94 resultados para Relation quantitative propriété-propriété
Resumo:
Objective. To correlate Doppler results with hematological indices at birth in small-for-gestational-age (SGA) fetuses. Design. Prospective study. Setting. Tertiary teaching hospital, Sao Paulo, Brazil. Population. One hundred singleton pregnancies with SGA fetuses of > 27 weeks gestational age. Methods. All women had Doppler velocimetry of the umbilical arteries, middle cerebral artery, and ductus venosus within < 72 hours prior to delivery. After birth, umbilical artery blood was collected for hematological analysis. Main outcome measures. The association between fetal Doppler velocimetry pulsatility index (PI) and some hematological indices. Results. Umbilical artery PI showed a positive correlation with nucleated red blood cell count in the umbilical cord (r = 0.46; p<0.01), and a negative correlation with platelet count (r = -0.53; p<0.01) and white blood cell count (r = -0.42; p<0.01). Middle cerebral artery PI was positively correlated with platelet count (r = 0.43; p<0.01) and white blood cell count (r = 0.38; p<0.01), and was negatively correlated with nucleated red blood cell count (r = -0.39; p<0.01). The ductus venosus pulsatility index showed a positive correlation with nucleated red blood cell count (r = 0.36; p<0.01), and a negative correlation with platelet count (r = -0.37; p<0.01) and white blood cell count (r = -0.26; p<0.01). Conclusion. A significant positive or negative correlation between nucleated red blood cell, platelet and white blood cell counts, and Doppler indices suggests an association between placental insufficiency and the fetal hematological response.
Resumo:
Background: Suicidal thoughts and behaviors, also known as suicidality, are a fairly neglected area of study in patients with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). Objective: To evaluate several aspects of suicidality in a large multicenter sample of OCD patients and to compare those with and without suicidal ideation, plans, and attempts according to demographic and clinical variables, including symptom dimensions and comorbid disorders. Method: This cross-sectional study included 582 outpatients with primary OCD (DSM-IV) recruited between August 2003 and March 2008 from 7 centers of the Brazilian Research Consortium on Obsessive-Compulsive Spectrum Disorders. The following assessment instruments were used: the Yale-Brown Obsessive Compulsive Scale, the Dimensional Yale-Brown Obsessive Compulsive Scale, the Beck Depression and Anxiety Inventories, the Structured Clinical Interview for DSM-IV Axis I Disorders, and 6 specific questions to investigate suicidality. After univariate analyses, logistic regression analyses were performed to adjust the associations between the dependent and explanatory variables for possible confounders. Results: Thirty-six percent of the patients reported lifetime suicidal thoughts, 20% had made suicidal plans, 11% had already attempted suicide, and 10% presented current suicidal thoughts. In the logistic regression, only lifetime major depressive disorder and posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) remained independently associated with all aspects of suicidal behaviors. The sexual/religious dimension and comorbid substance use disorders remained associated with suicidal thoughts and plans, while impulse-control disorders were associated with current suicidal thoughts and with suicide plans and attempts. Conclusions: The risk of suicidal behaviors must be carefully investigated in OCD patients, particularly those with symptoms of the sexual/religious dimension and comorbid major depressive disorder, PTSD, substance use disorders, and impulse-control disorders. J Clin Psychiatry 2011;72(1):17-26 (C) Copyright 2011 Physicians Postgraduate Press, Inc.
Resumo:
Mast cells (MCs) are associated with chronic inflammatory diseases. However, there is no study evaluating the importance of MCs in the mucosal leishmaniasis (ML). The aim of this study was to quantify the most important cytokines associated with mucosal leishmaniasis, before and after disease treatment, correlating with the healing. A cohort of 12 patients with ML was evaluated, and biopsies were taken before and after the treatment. A quantitative estimation of MCs and some cytokines was analysed by density of the labelled cells through immunohistochemistry. The MCs count in the tissue from patients with ML before treatment showed a mean of 29.3 +/- 37.9 cells/mm(2). The MCs count in patients with ML after healing decreased to 14.8 +/- 23.9 cells/mm(2). There was an inverse relation of MCs with IFN-gamma and IL-4 expression (r(2) = 29.4 and r(2) = 22.3 with P < 0.05). The expression of IL-10 and TNF-alpha was not related with MCs count. MCs decrease after treatment associated with decrease of IL-4 and IFN-gamma. The explanations of cytokine correlation are discussed in the article.
