193 resultados para Sex Chromosome Aberrations -- diagnosis
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Several neuropsychiatry disorders have shown a sexual dimorphism in their incidence, symptom profile and therapeutic response. A better understanding of the impact of sex hormones in emotional processing sexual dimorphism could bring tight to this important clinical finding. Some studies have provided evidence of sex differences in the identification of emotional faces, however, results are inconsistent and such inconsistency could be related to the lack of experimental control of the sex hormone status of participants. More recently, a few studies evaluated the modulation of facial emotion recognition by the phase of the menstrual cycle and sex hormones, however, none of them directly compared these results with a group of men. We evaluated the accuracy of facial emotion recognition in 40 healthy volunteers. Eleven women were assigned to early follicular group, nine women to the ovulatory group and 10 women to luteal group, depending on the phase of menstrual cycle, and a group of 10 men were also evaluated. Estrogen, progesterone and testosterone levels were assessed. The performance of the groups in the identification of emotional faces varied depending on the emotion. Early follicular group were more accurate to perceive angry faces than all other groups. Sadness was more accurately recognized by early follicular group than by luteal group and regarding the recognition of fearful faces a trend to a better performance and a significantly higher accuracy was observed, respectively, in the early follicular group and in the ovulatory group, in comparison to men. In women, estrogen negatively correlated to the accuracy in perception of angry mate faces. Our results indicate sex hormones to be implicated in a sexual dimorphism in facial emotion recognition, and highlight the importance of estrogen specifically in the recognition of negative emotions such as sadness, anger and fear. (C) 2009 Elsevier Ltd. All rights reserved.
Dorsal root ganglionectomy for the diagnosis of sensory neuropathies. Surgical technique and results
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Background: Inflammatory diseases stand out among sensory neuronopathies because, in their active phase, they can be treated with immunosuppressive agents. Immunosuppressive therapy may present severe adverse effects and requires previous inflammatory activity confirmation. Sensory neuronopathies are diagnosed based on clinical and EMG findings. Diagnostic confirmation and identification of inflammatory activity are based on sensory ganglion histopathological examination. We describe the surgical technique used for dorsal root ganglionectomy in patients with clinical/EMG diagnosis of sensory neuronopathies. Methods: The sensory ganglion was obtained from 15 patients through a small T7-T8 hemilaminectomy and foraminotomy to expose the C7 root from its origin to the spinal nerve bifurcation. In 6 patients, the dural cuff supposed to contain the ganglion was resected en bloc; and in 9 patients, the ganglion was obtained through a longitudinal incision of the dural cuff and microsurgical dissection from the ventral and dorsal roots and radicular arteries. All ganglia were histopathologically examined. Results: No ganglion was found in the dural cuff in 2 patients submitted to en bloc removal, and the ganglion was removed in all patients who underwent microsurgical dissection. All but 2 patients that had ganglion examination presented a neuronopathy of nerve cell loss, 3 with mononuclear inflammatory infiltrate. These patients underwent immunosuppressive therapy, and 2 of them presented clinical improvement. No surgical complications were observed. Conclusions: Microsurgical dorsal root ganglionectomy for diagnosing inflammatory sensory ganglionopathies was effective and safe. Although safe, en bloc resection of the proximal dural cuff was not effective for this purpose. (c) 2008 Published by Elsevier Inc.
