127 resultados para IPNV detection


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PURPOSE: To compare the ability of Fourier-domain (FD) optical coherence tomography (3D OCT-1000; Top, con, Tokyo, Japan) and time domain (TD) OCT (Stratus; Carl Zeiss Meditec Inc, Dublin, California, USA) to detect axonal loss in eyes with band atrophy (BA) of the optic nerve. DESIGN: Cross-sectional study. METHODS: Thirty-six eyes from 36 patients with BA and temporal visual field (VF) defect from chiasmal compression and 36 normal eyes were studied. Subjects were submitted to standard automated perimetry and macular and retinal nerve fiber layer (RNFL) measurements were taken using 3D OCT-1000 and Stratus OCT. Receiver operating characteristic (ROC) curves were calculated for each parameter. Spearman correlation coefficients were obtained to evaluate the relationship between RNFL and macular thickness parameters and severity of VF loss. Measurements from the two devices were compared. RESULTS: Regardless of OCT device, all RNFL and macular thickness parameters were significantly lower in eyes with BA compared with normal eyes, but no statistically significant difference was found with regard to the area under the ROC curve. Structure-function relationships were also similar for the two devices. In both groups, RNFL and macular thickness measurements were generally and in some cases significantly smaller with 3D OCT-1000 than with Stratus OCT. CONCLUSIONS: The introduction of FD technology did not lead to better discrimination ability for detecting BA of the optic nerve compared with TD technology when using the software currently provided by the manufacturer. 3D OCT-1000 FD OCT RNFL and macular measurements were generally smaller than TD Stratus OCT measurements. Investigators should be aware of this fact when comparing measurements obtained with these two devices. (Am J Oplathalmol 2009;147: 56-63. (c) 2009 by Elsevier Inc. All rights reserved.)

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Aim To compare the ability of scanning laser polarimeter (SLP) with variable corneal compensation (GDx VCC) and optical coherence tomograph (Stratus OCT) to discriminate between eyes with band atrophy (BA) of the optic nerve and healthy eyes. Methods The study included 37 eyes with BA and temporal visual field (VF) defects from chiasmal compression, and 29 normal eyes. Subjects underwent standard automated perimetry (SAP) and retinal nerve fibre layer (RNFL) scans using GDx VCC and Stratus OCT. The severity of the VF defects was evaluated by the temporal mean defect (TMD), calculated as the average of 22 values of the temporal total deviation plot on SAP. Receiver operating characteristic (ROC) curves were calculated. Pearson`s correlation coefficients were used to evaluate the relationship between RNFL thickness parameters and the TMD. Results No significant difference was found between the ROC curves areas (AUCs) for the GDx VCC and Stratus OCT with regard to average RNFL thickness (0.98 and 0.99, respectively) and the superior (0.94; 0.95), inferior (0.96; 0.97), and nasal (0.92; 0.96) quadrants. However, the AUC in the temporal quadrant (0.77) was significantly smaller (P < 0.001) with GDx VCC than with Stratus OCT (0.98). Lower TMD values were associated with smaller RNFL thickness in most parameters from both equipments. Conclusion Adding VCC resulted in improved performance in SLP when evaluating eyes with BA, and both technologies are sensitive in detecting average, superior, inferior, and nasal quadrant RNFL loss. However, GDx VCC still poorly discriminates RNFL loss in the temporal quadrant when compared with Stratus OCT.

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Objective To determine accuracy of first trimester detection of single umbilical artery (SUA). Methods The number of vessels in the umbilical cord was examined in a prospective cohort of 779 singleton, low-risk, unselected pregnancies, in the first (11-13 weeks) and second (17-24 weeks) trimesters, using both power and color Doppler and after delivery, by placental histopathologic exam. Concordance between first and second trimester findings to postnatal diagnoses was compared by calculating kappa coefficients. Results There was medium concordance between the findings in the first trimester and the postnatal diagnoses (kappa = 0.52) and high concordance (kappa = 0.89) for the second trimester scan. Sensitivity, specificity, positive and negative predictive values for the findings in the first trimester were 57.1, 98.9, 50.0 and 99.2% and for the second trimester were 86.6, 99.9, 92.9 and 99.7%. Conclusion Sensitivity and positive predictive value of first trimester scan to identify an isolated SUA in a prospective unselected population was poor. Diagnosis of isolated SUA as well as a definitive judgment about the presence of associated anomalies would still require a scan in the second trimester. Copyright (C) 2011 John Wiley & Sons, Ltd.

