154 resultados para Histological diagnosis
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OBJECTIVE: To compare videofluoroscopy swallowing study (VFSS) with the fiberoptic endoscopic evaluation of swallowing (FEES) in children and to determine the accuracy of FEES in the diagnosis of specific swallowing disorders. STUDY DESIGN: Cross-sectional study. SETTING: Hospital da Crianca Santo Antonio, affiliated with Santa Casa de Misericordia Hospital Complex, Porto Alegre, RS, Brazil. SUBJECTS AND METHODS: FEES findings were compared to those of VFSS in 30 children. Kappa coefficients for interobserver agreement were calculated. Thereafter, these coefficients were evaluated in terms of agreement between FEES and VFSS. In addition, the sensitivity, specificity, positive predictive value, and negative predictive value of FEES were calculated for four swallowing parameters (posterior spillover, pharyngeal residues, laryngeal penetration, and laryngotracheal aspiration). RESULTS: Interobserver agreement rates greater than 70 percent were obtained for all FEES parameters analyzed, except for pharyngeal residues with puree consistency (agreement = 66.7%, K = 0.296, P = 0.091). Laryngeal aspiration and penetration yielded the best level of agreement (100%, K = 1) for the laryngeal aspiration of puree residues. CONCLUSION: The diagnostic agreement between FEES (both observers) and VFSS was low. Regarding the analyzed parameters, laryngeal penetration and aspiration yielded the highest interobserver agreement in terms of FEES, and also showed the highest specificity and positive predictive value when compared to VFSS. (C) 2010 American Academy of Otolaryngology-Head and Neck Surgery Foundation. All rights reserved.
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Gastrointestinal stromal tumor (GIST) is the most common mesenchymal neoplasm of the gastrointestinal tract. Discovered on GIST-1 (DOG1) is a recently described protein expressed in GISTs irrespective of mutation status. The aim of this study was to investigate the immunohistochemical expression of DOG1 using 2 different monoclonal antibodies (DOG1.1 and the commercially available K9 antibody) in 668 GIST cases and to compare the results with the expression of KIT. DOG1 and KIT expression also were studied in most human normal tissues and several nonmesenchymal and mesenchymal tumors other than GIST. KIT was expressed in 643 (96.3%) GISTs. DOG1.1 and K9 were positive in 538 (80.5%) and 642 (96.1%) GIST cases, respectively. In 25 (3.7%) KIT-negative GIST cases, DOG1 was expressed in 5 (20.0%) and 19 (76.0%) using DOG1.1 and K9 antibodies, respectively. Only 0.9% of GISTs were negative for KIT, DOG1.1, and K9. Most normal human tissues did not reveal KIT and DOG1 expression. DOG1.1 was positive in only 2 of 57 synovial sarcomas and 1 of 61 soft tissue leiomyosarcomas. K9 was positive in 5 of 57 synovial sarcomas, 1 of 14 angiosarcomas, 1 of 61 soft tissue leiomyosarcomas, 3 of 4 adenoid cystic carcinomas of the head and neck, and in myoepithelial cells of 9 of 11. broadenomas of the breast. In conclusion, the commercially available K9 is of great utility for the diagnosis of most KIT-negative GISTs, and the combination of both KIT and K9 antibody in a panel of immunohistochemistry can define the diagnosis of GIST in more than 99% of cases.