Resumo:
Background: Smooth muscle content is increased within the airway wall in patients with asthma and is likely to play a role in airway hyperresponsiveness. However, smooth muscle cells express several contractile and structural proteins, and each of these proteins may influence airway function distinctly. Objective: We examined the expression of contractile and structural proteins of smooth muscle cells, as well as extracellular matrix proteins, in bronchial biopsies of patients with asthma, and related these to lung function, airway hyperresponsiveness, and responses to deep inspiration. Methods: Thirteen patients with asthma (mild persistent, atopic, nonsmoking) participated in this cross-sectional study. FEV1 % predicted, PC20 methacholine, and resistance of the respiratory system by the forced oscillation technique during tidal breathing and deep breath were measured. Within 1 week, a bronchoscopy was performed to obtain 6 bronchial biopsies that were immunuhistochemically stained for alpha-SM-actin, desmin, myosin light chain kinase (MLCK), myosin, calponin, vimentin, elastin, type III collagen, and fibronectin. The level of expression was determined by automated densitometry. Results: PC20 methacholine was inversely related to the expression of alpha-smooth muscle actin (r = -0.62), desmin (r = -0.56), and elastin (r = -0.78). In addition, FEV1% predicted was positively related and deep inspiration-induced bronchodilation inversely related to desmin (r = -0.60), MLCK (r = -0.60), and calponin (r = -0.54) expression. Conclusion: Airway hyperresponsiveness, FEV1% predicted, and airway responses to deep inspiration are associated with selective expression of airway smooth muscle proteins and components of the extracellular matrix.
Resumo:
Objective: Micro RNA (miRNA) is a class of small noncoding RNA that plays a major role in the regulation of gene expression, which has been related to cancer behavior. The possibility of analyzing miRNA from the archives of pathology laboratories is exciting, as it allows for large retrospective studies. Formalin is the most common fixative used in the surgical pathology routine, and its promotion of nucleic acid degradation is well known. Our aim is to compare miRNA profiles from formalin-fixed paraffin embedded (FFPE) tissues with fresh-frozen prostate cancer tissues. Methods: The expression of 14 miRNAs was determined by quantitative real time polymerase chain reaction (qRT-PCR) in 5 paired fresh-frozen and FFPE tissues, which were representative of prostate carcinoma. Results: There was a very good correlation of the miRNA expression of miR-let7c and miR-32 between the fresh-frozen and FFPE tissues, with Pearson`s correlation coefficients of 0.927 (P = 0.023) and 0.960 (P = 0.010), respectively. For the remaining miRNAs, the correlation was good with Spearman correlation coefficient of 0.638 (P < 0.001). Conclusion: Analysis of miRNAs from routinely processed and stored FFPE prostate tissue is feasible for some miRNAs using qRT-PCR. Further studies should be conducted to confirm the reliability of using stock tissues for miRNA expression determination. (C) 2011 Elsevier Inc. All rights reserved.
Resumo:
Cerebral toxoplasmosis is the most common cerebral mass lesion in AIDS patients in Brazil, and results in high mortality and morbidity, despite free access to HAART (highly active antiretroviral treatment). Molecular diagnosis based on conventional PCR (cnPCR) or real-time quantitative PCR (qrtPCR) has been indispensable for definitive diagnosis. We report here the evaluation of qrtPCR with blood and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) samples from AIDS patients in Brazil. This prospective study was conducted for 2 years, analysing DNA samples extracted from 149 AIDS patients (98 blood and 51 CSF samples) with confirmed clinical and radiological diagnosis The laboratory diagnosis included cnPCR (with the B22/B23 primer set) and indirect immunofluorescence (IF). For qrtPCR, two primer sets were simultaneously designed based on described genes and using a 6-carboxyfluorescein dye-labelled TaqMan MGB (minor groove binder) probe One was Bug, which amplified a sequence from the B1 gene The other was the RETg, which amplified a PCR product of the 529 bp sequence. The overall cnPCR and qrtPCR results were positive results were observed in 33.6% (50) patients The sensitivities were 98% for cnPCR (B22/B23), and 86 and 98% for qrtPCR (B1Tg and RETg, respectively). Negative reactions were observed in 66 4% patients. The specificities were 97% for cnPCR and qrtPCR (B1Tg). and 88.8% for RETg These data show that RETg PCR is highly sensitive as it amplifies a repeat region with many copies; however, its specificity is lower than the other markers However, B1Tg PCR had good specificity, but lower sensitivity Among the patients, 20 had blood and CSF collected simultaneously Thus, their results permitted us to analyse and compare molecular, serological and clinical diagnosis for a better understanding of the different scenarios of laboratorial and clinical diagnosis. For nine patients with confirmed cerebral toxoplasmosis diagnosis, four scenarios were observed: (i) and (ii) negative molecular diagnosis for CSF and positive for blood with variable IF titres for the sera and CSF (negative or positive), (iii) positive molecular diagnosis with CSF and negative with blood, and (iv) positive molecular diagnosis in both samples. In the latter two situations, normally the IF titres in sera and CSF are variable. Other opportunistic infections were shown in 11 patients Despite the IF titres in sera and CSF being variable, all of them had negative molecular diagnosis for both samples qrtPCR allows for a rapid identification of Toxoplasma gondii DNA in patient samples; in a minority of cases discrepancies occur with the cnPCR.