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Background: The Rivermead Behavioural Memory Test (RBMT) assesses everyday memory by means of tasks which mimic daily challenges. The objective was to examine the validity of the Brazilian version of the RBMT to detect cognitive decline. Methods: 195 older adults were diagnosed as normal controls (NC) or with mild cognitive impairment (MCI) or Alzheimer`s disease (AD) by a multidisciplinary team, after participants completed clinical and neuropsychological protocols. Results: Cronbach`s alpha was high for the total sample for the RBMT profile (PS) and screening scores (SS) (PS=0.91, SS=0.87) and for the AD group (PS=0.84, SS=0.85), and moderate for the MCI (PS=0.62, SS=0.55)and NC (PS=0.62, SS=0.60) groups. RBMT total scores, Appointment, Pictures, Immediate and Delayed Story, Immediate and Delayed Route, Delayed Message and Date contributed to differentiate NC from MCI. ROC curve analyses indicated high accuracy to differentiate NC from AD patients, and, moderate accuracy to differentiate NC from MCI. Conclusions: The Brazilian version of the RBMT seems to be an appropriate instrument to identify memory decline in Brazilian older adults.

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Toxoplasma gondii causes severe disease both to man and livestock and its detection in meat after slaughtering requires PCR or biological tests. Meat packages contain retained exudate that could be used for serology due to its blood content. Similar studies reported false negative assays in those tests. We standardized an anti-T. gondii IgG ELISA in muscle juices from experimentally infected rabbits, with blood content determination by cyanhemoglobin spectrophotometry. IgG titers and immunoblotting profiles were similar in blood, serum or meat juice, after blood content correction. These assays were adequate regardless of the storage time up to 120 days or freeze-thaw cycles, without false negative results. We also found 1.35% (1/74) positive sample in commercial Brazilian rabbit meat cuts, by this assay. The blood content determination shows ELISA of meat juice may be useful for quality control for toxoplasmosis monitoring. (C) 2011 Elsevier Ltd. All rights reserved.

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Introduction: The mechanisms by which severe cholestatic hepatitis develops after liver transplantation are not fully understood. Reports on immunohistochemical distribution of hepatitis C virus (HCV) antigens are still scarce, but recently, HCV immunostaining was suggested for early diagnosis of cholestatic forms of recurrent hepatitis C in liver grafts. After purification, Rb246 pab anticore (aa1-68) yielded specific, granular cytoplasmic staining in hepatocytes. Signal amplification through the Envision-Alkaline Phosphatase System avoided endogenous biotin and peroxidase. Aims/Methods: Rb246 was applied to liver samples of explants of 12 transplant recipients, six with the most severe form of post-transplantation recurrence, severe cholestatic hepatitis (group 1) and six with mild recurrence (group 2). We also assessed immuno-reactivity at two time-points post-transplantation (median 4 and 22 months) in both groups. HCV-core Ag was semiquantified from 0 to 3+ in each time point. Serum HCV-RNA was also measured on the different time points by branched DNA. Results: In the early post-transplant time point, one patient had a mild staining (1+), two patients had a moderate staining (2+) and the other three had no staining in group 1, compared with five patients with no staining (0) and one patient with mild staining (1+) in group 2. Late post-transplant liver samples were available in nine patients, and two out of four samples in group 1 showed a mild staining, compared with no staining patients in five patients in group 2. Strikingly, on the explant samples, HCV immunostaining was strongly positive in group 1, and mildly positive in group 2. Two out of five samples showed 3+ staining, and three samples showed 2+ staining in group 1; two out of five samples showed no staining, two samples showed 1+ staining and one sample showed 2+ staining in group 2. Serum HCV-RNA was significantly higher in group 1, on both time-points post-transplantation. HCV-core Ag was not directly associated with serum HCV-RNA on the different time points. Conclusion: These preliminary results suggest that strong HCV immunostaining in the explant is predictive of more severe disease recurrence.

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Background: Helicobacter pylori ClariRes assay is a novel commercially available real-time PCR assay allowing H. pylori detection and clarithromycin susceptibility testing in either gastric biopsy or stool specimens. Objective: The aim of this study was to validate the novel biprobe real-time assay in stool specimens from 217 dyspeptic children. Methods: DNA from gastric biopsies and stool specimens were obtained and submitted to the biprobe real time assay for H. pylori detection and clarithromycin susceptibility testing. Results: The sensitivity, specificity, and test accuracy were 69, 100 and 93.9% for the detection of H. pylori infection and 83.3, 100 and 95.6%, for detection of clarithromycin resistance. Conclusion: This assay proved to be appropriate for H. pylori clarithromycin susceptibility testing, particularly in children populations where a high prevalence of clarithromycin-resistant strains is suspected.