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Cerebral toxoplasmosis is the most common cerebral mass lesion in AIDS patients in Brazil, and results in high mortality and morbidity, despite free access to HAART (highly active antiretroviral treatment). Molecular diagnosis based on conventional PCR (cnPCR) or real-time quantitative PCR (qrtPCR) has been indispensable for definitive diagnosis. We report here the evaluation of qrtPCR with blood and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) samples from AIDS patients in Brazil. This prospective study was conducted for 2 years, analysing DNA samples extracted from 149 AIDS patients (98 blood and 51 CSF samples) with confirmed clinical and radiological diagnosis The laboratory diagnosis included cnPCR (with the B22/B23 primer set) and indirect immunofluorescence (IF). For qrtPCR, two primer sets were simultaneously designed based on described genes and using a 6-carboxyfluorescein dye-labelled TaqMan MGB (minor groove binder) probe One was Bug, which amplified a sequence from the B1 gene The other was the RETg, which amplified a PCR product of the 529 bp sequence. The overall cnPCR and qrtPCR results were positive results were observed in 33.6% (50) patients The sensitivities were 98% for cnPCR (B22/B23), and 86 and 98% for qrtPCR (B1Tg and RETg, respectively). Negative reactions were observed in 66 4% patients. The specificities were 97% for cnPCR and qrtPCR (B1Tg). and 88.8% for RETg These data show that RETg PCR is highly sensitive as it amplifies a repeat region with many copies; however, its specificity is lower than the other markers However, B1Tg PCR had good specificity, but lower sensitivity Among the patients, 20 had blood and CSF collected simultaneously Thus, their results permitted us to analyse and compare molecular, serological and clinical diagnosis for a better understanding of the different scenarios of laboratorial and clinical diagnosis. For nine patients with confirmed cerebral toxoplasmosis diagnosis, four scenarios were observed: (i) and (ii) negative molecular diagnosis for CSF and positive for blood with variable IF titres for the sera and CSF (negative or positive), (iii) positive molecular diagnosis with CSF and negative with blood, and (iv) positive molecular diagnosis in both samples. In the latter two situations, normally the IF titres in sera and CSF are variable. Other opportunistic infections were shown in 11 patients Despite the IF titres in sera and CSF being variable, all of them had negative molecular diagnosis for both samples qrtPCR allows for a rapid identification of Toxoplasma gondii DNA in patient samples; in a minority of cases discrepancies occur with the cnPCR.
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Heart disease (HD) can stress the alveolar blood-gas barrier, resulting in parenchymal inflammation and remodeling. Patients with HD may therefore display any of the symptoms commonly attributed to primary pulmonary disease, although tissue documentation of corresponding changes through surgical lung biopsy (SLB) is rarely done. Intent on exploring the basis of HD-related alveolar-capillary barrier dysfunction, a retrospective analysis of SLB histopathology was conducted in patients with clinically diagnosed HD, diffuse pulmonary infiltrates, and no evidence of primary pulmonary disease. Patients eligible for the study had a clinical diagnosis of heart disease, acute or chronic, and presented with diffuse infiltrates on chest X-ray. All qualified subjects (N = 23) who underwent diagnostic SLB between January 1982 and December 2005 were subsequently examined. Specific biopsy parameters investigated included demonstrable edema, siderophage influx, hemorrhage, venous and lymphatic ectasia, vascular sclerosis, capillary congestion, and fibroblast proliferation. Based on observed alveolar-capillary barrier (ACB) alterations, three main morphologic groups emerged: one group (6 patients) with alveolar edema; a second group (11 patients) characterized by pulmonary congestion; and a final group (6 patients) showing microscopic foci of acute ACB lung injury. Alveolar-capillary stress due to acute high-pressure or volume overload often manifests as diffuse pulmonary infiltrates with variable but generally predictable histopathology. In patients with biopsy-proven alveolar edema, pulmonary congestion, or acute microscopic lung injury, the clinician must be alert for the possibility of primary heart disease, particularly if the patient is elderly or when a history of myocardial, valvular, or coronary vascular disease exists.
