice, the inability of LACK-reactive CD4+ T cells to express early IL-4 mRNA transcription, important for disease progression, appears due to an incapacity of these cells to produce IL-2. A role for CD4+CD25+ regulatory T cells in the control of this early IL-4 production was investigated by depleting in vivo this regulatory T cell population. Depletion induced an increase in the early burst of IL-4 mRNA in the draining lymph nodes of BALB/c mice, and exacerbated the course of disease with higher levels of IL-4 mRNA and protein in their lymph nodes. The rapid IL-2 response to L. major is also significantly enhanced in BALB/c mice depleted of CD4+CD25+ cells. We further showed that transfer of 10~ BALB/c spleen cells that were depleted of CD4+CD25+ regulatory T cells rendered SCID mice susceptible to infection and allowed Th2 differentiation while SCID mice reconstituted with 10 control BALB/c spleen cells were resistant to infection with L. major and developed a Thl response. Treatment with a mAb against IL-4 upon infection with L. major in SCID mice reconstituted with CD25-depleted spleen cells prevented the development of Th2 polarization and rendered them resistant to infection. These results demonstrate that CD4+CD25+ regulatory T cells play a role in regulating the early IL-4 mRNA and the subsequent development of a Th2 response in this model of infection.

Rapid LC-MS/MS quantification of the major benzodiazepines and their metabolites on dried blood spots using a simple and cost-effective sample pretreatment.

BACKGROUND: Dried blood spots (DBS) sampling has gained popularity in the bioanalytical community as an alternative to conventional plasma sampling, as it provides numerous benefits in terms of sample collection and logistics. The aim of this work was to show that these advantages can be coupled with a simple and cost-effective sample pretreatment, with subsequent rapid LC-MS/MS analysis for quantitation of 15 benzodiazepines, six metabolites and three Z-drugs. For this purpose, a simplified offline procedure was developed that consisted of letting a 5-µl DBS infuse directly into 100 µl of MeOH, in a conventional LC vial. RESULTS: The parameters related to the DBS pretreatment, such as extraction time or internal standard addition, were investigated and optimized, demonstrating that passive infusion in a regular LC vial was sufficient to quantitatively extract the analytes of interest. The method was validated according to international criteria in the therapeutic concentration ranges of the selected compounds. CONCLUSION: The presented strategy proved to be efficient for the rapid analysis of the selected drugs. Indeed, the offline sample preparation was reduced to a minimum, using a small amount of organic solvent and consumables, without affecting the accuracy of the method. Thus, this approach enables simple and rapid DBS analysis, even when using a non-DBS-dedicated autosampler, while lowering the costs and environmental impact.

Valproic acid monotherapy in pregnancy and major congenital malformations.

BACKGROUND: The use of valproic acid in the first trimester of pregnancy is associated with an increased risk of spina bifida, but data on the risks of other congenital malformations are limited. METHODS: We first combined data from eight published cohort studies (1565 pregnancies in which the women were exposed to valproic acid, among which 118 major malformations were observed) and identified 14 malformations that were significantly more common among the offspring of women who had received valproic acid during the first trimester. We then assessed the associations between use of valproic acid during the first trimester and these 14 malformations by performing a case-control study with the use of the European Surveillance of Congenital Anomalies (EUROCAT) antiepileptic-study database, which is derived from population-based congenital-anomaly registries. Registrations (i.e., pregnancy outcomes with malformations included in EUROCAT) with any of these 14 malformations were compared with two control groups, one consisting of infants with malformations not previously linked to valproic acid use (control group 1), and one consisting of infants with chromosomal abnormalities (control group 2). The data set included 98,075 live births, stillbirths, or terminations with malformations among 3.8 million births in 14 European countries from 1995 through 2005. RESULTS: Exposure to valproic acid monotherapy was recorded for a total of 180 registrations, with 122 registrations in the case group, 45 in control group 1, and 13 in control group 2. As compared with no use of an antiepileptic drug during the first trimester (control group 1), use of valproic acid monotherapy was associated with significantly increased risks for 6 of the 14 malformations under consideration; the adjusted odds ratios were as follows: spina bifida, 12.7 (95% confidence interval [CI], 7.7 to 20.7); atrial septal defect, 2.5 (95% CI, 1.4 to 4.4); cleft palate, 5.2 (95% CI, 2.8 to 9.9); hypospadias, 4.8 (95% CI, 2.9 to 8.1); polydactyly, 2.2 (95% CI, 1.0 to 4.5); and craniosynostosis, 6.8 (95% CI, 1.8 to 18.8). Results for exposure to valproic acid were similar to results for exposure to other antiepileptic drugs. CONCLUSIONS: The use of valproic acid monotherapy in the first trimester was associated with significantly increased risks of several congenital malformations, as compared with no use of antiepileptic drugs or with use of other antiepileptic drugs.