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Objective To compare the demographic features, presenting manifestations, diagnostic investigations, disease course, and drug therapies of children with juvenile dermatomyositis (JDM) followed in Europe and Latin America. Methods Patients were inception cohorts seen between 1980 and 2004 in 27 paediatric rheumatology centres. The following information was collected through the review of patient charts: sex; age at disease onset; date of disease onset and diagnosis; onset type; presenting clinical features; diagnostic investigations; course type; and medications received during disease course. Results Four hundred and ninety patients (65.5% females, mean onset age 7.0 years, mean disease duration 7.7 years) were included. Disease presentation was acute or insidious in 57.1% and 42.9% of the patients, respectively. The course type was monophasic in 41.3% of patients and chronic polycyclic or continuous in 58.6% of patients. The more common presenting manifestations were muscle weakness (84.9%), Gottron`s papules (72.9%), heliotrope rash (62%), and malar rash (56.7%). Overall, the demographic and clinical features of the 2 continental cohorts were comparable. European patients received more frequently high-dose intravenous methylprednisolone, cyclosporine, cyclophosphamide, and azathioprine, while methotrexate and antimalarials medications were used more commonly by Latin American physicians. Conclusion The demographic and clinical characteristics of JDM are similar in European and Latin American patients. We found, however, several differences in the use of medications between European and Latin American paediatric rheumatologists.
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Objective: To investigate the accuracy of the Brazilian version of the Addenbrooke Cognitive Examination-revised (ACE-R) in the diagnosis of mild Alzheimer disease (AD). Background: The ACE-R is an accurate and brief cognitive battery for the detection of mild dementia, especially for the discrimination between AD and frontotemporal dementia. Methods: The battery was administered to 31 patients with mild AD and 62 age-matched and education-matched cognitively healthy controls. Both groups were selected using the Dementia Rating Scale and were submitted to the ACE-R. Depression was ruled out in both groups by the Cornell Scale for Depression in Dementia. The performance of patients and controls in the ACE-R was compared and receiver operator characteristic curve analysis was undertaken to ascertain the accuracy of the instrument for the diagnosis of mild AD. Results: The mean scores at the ACE-R were 63.10 +/- 10.22 points for patients with AD and 83.63 +/- 7.90 points for controls. The cut-off score < 78 yielded high diagnostic accuracy (receiver operator characteristic area under the curve = 0.947), with 100% sensitivity, 82.26% specificity, 73.8% positive predictive value, and 100% negative predictive value. Conclusions: The Brazilian version of the ACE-R displayed high diagnostic accuracy for the identification of mild AD in the studied sample.
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The differential diagnosis of renal tumors, particularly in adolescents, may be challenging. We describe an 11-year-old female with a primary intra-renal mass. Initial differential diagnoses included primitive neuroectodermal tumor (PNET), desmoplastic small round cell tumor (DSRCT), and Wilms Turner (WT). Extensive pathologic and molecular analysis on initial and relapsed tumor samples confirmed WT. The EWS-WTI and EWS-FL11 rearrange-merits, distinctive of DSRCT and PNET were negative. The differential diagnosis on monophasic blastemal WT may be complex. Primary renal DSRCT and MET have been rarely described. Nevertheless, molecular confirmation for these rare conditions may be necessary in selected cases. Pediatr Blood Cancer 2010;54:3 19-321. (C) 2009 Wiley-Liss, Inc.
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Objectives Posterior urethral valves (PUV) are the most common cause of renal impairment in boys during early childhood. Although antenatal suspicion of this pathology has become quite common in recent years, prenatal diagnosis remains challenging. The aim of this study was to evaluate the predictive value of different ultrasound criteria currently used to diagnose PUV. Methods We reviewed the antenatal and postnatal files of 54 male patients referred to our center from 2000 to 2006 after detection of fetal bilateral hydronephrosis. The following ultrasound criteria were evaluated in relation to the postnatal diagnosis of P U V: amniotic fluid volume, bladder wall thickness, bladder dilatation and the presence of the `keyhole sign`. Results Forty-two fetuses (77.8%) were suspected to have PUV on prenatal examination. Out of these, 29 (69.0%) had PUV confirmed postnatally. The sensitivity and specificity of the antenatal diagnosis of PUV were 94% and 43%, respectively. Increased bladder wall thickness and bladder dilatation were highly associated with the diagnosis of PUV (P < 0.001). However, a thick-walled bladder was observed in 39.1% and a dilated bladder in 47.8% of the infants with a postnatal diagnosis other than PUV. The presence of the keyhole sign was not found to predict a diagnosis of PUV (P = 0.27). Conclusion In this series the use of classical prenatal ultrasound signs to diagnose PUV showed high sensitivity but low specificity. The best diagnostic indicators were increased bladder wall thickness and dilatation of the bladder. The keyhole sign was not found to be a reliable predictor of PUV. Copyright (C) 2009 ISUOG. Published by John Wiley & Sons, Ltd.