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Background: There is scarce information on the potential benefits of immunosuppression in children with myocarditis and viral genomes in myocardium. We investigated the occurrence of myocarditis in children with a preliminary diagnosis of dilated cardiomyopathy, the frequency of cardiotropic viruses in the myocardium, and the response to immunosuppression. Methods: Thirty patients (nine months to 12 years) with left ventricular ejection fraction of 22.8 +/- 4.1% were subjected to right cardiac catheterization and endomyocardial biopsy. Specimens were analyzed for the presence of inflammatory elements (Dallas criteria) and viral genome (polymerase chain reaction). Patients with active myocarditis received immunosuppressants (azatioprine and prednisone) and were recatheterized nine months later. A historical control group of nine patients with myocarditis who did not receive immunosuppressants was included. Results: Active myocarditis was diagnosed in ten patients (five with viral genomes detected). Immunosuppression resulted in a significant increase in left ventricular ejection fraction from 25.2 +/- 2.8% to 45.7 +/- 8.6% (versus 20.0 +/- 4.0% to 22.0 +/- 9.0% in historical controls, p < 0.01) and cardiac index from 3.28 +/- 0.51 L/min/m(2) to 4.40 +/- 0.49 L/min/m(2) (versus 3.50 +/- 0.40 L/min/m(2) to 3.70 +/- 0.50 L/min/m(2) in controls, p < 0.01), regardless of the presence of viral genomes (p - 0.98 and p - 0.22, respectively for the two variables). No relevant clinical events were observed. Non-inflammatory cardiomyopathy was diagnosed in 20 patients (seven with viral genomes). While on conventional therapy, there were four deaths and three assignments to transplantation, and no improvement of left ventricular ejection fraction in the remaining ones (22.5 +/- 3.6% to 27.5 +/- 10.6%). Conclusion: Children with chronic myocarditis seem to benefit from immunosuppressive therapy, regardless of the presence of viral genome in the myocardium. (C) 2009 Elsevier Ireland Ltd. All rights reserved.

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Background. Sensitized patients (pts) may develop acute antibody-mediated rejection (AMR) due to preformed donor-specific antibodies, undetected by pre-transplant complement-dependent cytotoxicity (CDC) crossmatch (XM). We hypothesized that C4d staining in 1-h post-reperfusion biopsies (1-h Bx) could detect early complement activation in the renal allograft due to preformed donor-specific antibodies. Methods. To test this hypothesis, renal transplants (n = 229) performed between June 2005 and December 2007 were entered into a prospective study of 1-h Bx and stained for C4d by immunofluorescence. Transplants were performed against a negative T-cell CDC-XM with the exception of three cases with a positive B-cell XM. Results. All 229 1-h Bx stained negative for C4d. Fourteen pts (6%) developed AMR. None of the 14 protocol 1-h Bx stained positive for C4d in peritubular capillaries (PTC). However, all indication biopsies-that diagnosed AMR-performed at a median of 8 days after transplantation stained for C4d in PTC. Conclusions. These data show that C4d staining in 1-h Bx is, in general, not useful for the early detection of AMR when CDC-XM is negative.

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Background: Verbal fluency (VF) tasks are simple and efficient clinical tools to detect executive dysfunction and lexico-semantic impairment. VF tasks are widely used in patients with suspected dementia, but their accuracy for detection of mild cognitive impairment (MCI) is still under investigation. Schooling in particular may influence the subject`s performance. The aim of this study was to compare the accuracy of two semantic categories (animals and fruits) in discriminating controls, MCI patients and Alzheimer`s disease (AD) patients. Methods: 178 subjects, comprising 70 controls (CG), 70 MCI patients and 38 AD patients, were tested on two semantic VF tasks. The sample was divided into two schooling groups: those with 4-8 years of education and those with 9 or more years. Results: Both VF tasks - animal fluency (VFa) and fruits fluency (VFf) - adequately discriminated CG from AD in the total sample (AUC = 0.88 +/- 0.03, p < 0.0001) and in both education groups, and high educated MCI from AD (VFa: AUC = 0.82 +/- 0.05, p < 0.0001; VFf: AUC = 0.85 +/- 0.05, p < 0.0001). Both tasks were moderately accurate in discriminating CG from MCI (VFa: AUC = 0.68 +/- 0.04, p < 0.0001 - VFf:AUC = 0.73 +/- 0.04, p < 0.0001) regardless of the schooling level, and MCI from AD in the total sample (VFa: AUC = 0.74 +/- 0.05, p < 0.0001; VFf: AUC = 0.76 +/- 0.05, p < 0.0001). Neither of the two tasks differentiated low educated MCI from AD. In the total sample, fruits fluency best discriminated CG from MCI and MCI from AD; a combination of the two improved the discrimination between CG and AD. Conclusions: Both categories were similar in discriminating CG from AD; the combination of both categories improved the accuracy for this distinction. Both tasks were less accurate in discriminating CG from MCI, and MCI from AD.

