179 resultados para Key-value store
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We tested whether individuals can exert control over the expression of attitudinal ambivalence and if this control is exerted with self-presentational concerns. Using the self-presentation paradigm, participants reported more ambivalence about Genetically Modified Organisms ("GMO") in a standard and a self-enhancement (present yourself positively) conditions than in a self-depreciation (present yourself negatively) condition, on both felt (Experiments 1a and 2a) and potential ambivalence, in its cognitive (Experiments 1b and 2b) and affective components (Experiments 1b and 2c). The role of ambivalent attitudes in conveying a positive social value was confirmed by the fact that the above effect was found on a controversial attitude object (GMOs) but the opposite appeared on a non-controversial one (e.g. tooth brushing, a truism; Experiment 3). Such a reversal was obtained by directly manipulating the perception of controversy on GMOs (Experiment 4). Attitudinal ambivalence may thus serve an adaptive function, i.e. achieving a positive social value.
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OBJECTIVE: To evaluate the power of various parameters of the vestibulo-ocular reflex (VOR) in detecting unilateral peripheral vestibular dysfunction and in characterizing certain inner ear pathologies. STUDY DESIGN: Prospective study of consecutive ambulatory patients presenting with acute onset of peripheral vertigo and spontaneous nystagmus. SETTING: Tertiary referral center. PATIENTS: Seventy-four patients (40 females, 34 males) and 22 normal subjects (11 females, 11 males) were included in the study. Patients were classified in three main diagnoses: vestibular neuritis: 40; viral labyrinthitis: 22; Meniere's disease: 12. METHODS: The VOR function was evaluated by standard caloric and impulse rotary tests (velocity step). A mathematical model of vestibular function was used to characterize the VOR response to rotational stimulation. The diagnostic value of the different VOR parameters was assessed by uni- and multivariable logistic regression. RESULTS: In univariable analysis, caloric asymmetry emerged as the most powerful VOR parameter in identifying unilateral vestibular deficit, with a boundary limit set at 20%. In multivariable analysis, the combination of caloric asymmetry and rotational time constant asymmetry significantly improved the discriminatory power over caloric alone (p<0.0001) and produced a detection score with a correct classification of 92.4%. In discriminating labyrinthine diseases, different combinations of the VOR parameters were obtained for each diagnosis (p<0.003) supporting that the VOR characteristics differ between the three inner ear disorders. However, the clinical usefulness of these characteristics in separating the pathologies was limited. CONCLUSION: We propose a powerful logistic model combining the indices of caloric and time constant asymmetries to detect a peripheral vestibular loss, with an accuracy of 92.4%. Based on vestibular data only, the discrimination between the different inner ear diseases is statistically possible, which supports different pathophysiologic changes in labyrinthine pathologies.
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Background and aim of the study: Genomic gains and losses play a crucial role in the development and progression of DLBCL and are closely related to gene expression profiles (GEP), including the germinal center B-cell like (GCB) and activated B-cell like (ABC) cell of origin (COO) molecular signatures. To identify new oncogenes or tumor suppressor genes (TSG) involved in DLBCL pathogenesis and to determine their prognostic values, an integrated analysis of high-resolution gene expression and copy number profiling was performed. Patients and methods: Two hundred and eight adult patients with de novo CD20+ DLBCL enrolled in the prospective multicentric randomized LNH-03 GELA trials (LNH03-1B, -2B, -3B, 39B, -5B, -6B, -7B) with available frozen tumour samples, centralized reviewing and adequate DNA/RNA quality were selected. 