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HIV-1-infected patients frequently have opportunistic esophageal infections which, when associated with severe immunodeficiency, can be attributed to unusual pathogens. The clinical presentation of several esophageal diseases is similar and the best method for a specific diagnosis of these patients has not been well defined. To evaluate the role of the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) in the etiologic definition of esophageal ulcers in HIV-1-infected patients, 96 esophageal biopsies from 79 HIV-1-infected patients were processed by PCR using specific primers for cytomegalovirus (CMV), herpes virus (HSV), human papilloma virus (HPV), HIV-1, Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Mycobacterium avium, Mycobacterium intracellulare, Treponema pallidum, and Haemophilus ducreyi. The PCR results were compared to the histopathologic results. Seventy-nine patients were studied (mean age: 34 years; 62% men; median CD4 + T cell = 103.59 cells/mu l (range 1-795.2 cells/mu l). The most common endoscopic findings were as follows: esophageal candidiasis (37.1%), esophageal ulcers (24.7%), esophagitis (11.2%), and lugol-negative areas (10.1%). The histopathologic findings in the esophageal ulcers (22 biopsies) were non-specific inflammation (31.8%), HSV (36.4%), Candida (13.6%), CMV (13.6%), or HPV disease (4.5%). In the esophageal ulcer biopsies, the PCR results were negative in 27.6% of cases, and positive for HIV (65.5%), CMV (31%), HPV (20.7%), HSV (10.3%), and H. ducreyi (6.9%). The histopathologic examination did not identify a pathogen or identified only Candida in 15 biopsies of esophageal ulcers. PCR was positive in ten (66.7%) and negative in five (33.3%) of these biopsies (idiopathic ulcers). PCR detected: HIV (53.3%), CMV (20%), HPV (13.3%), and H. ducreyi (6,7%). PCR detected more etiologic agents in esophageal ulcers than histopathology and was able to detect unusual pathogens. On the other hand, sometimes more than one pathogen was detected in the esophageal ulcers, making it difficult to reach an accurate diagnosis. This finding indicates the need for more studies to evaluate the benefit of this method in the routine evaluation of esophageal ulcer biopsies in HIV-1-infected patients.
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Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) is a rare disease in childhood which is almost exclusively associated with bcr-abl p210 (M-bcr) rearrangements. It has been suggested that co-expression of p 190 and p210 may be a pathway of CML progression in adult patients. We report two cases of pediatric patients with a diagnosis of CML who presented co-expression of the p210 and p190 transcripts during progression to the blastic phase. The present data suggest that p190 may be a secondary event in at least some cases of childhood CML, suggesting an association with progression to a blastic crisis in these patients. (c) 2008 Elsevier Ltd. All rights reserved.
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Background: There is little, though growing, interest in the research area of attitudes held among physicians towards disclosing the diagnosis of dementia and Alzheimer`s disease (AD), or the current practice on AD disclosure. This study aimed to investigate the practice and attitudes of specialized physicians towards AD diagnosis disclosure in Brazil. Methods: A questionnaire was devised to survey the current practice and attitudes regarding diagnosis disclosure of AD in Brazil and sent to specialized physicians (170 geriatricians, 300 neurologists and 500 psychiatrists) by electronic mail. Results: From 970 potential respondents, 181 physicians who usually attend AD patients returned the questionnaire. There were no significant differences between the three specialties regarding the frequency with which they informed patients of their AD diagnosis (p = 0.17). The results revealed that only 44.8% of the physicians would regularly inform the patient of the diagnosis, although 85.6% of these use clear terminology. Despite their usual practice, 76.8% would want to know their diagnosis if they themselves were affected by AD. Conclusions: Disclosure of AD diagnosis is not common among specialized physicians in Brazil and different factors are involved. In the clinical context, discussion on advantages of diagnosis disclosure can be useful for improving the care of AD patients and their families.