Resumo:
To investigate the effect of earlier triceps surae (TS) surgical lengthening at knee kinematics in the stance phase in patients with cerebral palsy (CP). One thousand and thirty-nine participants from an eligible total of 1750 children with CP were referred to gait analysis laboratory from January 2000 to April 2007. Inclusion criteria were the diagnosis of diparetic spastic CP levels I to III (GMFCS) and complete kinematics documentation. Patients with an asymmetrical knee pattern at kinematics and with different types of TS management among sides were excluded. The patients were divided into two groups according to the mean minimum knee flexion (MMKF) in stance phase: group A (n = 253) MMKF >= 30 degrees and group B (n = 786) MMKF less than 30 degrees. For each group, the occurrence of following procedures for TS in the past: (i) earlier surgery, (ii) gastrocnemius lengthening (zone I), (iii) gastrocnemius and soleus lengthening (zone II), and (iv) calcaneous tendon lengthening (zone III), was investigated. A chi(2) test was applied to check if the number of procedures performed was different between groups. The level of significance was defined as P value of less than 0.05. The number of patients with no earlier surgeries at TS was higher in group B (51.8%) than in group A (39.1%), and this difference was significant (P<0.01). In addition, the number of procedures at the calcaneous tendon was more elevated in group A (36.8%) than in group B (27%), and this finding was statistically significant as well (P<0.02). The percentage of surgical lengthening at zones I and II was very similar between the groups A and B. This study has shown that patients without earlier surgical procedures at TS are more susceptible to reach better extension of the knees in the stance phase. Patients in a crouch gait had a higher number of calcaneous tendon lengthening performed in the past than patients with a more normal knee extension in the stance phase. J Pediatr Orthop B 19:226-230 (C) 2010 Wolters Kluwer Health vertical bar Lippincott Williams & Wilkins.
Resumo:
Visceral abdominal fat has been associated to cardiovascular risk factors and coronary artery disease (CAD). Computed tomography (CT) coronary angiography is an emerging technology allowing detection of both obstructive and nonobstructive CAD adding information to clinical risk strati. cation. The aim of this study was to evaluate the association between CAD and adiposity measurements assessed clinically and by CT. We prospectively evaluated 125 consecutive subjects (57% men, age 56.0 +/- 12 years) referred to perform CT angiography. Clinical and laboratory variables were determined and CT angiography and abdominal CT were performed in a 64-slice scanner. CAD was defined as any plaque calcified or not detected by CT angiography. Visceral and subcutaneous adiposity areas were determined at different intervertebral levels. CT angiography detected CAD in 70 (56%) subjects, and no association was found with usual anthropometric adiposity measurements (waist and hip circumferences and body mass index). Otherwise, CT visceral fat areas (VFA) were significantly related to CAD. VFA T12-L1 values >= 145 cm(2) had an odds ratio of 2.85 (95% CI 1.30-6.26) and VFA L4-L5 >= 150 cm(2) had a 2.87-fold (95% CI 1.31-6.30) CAD risk. The multivariate analysis determined age and VFA T12-L1 as the only independent variables associated to CAD. Visceral fat assessed by CT is an independent marker of CAD determined by CT angiography. (C) 2009 Elsevier Ireland Ltd. All rights reserved.
Resumo:
Levels of sucrose and total fructool igosaccha rides (FOS) were quantified in different phases of banana `Prata` ripening during storage at ambient (similar to 19 degrees C) and low (similar to 10 degrees C) temperature. Total FOS levels were detected in the first days after harvest, whereas 1-kestose remained undetectable until the sucrose levels reached approximately 200 mg/g (dry weight) in both groups. Sucrose levels increased slowly but constantly at low temperature, but they elevated rapidly when the temperature was raised to 19 degrees C. Total FOS and sucrose levels were higher in bananas stored at low temperature than in the control group. In both samples, total FOS levels were higher than those of 1-kestose. The carbohydrate profiles obtained by HPLC and TLC suggest the presence of neokestose, 6-kestose, and bifurcose. The enzymes putatively involved in banana fructosyltransferase activity were also evaluated. Results obtained indicate that the banana enzyme responsible for the synthesis of FOS by transfructosylation is an invertase rather than a sucrose-sucrosyl transferase-like enzyme.