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Nonalcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) is a morbid condition highly related to obesity. It is unclear if the macroscopic liver appearance correlates with the histopathologic findings. The goal of this prospective study was to determine the relationship between the intraoperative liver appearance and the histopathologic diagnosis of NASH in morbidly obese subjects undergoing bariatric surgery. We also aimed to determine variables that could predict NASH preoperatively. Consecutive 51 subjects undergoing bariatric surgery without evidence of other liver disease underwent intraoperative liver biopsy. An intraoperative liver visual (macroscopic and tactile examination) was recorded. The liver aspect was compared with the liver histologic findings. Histological assessment was categorized into two groups: NASH and non-NASH (including normal histology and simple steatosis). Clinical and biochemical parameters were obtained from the patient databases and were compared between groups to identify preoperatively predictive factors of NASH. From 51 patients, only one presented totally normal histology. Forty-three (86.2%) presented simple steatosis, and seven (13.7%) were classified as NASH. Clinical parameters were not different between groups. At biochemical analysis, only VLDL cholesterol level was significantly higher in the NASH group (p = 0.037) but yet within the normal range. Association between macroscopic liver appearance and the presence of histological NASH is poor (sensitivity of 14%, specificity of 56%, positive predictive value of 5%, and negative predictive value of 80%). No predictor of NASH was found. Surgeons` evaluation could not identify NASH individuals. Routine liver biopsy during bariatric operations is mandatory to differentiate NASH and nonalcoholic fatty liver disease.
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Background and objective: Tuberculosis (TB) and cancer are two of the main causes of pleural effusions which frequently share similar clinical features and pleural fluid profiles. This study aimed to identify diagnostic models based on clinical and laboratory variables to differentiate tuberculous from malignant pleural effusions. Methods: A retrospective study of 403 patients (200 with TB; 203 with cancer) was undertaken. Univariate analysis was used to select the clinical variables relevant to the models composition. Variables beta coefficients were used to define a numerical score which presented a practical use. The performances of the most efficient models were tested in a sample of pleural exudates (64 new cases). Results: Two models are proposed for the diagnosis of effusions associated with each disease. For TB: (i) adenosine deaminase (ADA), globulins and the absence of malignant cells in the pleural fluid; and (ii) ADA, globulins and fluid appearance. For cancer: (i) patient age, fluid appearance, macrophage percentage and presence of atypical cells in the pleural fluid; and (ii) as for (i) excluding atypical cells. Application of the models to the 64 pleural effusions showed accuracy higher than 85% for all models. Conclusions: The proposed models were effective in suggesting pleural tuberculosis or cancer.
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Aims We conducted a meta-analysis to evaluate the accuracy of quantitative stress myocardial contrast echocardiography (MCE) in coronary artery disease (CAD). Methods and results Database search was performed through January 2008. We included studies evaluating accuracy of quantitative stress MCE for detection of CAD compared with coronary angiography or single-photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) and measuring reserve parameters of A, beta, and A beta. Data from studies were verified and supplemented by the authors of each study. Using random effects meta-analysis, we estimated weighted mean difference (WMD), likelihood ratios (LRs), diagnostic odds ratios (DORs), and summary area under curve (AUC), all with 95% confidence interval (0). Of 1443 studies, 13 including 627 patients (age range, 38-75 years) and comparing MCE with angiography (n = 10), SPECT (n = 1), or both (n = 2) were eligible. WMD (95% CI) were significantly less in CAD group than no-CAD group: 0.12 (0.06-0.18) (P < 0.001), 1.38 (1.28-1.52) (P < 0.001), and 1.47 (1.18-1.76) (P < 0.001) for A, beta, and A beta reserves, respectively. Pooled LRs for positive test were 1.33 (1.13-1.57), 3.76 (2.43-5.80), and 3.64 (2.87-4.78) and LRs for negative test were 0.68 (0.55-0.83), 0.30 (0.24-0.38), and 0.27 (0.22-0.34) for A, beta, and A beta reserves, respectively. Pooled DORs were 2.09 (1.42-3.07), 15.11 (7.90-28.91), and 14.73 (9.61-22.57) and AUCs were 0.637 (0.594-0.677), 0.851 (0.828-0.872), and 0.859 (0.842-0.750) for A, beta, and A beta reserves, respectively. Conclusion Evidence supports the use of quantitative MCE as a non-invasive test for detection of CAD. Standardizing MCE quantification analysis and adherence to reporting standards for diagnostic tests could enhance the quality of evidence in this field.