116 patients were treated by Rituximab(R)-CHOP/R-miniCHOP and 92 patients were treated by the high dose (R)-ACVBP regimen dedicated to patients younger than 60 years (y) in frontline. Tumour samples were simultaneously analysed by high resolution comparative genomic hybridization (CGH, Agilent, 144K) and gene expression arrays (Affymetrix, U133+2). Minimal common regions (MCR), as defined by segments that affect the same chromosomal region in different cases, were delineated. Gene expression and MCR data sets were merged using Gene expression and dosage integrator algorithm (GEDI, Lenz et al. PNAS 2008) to identify new potential driver genes. Results: A total of 1363 recurrent (defined by a penetrance > 5%) MCRs within the DLBCL data set, ranging in size from 386 bp, affecting a single gene, to more than 24 Mb were identified by CGH. Of these MCRs, 756 (55%) showed a significant association with gene expression: 396 (59%) gains, 354 (52%) single-copy deletions, and 6 (67%) homozygous deletions. By this integrated approach, in addition to previously reported genes (CDKN2A/2B, PTEN, DLEU2, TNFAIP3, B2M, CD58, TNFRSF14, FOXP1, REL...), several genes targeted by gene copy abnormalities with a dosage effect and potential physiopathological impact were identified, including genes with TSG activity involved in cell cycle (HACE1, CDKN2C) immune response (CD68, CD177, CD70, TNFSF9, IRAK2), DNA integrity (XRCC2, BRCA1, NCOR1, NF1, FHIT) or oncogenic functions (CD79b, PTPRT, MALT1, AUTS2, MCL1, PTTG1...) with distinct distribution according to COO signature. The CDKN2A/2B tumor suppressor locus (9p21) was deleted homozygously in 27% of cases and hemizygously in 9% of cases. Biallelic loss was observed in 49% of ABC DLBCL and in 10% of GCB DLBCL. This deletion was strongly correlated to age and associated to a limited number of additional genetic abnormalities including trisomy 3, 18 and short gains/losses of Chr. 1, 2, 19 regions (FDR < 0.01), allowing to identify genes that may have synergistic effects with CDKN2A/2B inactivation. With a median follow-up of 42.9 months, only CDKN2A/2B biallelic deletion strongly correlates (FDR p.value < 0.01) to a poor outcome in the entire cohort (4y PFS = 44% [32-61] respectively vs. 74% [66-82] for patients in germline configuration; 4y OS = 53% [39-72] vs 83% [76-90]). In a Cox proportional hazard prediction of the PFS, CDKN2A/2B deletion remains predictive (HR = 1.9 [1.1-3.2], p = 0.02) when combined with IPI (HR = 2.4 [1.4-4.1], p = 0.001) and GCB status (HR = 1.3 [0.8-2.3], p = 0.31). This difference remains predictive in the subgroup of patients treated by R-CHOP (4y PFS = 43% [29-63] vs. 66% [55-78], p=0.02), in patients treated by R-ACVBP (4y PFS = 49% [28-84] vs. 83% [74-92], p=0.003), and in GCB (4y PFS = 50% [27-93] vs. 81% [73-90], p=0.02), or ABC/unclassified (5y PFS = 42% [28-61] vs. 67% [55-82] p = 0.009) molecular subtypes (Figure 1). Conclusion: We report for the first time an integrated genetic analysis of a large cohort of DLBCL patients included in a prospective multicentric clinical trial program allowing identifying new potential driver genes with pathogenic impact. However CDKN2A/2B deletion constitutes the strongest and unique prognostic factor of chemoresistance to R-CHOP, regardless the COO signature, which is not overcome by a more intensified immunochemotherapy. Patients displaying this frequent genomic abnormality warrant new and dedicated therapeutic approaches.
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Primary tumor growth induces host tissue responses that are believed to support and promote tumor progression. Identification of the molecular characteristics of the tumor microenvironment and elucidation of its crosstalk with tumor cells may therefore be crucial for improving our understanding of the processes implicated in cancer progression, identifying potential therapeutic targets, and uncovering stromal gene expression signatures that may predict clinical outcome. A key issue to resolve, therefore, is whether the stromal response to tumor growth is largely a generic phenomenon, irrespective of the tumor type or whether the response reflects tumor-specific properties. To address similarity or distinction of stromal gene expression changes during cancer progression, oligonucleotide-based Affymetrix microarray technology was used to compare the transcriptomes of laser-microdissected stromal cells derived from invasive human breast and prostate carcinoma. Invasive breast and prostate cancer-associated stroma was observed to display distinct transcriptomes, with a limited number of shared genes. Interestingly, both breast and prostate tumor-specific dysregulated stromal genes were observed to cluster breast and prostate cancer patients, respectively, into two distinct groups with statistically different clinical outcomes. By contrast, a gene signature that was common to the reactive stroma of both tumor types did not have survival predictive value. Univariate Cox analysis identified genes whose expression level was most strongly associated with patient survival. Taken together, these observations suggest that the tumor microenvironment displays distinct features according to the tumor type that provides survival-predictive value.