Resumo:
Aims We conducted a meta-analysis to evaluate the accuracy of quantitative stress myocardial contrast echocardiography (MCE) in coronary artery disease (CAD). Methods and results Database search was performed through January 2008. We included studies evaluating accuracy of quantitative stress MCE for detection of CAD compared with coronary angiography or single-photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) and measuring reserve parameters of A, beta, and A beta. Data from studies were verified and supplemented by the authors of each study. Using random effects meta-analysis, we estimated weighted mean difference (WMD), likelihood ratios (LRs), diagnostic odds ratios (DORs), and summary area under curve (AUC), all with 95% confidence interval (0). Of 1443 studies, 13 including 627 patients (age range, 38-75 years) and comparing MCE with angiography (n = 10), SPECT (n = 1), or both (n = 2) were eligible. WMD (95% CI) were significantly less in CAD group than no-CAD group: 0.12 (0.06-0.18) (P < 0.001), 1.38 (1.28-1.52) (P < 0.001), and 1.47 (1.18-1.76) (P < 0.001) for A, beta, and A beta reserves, respectively. Pooled LRs for positive test were 1.33 (1.13-1.57), 3.76 (2.43-5.80), and 3.64 (2.87-4.78) and LRs for negative test were 0.68 (0.55-0.83), 0.30 (0.24-0.38), and 0.27 (0.22-0.34) for A, beta, and A beta reserves, respectively. Pooled DORs were 2.09 (1.42-3.07), 15.11 (7.90-28.91), and 14.73 (9.61-22.57) and AUCs were 0.637 (0.594-0.677), 0.851 (0.828-0.872), and 0.859 (0.842-0.750) for A, beta, and A beta reserves, respectively. Conclusion Evidence supports the use of quantitative MCE as a non-invasive test for detection of CAD. Standardizing MCE quantification analysis and adherence to reporting standards for diagnostic tests could enhance the quality of evidence in this field.
Resumo:
Our objective is to verify the modulatory effects of bromazepam on EEG theta absolute power when subjects were submitted to a visuomotor task (i.e., car driver task). Sample was composed of 14 students (9 males and 5 females), right handed, with ages varying between 23 and 42 years (mean = 32.5 +/- 9.5), absence of mental or physical impairments, no psychoactive or psychotropic substance use and no neuromuscular disorders (screened by a clinical examination). The results showed an interaction between condition and electrodes (p=0.034) in favor of F8 electrode compared with F7 in both experimental conditions (t-test; p=0.001). Additionally, main effects were observed for condition (p=0.001), period (p=0.001) and electrodes (p=0.031) in favor of F4 electrode compared with F3. In conclusion, Br 6 mg of bromazepam may interfere in sensorimotor processes in the task performance in an unpredictable scenario allowing that certain visuospatial factors were predominant. Therefore, the results may reflect that bromazepam effects influence the performance of the involved areas because of the acquisition and integration of sensory stimuli processes until the development of a motor behavior based on the same stimuli. (C) 2009 Elsevier Ireland Ltd. All rights reserved.
Resumo:
Background Chronic aortic valve disease (AVD) is characterized by progressive accumulation of interstitial myocardial fibrosis (MF). However, assessment of MF accumulation has only been possible through histologic analyses of endomyocardial biopsies. We sought to evaluate contrast-enhanced magnetic resonance imaging (ce-MRI) as a noninvasive method to identify the presence of increased MF in patients with severe AVD. Methods Seventy patients scheduled to undergo aortic valve replacement surgery were examined by cine and ce-MRI in a 1.5-T scanner. Cine images were used for the assessment of left ventricular (LV) volumes, mass, and function. Delayed-enhancement images were used to characterize the regions of MF. In addition, histologic analyses of myocardial samples obtained during aortic valve replacement surgery were used for direct quantification of interstitial MF. Ten additional subjects who died of noncardiac causes served as controls for the quantitative histologic analyses. Results Interstitial MF determined by histopathologic analysis was higher in patients with AVID than in controls (2.7% +/- 2.0% vs 0.6% +/- 0.2%, P =.001). When compared with histopathologic results, ce-MRI demonstrated a sensitivity of 74%, a specificity of 81%, and an accuracy of 76% to identify AVD patients with increased interstitial MF There was a significant inverse correlation between interstitial MF and LV ejection fraction (r = -0.67, P <.0001). Accordingly, patients with identifiable focal regions of MF by ce-MRI exhibited worse LV systolic function than those without MF (45% +/- 14% vs 65% +/- 14%, P <.0001). Conclusions Contrast-enhanced MRI allows for the noninvasive detection of focal regions of MF in patients with severe AVD. Moreover, patients with identifiable MF by ce-MRI exhibited worse LV functional parameters. (Am Heart J 2009; 157:361-8.)