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Background and Purpose-Diagnostic delay of cerebral vein and dural sinus thrombosis may have an impact on outcome. Methods-In the International Study on Cerebral Vein and Dural Sinus Thrombosis (ISCVT) cohort (624 patients with cerebral vein and dural sinus thrombosis), we analyzed the predictors and the impact on outcome of diagnostic delay. Primary outcome was a modified Rankin Scale score > 2 at the end of follow-up. Secondary outcomes were modified Rankin Scale score 0 to 1 at the end of follow-up, death, and visual deficits (visual acuity or visual field). Results-Median delay was 7 days (interquartile range, 3 to 16). Patients with disturbance of consciousness (P < 0.001) and of mental status (P = 0.042), seizure (< 0.001), and with parenchymal lesions on admission CT/MR (P < 0.001) were diagnosed earlier, whereas men (P = 0.01) and those with isolated intracranial hypertension syndrome (P = 0.04) were diagnosed later. Between patients diagnosed earlier and later than the median delay, no statistically significant differences were found in the primary (P = 0.33) and in secondary outcomes: modified Rankin Scale score 0 to 1 (P = 0.86) or deaths (P = 0.53). Persistent visual deficits were more frequent in patients diagnosed later (P = 0.05). In patients with isolated intracranial hypertension syndrome, modified Rankin Scale score > 2 at the end of follow-up was more frequent in patients diagnosed later (P = 0.02). Conclusions-Diagnostic delay was considerable in this cohort and was associated with an increased risk of visual deficit. In patients with isolated intracranial hypertension syndrome, diagnostic delay was also associated with death or dependency. (Stroke. 2009; 40: 3133-3138.)
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A 59-year-old woman presented with a large mediastinal mass. At thoracotomy, the mass was found tightly adherent to the esophageal wall and right lower lobe of the lung. Histological examination showed a solid tumor composed of closely packed nests of cells with clear and eosinophilic cytoplasm, which were strongly and diffusely positive for S 100 protein but negative for HMB45 and Melan-A. The diagnosis of clear cell sarcoma was supported by demonstrating the presence of an EWS gene rearrangement by fluorescence in situ hybridization. There was no evidence that this lesion represented metastatic disease. To the best of our knowledge, primary mediastinal clear cell sarcoma has not been previously reported in the literature. We present the case and discuss the differential diagnosis. (C) 2009 Elsevier Inc. All rights reserved.
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Eruptive xanthoma with unexpected granuloma annulare-like microscopic appearance - Case report Abstract: Eruptive xanthoma and granuloma annulare are dermatological diseases with different clinical findings that, sometimes, exhibit histopathological similarities with potential for misinterpretation. We report a case of an eruption of yellow-orange papules with erythematous borders in a 34-year-old male with high levels of serum triglycerides and cholesterol. The skin biopsy specimen has diagnosed granuloma annulare. Review of the histologic material revealed eruptive xanthoma. Remission of the eruption after treatment of dyslipidemia confirmed the diagnosis of the eruptive xanthoma and motivated research about the histological similarities and differences between these diseases.
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Objective Predictive factors of damage to the Fallopian tube may guide the treatment of Patients with tubal pregnancy. The aim of the present study was to investigate the association between the depth of trophoblastic invasion into the tubal wall, assessed on postoperative histological examination, with the findings obtained on transvaginal sonograpby (TVS) in women with ampullary Methods Women with ampullary pregnancy undergoing salpingectomy were enrolled into the study. Only women with a finding of either an embryo with cardiac activity or a tubal ring on TVS were included in the analysis, a total of 8.5 patients. Trophoblastic invasion was assessed postoperatively and was histologically classified as Stage I when limited to the tubal mucosa, Stage II when extending to the muscle layer and Stage III in the case of complete tubal wall infiltration. The association between findings on TVS and the stage of trophoblastic invasion was evaluated. Results There was a significant association between the findings on TVS and the depth of trophoblastic invasion (P < 0.001). All patients in whom an embryo with cardiac activity bad been identified were found to have Stage II (17.9%) or Stage III (82.1%) invasion, whereas in those patients who showed a tubal ring on TVS, Stage I invasion was the most frequent finding (41.3%). Conclusions In ampullary pregnancy, the finding on TVS of an embryo with cardiac activity is associated with deeper penetration of trophoblastic tissue into the tubal wall than is the finding of a tubal ring. Copyright (C) 2009 ISUOG, Published by John Wiley & Sons, Ltd.