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PURPOSE: To determine the role of Indocyanin Green (ICG) angiography in localizing occult new vessels associated with age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) and assess the possibilities of ICG guided laser photocoagulations. PATIENTS AND METHODS: Fluorescein and ICG angiographies (IMAGEnet system) of 62 patients with occult new vessels (ONV), serous (SPED) or vascular (VPED) pigment epithelium detachment have been studied. RESULTS: Based on fondoscopic examination and fluorescein angiography, 43 eyes (69%) disclosed ONV, 8 (13%) SPED and 11 (18%) VPED. Choroidal neovascularisation was confirmed by ICG angiography in 37 ONV cases (86%), in 8 (72%) VPED cases, but in no SPED. Conversion of ONV in classical neovascular membranes was possible in 19 ONV cases (44%) and in 6 (54%) VPED cases, making a laser photocoagulation possible in 9 eyes (36%). CONCLUSION: ICG angiography plays an important role in the evaluation, classification and laser treatment of patients with ONV secondary to ARMD.
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OBJECTIVE: Best long-term practice in primary HIV-1 infection (PHI) remains unknown for the individual. A risk-based scoring system associated with surrogate markers of HIV-1 disease progression could be helpful to stratify patients with PHI at highest risk for HIV-1 disease progression. METHODS: We prospectively enrolled 290 individuals with well-documented PHI in the Zurich Primary HIV-1 Infection Study, an open-label, non-randomized, observational, single-center study. Patients could choose to undergo early antiretroviral treatment (eART) and stop it after one year of undetectable viremia, to go on with treatment indefinitely, or to defer treatment. For each patient we calculated an a priori defined "Acute Retroviral Syndrome Severity Score" (ARSSS), consisting of clinical and basic laboratory variables, ranging from zero to ten points. We used linear regression models to assess the association between ARSSS and log baseline viral load (VL), baseline CD4+ cell count, and log viral setpoint (sVL) (i.e. VL measured ≥90 days after infection or treatment interruption). RESULTS: Mean ARSSS was 2.89. CD4+ cell count at baseline was negatively correlated with ARSSS (p = 0.03, n = 289), whereas HIV-RNA levels at baseline showed a strong positive correlation with ARSSS (p<0.001, n = 290). In the regression models, a 1-point increase in the score corresponded to a 0.10 log increase in baseline VL and a CD4+cell count decline of 12/µl, respectively. In patients with PHI and not undergoing eART, higher ARSSS were significantly associated with higher sVL (p = 0.029, n = 64). In contrast, in patients undergoing eART with subsequent structured treatment interruption, no correlation was found between sVL and ARSSS (p = 0.28, n = 40). CONCLUSION: The ARSSS is a simple clinical score that correlates with the best-validated surrogate markers of HIV-1 disease progression. In regions where ART is not universally available and eART is not standard this score may help identifying patients who will profit the most from early antiretroviral therapy.
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Purpose: To evaluate the diagnostic value of specific MR features for detection of suspected placental invasion according to observers' experience.Methods and Materials: Our study population included 25 pregnant women (mean age 35.16) investigated by prenatal MRI. In twelve out of them placental invasion was histopathologically proven, the 13 other women (52%) without placental invasion served as control group. Multiplanar T1- and T2-weighted sequences had been performed mostly without IV contrast injection (1.5 T). MR examinations of the two groups were rendered anonymous, mixed, then independently and retrospectively reviewed by two senior and two junior radiologists in view of 8 MR features indicating placentar invasion including the degree. Results were compared with surgical diagnosis (placenta normal/increta/accreta/percreta). Interobserver agrement between senior and junior readers were calculated. Stepwise logistic regression and receiver operating (ROC) curvers were performed.Results: Demographics between the two groups were not statistically different. Overall sensitivity and specificity for detecting placentar invasion was 90.9% and 75.0% for senior readers, and 81.8% and 61.8% for junior readers respectively. The most significant MR features indicating placentar invasion were T2 hypointense placental bands, followed by placenta praevia, focally interrupted myometrial border, posterior placental insertion, and heterogeneous placental signal. For each of the evaluated MR features the interobserver agreement kappa between the two senior readers was superior than that between the junior readers, ranging from bad (<0.4) to good (0.4-0.75).Conclusions: MRI can be a reliable and reproducible tool for detection of suspected placentar invasion, however very variable according to the observers' experience.