Resumo:
The goal of the current study was to compare the quality of esophageal speech and voice to videofluoroscopic features of the esophagus and pharyngoesophageal (PE) segment. The speech and voice characteristics of 30 laryngectomized patients were rated by 5 speech-language pathologists. Based on these ratings, patients were divided into 3 categories: fluent (n = 9), moderately fluent (n = 10) and nonfluent (n = 11). Videofluoroscopy of the PE region was then performed during both swallowing and voice production. An insufflation test and percutaneous pharyngeal plexus block were required in 9 patients to determine the etiology of poor esophageal voice production. The strongest videofluoroscopic indicators of nonfluent speakers were: (1) small or absent air reservoir and (2) lack of a vibrating PE segment. Fluent speakers presented with shorter PE segments (1.17 mm) compared to moderately fluent speakers (17.1-29.9 mm). Perceptually, fluent speakers presented with a predominantly rough vocal quality. In contrast, moderately fluent speakers presented with a tense quality. In addition, stoma blast noise was reduced in fluent speakers. Videofluoroscopic findings highly correlated with the quality of esophageal speech. Copyright (C) 2009 S. Karger AG, Basel
Resumo:
BACKGROUND: One of the key elements for a successful endoscopic intervention in the ventricular system is the ability to recognize the anatomic structures and use them as a reference. OBJECTIVE: To measure the choroid plexus with endoscopy in the interventricular foramen, together with the structures on the third ventricle floor, and to compare these variables. METHODS: An observational prospective study was carried out on 37 brains of cadavers for which the cause of death was assessed at the Death Check Unit of the University of Sao Paulo in April 2008. This study was done on adults of both sexes with a rigid neuroendoscope. Endoscopic images were recorded, submitted for correction of distortion, and then measured. RESULTS: The measurements of the choroid plexus in the interventricular foramen, laterolateral distance of mammillary bodies, distance from the infundibular recess to the mammillary bodies, and area of the triangle in the tuber cinereum were 1.71 +/- 0.77 mm, 2.23 +/- 0.74 mm, 3.22 +/- 0.82 mm, and 3.69 +/- 2.09 mm(2), respectively. The ventricle floor was opaque in 84% of cases. The internal distance of mammillary bodies was absent in 89%. Associations between the translucent floor of the third ventricle and laterolateral distance of mammillary bodies, internal distance of mammillary bodies, and age were identified. CONCLUSION: Before this research, there was no record of the measurements of the choroid plexus in the interventricular foramen. The remaining variables of the present study show a greater number in normal brains compared with others.
Resumo:
Background Facial motor evoked potential (FMEP) amplitude ratio reduction at the end of the surgery has been identified as a good predictor for postoperative facial nerve outcome. We sought to investigate variations in FMEP amplitude and waveform morphology during vestibular schwannoma (VS) resection and to correlate these measures with postoperative facial function immediately after surgery and at the last follow-up. Methods Intraoperative orbicularis oculi and oris muscles FMEP data from 35 patients undergoing surgery for VS resection were collected, then analysed by surgical stage: initial, dural opening, tumour dissection (TuDis), tumour resection (TuRes) and final. Findings Immediately after surgery, postoperative facial function correlated significantly with the FMEP amplitude ratio during TuDis, TuRes and final stages in both the orbicularis oculi (p = 0.003, 0.055 and 0.028, respectively) and oris muscles (p = 0.002, 0.104 and 0.014, respectively). At the last follow-up, however, facial function correlated significantly with the FMEP amplitude ratio only during the TuDis (p = 0.005) and final (p = 0.102) stages for the orbicularis oris muscle. At both time points, postoperative facial paresis correlated significantly with FMEP waveform deterioration in orbicularis oculi during the final stage (immediate, p = 0.023; follow-up, p = 0.116) and in orbicularis oris during the TuDis, TuRes and final stages (immediate, p = 0.071, 0.000 and 0.001, respectively; follow-up, p = 0.015, 0.001 and 0.01, respectively). Conclusions FMEP amplitude ratio and waveform morphology during VS resection seem to represent independent quantitative parameters that can be used to predict postoperative facial function. Event-to-baseline FMEP monitoring is quite useful to dictate when intraoperative changes in surgical strategy are warranted to reduce the chances of facial nerve injury.