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Cutaneous tuberculosis has re-emerged in the last 15 years together with the higher incidence of pulmonary tuberculosis and multidrug resistance. The choice for a single diagnostic tool among the many available today is a challenge. Our objective was to compare polymerase chain reaction (PCR) with other exams in the diagnosis of cutaneous tuberculosis and atypical mycobacteria skin infection. PCR and a set of five different exams were performed in 32 patients (34 samples of paraffin-embedded tissue) evaluated for 3 years in a university hospital, considering the response to mycobacterial infection treatment as a positive case. PCR was the most sensitive (88%) and specific (83%) exam. Culture, immunohistochemistry and acid-fast bacilli were not in agreement with clinical response to treatment. Although PCR is a useful tool, careful clinical exam is still the gold standard for the evaluation and treatment of cutaneous tuberculosis and mycobacteria skin infection.
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Background/Aims: The diagnostic stability of mild cognitive impairment (MCI) on short-term follow- up is a key issue in the characterization of this clinical syndrome. We aim to determine the cognitive outcome after 1 year of follow- up in a cohort of older adults. Methods: Baseline clinical and neuropsychological assessments were carried out in older subjects recruited at a tertiary memory clinic. The subjects were reassessed after 1 year of follow- up with the same clinical and neuropsychological protocol. Results: A total of 115 older adults, including MCI (n = 54) and controls (n = 61), underwent baseline and follow- up evaluation. Ten subjects classified as MCI at baseline (23%) resumed normal cognitive function and 13 controls (21%) progressed to MCI upon follow-up (chi(2) = 0.015, d.f. = 1, p = 0.90). The subjects diagnosed as having MCI on both assessments were older (p = 0.002) and had a worse global cognitive performance according to the Cambridge Cognitive Test (p = 0.014). Conclusion: The subjects who maintain the MCI status are older and have a worse baseline cognitive performance as well as multiple cognitive deficits. Copyright (C) 2009 S. Karger AG, Basel
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Background The CAMCOG is a brief neuropsychological battery designed to assess global cognitive function and ascertain the impairments that are required for the diagnosis of dementia. To date, the cut-off scores for mild cognitive impairment (MCI) have not been determined. Given the need for an earlier diagnosis of mild dementia, new cut-off values are also necessary, taking into account cultural and educational effects. Methods One hundred and fifty-seven older adults (mean age: 69.6 +/- 7.4 years) with 8 or more years of formal education (mean years of schooling 14.2 +/- 3.8) attending a memory clinic at the Institute of Psychiatry University of Sao Paulo were included. Subjects were divided into three groups according to their cognitive status, established through clinical and neuropsychological assessment: normal controls, n = 62; MCI, n = 65; and mild or moderate dementia, n = 30. ROC curve analyses were performed for dementia vs controls, MCI vs controls and MCI vs dementia. Results The cut-off values were: 92/93 for dementia is controls (AUC = 0.99: sensitivity: 100%, specificity: 95%); 95/96 for MCI vs controls (AUC = 0.83, sensitivity: 64%, specificity: 88%), and 85/86 for MCI vs dementia (AUC = 0.91, sensitivity: 81%, specificity: 88%). The total CAMCOG score was more accurate than its subtests Mini-mental State Examination, Verbal Fluency Test and Clock Drawing Test when used separately. Conclusions The CAMCOG discriminated controls and MCI from demented patients, but was less accurate to discriminate MCI from controls. The best cut-off value to differentiate controls and demented was higher than suggested in the original publication, probably because only cases of mild to moderate dementia were included. This is important given the need for a diagnostic at earlier stages of Alzheimer`s disease. Copyright (C) 2008 John Wiley & Sons, Ltd.