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Isolated primary human cells from different donors vary in their permissiveness-the ability of cells to be infected and sustain the replication of human immunodeficiency virus type 1 (HIV-1). We used replicating HIV-1 and single-cycle lentivirus vectors in a population approach to identify polymorphic steps during viral replication. We found that phytohemagglutinin-stimulated CD4(+) CD45RO(+) CD57(-) T cells from healthy blood donors (n = 128) exhibited a 5.2-log-unit range in virus production. For 20 selected donors representing the spectrum of CD4 T-cell permissiveness, we could attribute up to 42% of the total variance in virus production to entry factors and 48% to postentry steps. Efficacy at key intracellular steps of the replicative cycle (reverse transcription, integration, transcription and splicing, translation, and budding and release) varied from 0.71 to 1.45 log units among donors. However, interindividual differences in transcription efficiency alone accounted for 64 to 83% of the total variance in virus production that was attributable to postentry factors. While vesicular stomatitis virus G protein-mediated fusion was more efficacious than CCR5/CD4 entry, the latter resulted in greater transcriptional activity per proviral copy. The phenotype of provirus transcription was stable over time, indicating that it represents a genetic trait.
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BACKGROUND: Fractional flow reserve (FFR) has become an established tool for guiding treatment, but its graded relationship to clinical outcomes as modulated by medical therapy versus revascularization remains unclear. OBJECTIVES: The study hypothesized that FFR displays a continuous relationship between its numeric value and prognosis, such that lower FFR values confer a higher risk and therefore receive larger absolute benefits from revascularization. METHODS: Meta-analysis of study- and patient-level data investigated prognosis after FFR measurement. An interaction term between FFR and revascularization status allowed for an outcomes-based threshold. RESULTS: A total of 9,173 (study-level) and 6,961 (patient-level) lesions were included with a median follow-up of 16 and 14 months, respectively. Clinical events increased as FFR decreased, and revascularization showed larger net benefit for lower baseline FFR values. Outcomes-derived FFR thresholds generally occurred around the range 0.75 to 0.80, although limited due to confounding by indication. FFR measured immediately after stenting also showed an inverse relationship with prognosis (hazard ratio: 0.86, 95% confidence interval: 0.80 to 0.93; p < 0.001). An FFR-assisted strategy led to revascularization roughly half as often as an anatomy-based strategy, but with 20% fewer adverse events and 10% better angina relief. CONCLUSIONS: FFR demonstrates a continuous and independent relationship with subsequent outcomes, modulated by medical therapy versus revascularization. Lesions with lower FFR values receive larger absolute benefits from revascularization. Measurement of FFR immediately after stenting also shows an inverse gradient of risk, likely from residual diffuse disease. An FFR-guided revascularization strategy significantly reduces events and increases freedom from angina with fewer procedures than an anatomy-based strategy.
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Fifty-seven patients with suspected CEA-producing tumors were studied prospectively by radioimmunoscintigraphy (RIS) using a 123I-labeled anti-CEA monoclonal antibody (MAb) (essentially the F(ab')2 or Fab fragments) and emission computed tomography (ECT). Results of RIS were compared to those of a comprehensive diagnostic study. Final diagnosis was based on surgery, biopsy and autopsy (n = 39) or follow-up findings (n = 18). Three groups of patients were defined: Group A with suspected primary tumors (n = 11), Group B with probable (n = 19) and Group C with questionable (n = 27) tumor relapse. Eighty-eight per cent, 93% and 71% of the anatomic regions studied were correctly identified as being involved, and 97%, 97%, and 87% as being free from tumor in Groups A, B, and C, respectively. In the 27 patients from Group C with no definite diagnosis of relapse, and in whom diagnosis was most difficult, 38 tumor sites were involved. Of these, 21 were detected by both prospective RIS and repeated comprehensive study, six by RIS only and seven by conventional methods only. Four sites remained undetected by both approaches. Ten of the 21 lesions were detected by RIS more than 1 mo earlier than by any other method. Among the seven tumor sites detected by other diagnostic modalities only, three were identified at the time of RIS and four became positive more than 6 mo later. Overall diagnosis was entirely correct in 30, partially correct in 16 and incorrect in six patients studied. RIS with ECT and 123I-labeled anti-CEA MAb allows early detection of recurrence or metastasis of colorectal cancer. It thus contributes to reduced delay between diagnosis and treatment.