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In the present study, our aim was to investigate whether EBV DNA could be found in association with invasive and pre-invasive cervical cancer lesions. We hypothesize that EBV is not merely a commensal agent when present in malignant cervical lesions. DNA was extracted from cervical scrapings followed by nested PCR-based amplification. The patients were 66 women with high grade cervical intraepithelial neoplasia and 14 women with invasive cervical cancer. The control group consisted of 89 women with a normal Pap smear and colposcopy as well as a negative HPV DNA test. Analysis of our results, in conjunction with the work of other authors, leads us to propose that EBV is not merely a commensal agent when present in malignant cervical lesions. The presence of DNA from EBV is significantly associated with cervical cancer.

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PURPOSE: To compare the abilities of scanning laser polarimetry (SLP) with enhanced corneal compensation (ECC) and variable corneal compensation (VCC) modes for detection of retinal nerve fiber layer (RNFL) loss in eyes with band atrophy (BA) of the optic nerve. DESIGN. Cross-sectional study. METHODS: Thirty-seven eyes from 37 patients with BA and temporal visual field defect from chiasmal compression and 40 eyes from 40 healthy subjects were studied. Subjects underwent standard automated perimetry and RNFL measurements using an SLP device equipped with VCC and ECC. Receiver operating characteristic (ROC) curves were calculated for each parameter. Pearson correlation coefficients were obtained to evaluate the relationship between RNFL thickness parameters and severity of visual field loss, as assessed by the temporal mean defect. RESULTS: All RNFL thickness parameters were significantly lower in eyes with BA compared with normal eyes with both compensation modes. However, no statistically significant differences were observed in the areas under the ROC curves for the different parameters between GDx VCC and ECC (Carl Zeiss Meditec, Inc, Dublin, California, USA). Structure-function relationships also were similar for both compensation modes. CONCLUSIONS: No significant differences were found between the diagnostic accuracy of GDx ECC and that of VCC for detection of BA of the optic nerve. The use of GDx ECC does not seem to provide a better evaluation of RNFL loss on the temporal and nasal sectors of the peripapillary retina in subjects with BA of the optic nerve.

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Gene amplification occurs in Bradysia hygida salivary glands, at the end of the fourth larval instar. The hormone 20-hydroxyecdysone (20E) triggers this process, which results in DNA puff formation. Amplified genes are activated in two distinct groups. The activity of the first group is dependent on high levels of 20E, while the second group needs low hormone levels. Consequently, the salivary glands of B. hygida constitute an interesting biological model to study how 20E, and its receptors, affect gene amplification and activity. We produced polyclonal antibodies against B. hygida EcR (BhEcR). In western blots a polypeptide of about 66 kDa was detected in salivary gland extracts. The antibodies were also used for indirect immune-localization of BhEcR in polytene chromosomes. RNA-polymerase II was also immune-detected. We did not detect the receptor in chromosome C where the first and second groups of DNA puffs form during DNA puff anlage formation, but it was present during puff expansion. During the active phase of both groups of DNA puffs, RNA polymerase II co-localized with BhEcR. After puff regression, these antigens were not detected. Apparently, EcR plays a direct role in the transcription of amplified genes, but its role in gene amplification remains enigmatic.

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Since circulating leukocytes, mainly B and T cells, continuously maintain vigilant and comprehensive immune surveillance, these cells could be used as reporters for signs of infection or other pathologies, including cancer. Activated lymphocyte clones trigger a sensitive transcriptional response, which could be identified by gene expression profiling. To assess this hypothesis, we conducted microarray analysis of the gene expression profile of lymphocytes isolated from immunocompetent BALB/c mice subcutaneously injected with different numbers of tumorigenic B61 fibrosarcoma cells. Flow cytometry demonstrated that the number of circulating T (CD3(+)CD4(+) or CD3(+)CD8(+)) or B (CD19(+)) cells did not change. However, the lymphocytes isolated from tumor cell-injected animals expressed a unique transcriptional profile that was identifiable before the development of a palpable tumor mass. This finding demonstrates that the transcriptional response appears before alterations in the main lymphocyte subsets and that the gene expression profile of peripheral lymphocytes can serve as a sensitive and accurate method for the early detection of cancer. Exp Biol Med 234:802-812, 2009

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HIV patients frequently have opportunistic oesophageal infections. We report Haemophilus ducreyi genetic material detected by polymerase chain reaction in biopsies of oesophageal lesions in three HIV-1-infected patients. This finding may be an indication of its aetiopathological role in oesophageal lesions of HIV patients.