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Hemophilia A is an X-linked, inherited, bleeding disorder caused by the partial or total inactivity of the coagulation factor VIII (FVIII). Due to difficulties in the direct recognition of the disease-associated mutation in the F8 gene, indirect diagnosis using polymorphic markers located inside or close to the gene is used as an alternative for determining the segregation of the mutant gene within families and thus for detecting carrier individuals and/or assisting in prenatal diagnosis. This study characterizes the allelic and haplotype frequencies, genetic diversity, population differentiation and linkage disequilibrium of five microsatellites (F8Int1, F8Int13, F8Int22, F8Int25.3 and IKBKG) in samples of healthy individuals from Sao Paulo, Rio Grande do Sul and Pernambuco and of patients from Sao Paulo with haemophilia A to determine the degree of informativeness of these microsatellites for diagnostic purposes. The interpopulational diversity parameters highlight the differences among the analyzed population samples. Regional differences in allelic frequencies must be taken into account when conducting indirect diagnosis of haemophilia A. With the exception of IKBKG, all of the microsatellites presented high heterozygosity levels. Using the markers described, diagnosis was possible in 10 of 11 families. The F8Int22, F8Int1, F8Int13, F8Int25.3 and IKBKG microsatellites were informative in seven, six, five and two of the cases, respectively, demonstrating the effectiveness of using these microsatellites in prenatal diagnosis and in carrier identification in the Brazilian population.
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BACKGROUND: Comparative genomic hybridization (CGH) is a valuable alternative to fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) for preimplantation genetic screening (PGS) because it allows full karyotype analysis. However, this approach requires the cryopreservation of biopsied embryos until results are available. The aim of this study is to reduce the hybridization period of CGH, in order to make this short-CGH technique suitable for PGS of Day-3 embryos, avoiding the cryopreservation step. METHODS: Thirty-two fibroblasts from six aneuploid cell lines (Coriell) and 48 blastomeres from 10 Day-4 embryos, discarded after PGS by FISH with 9 probes (9-chr-FISH), were analysed by short-CGH. A reanalysis by the standard 72 h-CGH and FISH using telomeric probes was performed when no concordant results between short-CGH and FISH diagnosis were observed. The short-CGH was subsequently applied in a clinical case of advanced maternal age. RESULTS: In 100% of the fibroblasts analysed, the characteristic aneuploidies of each cell line were detected by short-CGH. The results of the 48 blastomeres screened by short-CGH were supported by both 72 h-CGH results and FISH reanalysis. The chromosomes most frequently involved in aneuploidy were 22 and 16, but aneuploidies for the other chromosomes, excepting 1, 10 and 13, were also detected. Forty-one of the 94 aneuploid events observed (43.6%) corresponded to chromosomes which are not analysed by 9-chr-FISH. CONCLUSIONS: We have performed a preliminary validation of the short-CGH technique, including one clinical case, suggesting this approach may be applied to Day-3 aneuploidy analysis, thereby avoiding embryo cryopreservation and perhaps helping to improve implantation rate after PGS.
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Galectin-3 (Gal-3) is a glycan-binding protein highly expressed in several tumors, including brain neoplasms. This protein has been demonstrated to be correlated with adverse prognosis in some tumor types. However, the role of Gal-3 in pediatric posterior fossa tumors (PPFTs) has not yet been fully addressed. The goals of this study were to evaluate Gal-3 expression in a series of PPFTs and verify whether this expression is related to patient outcome. Gal-3 expression was analyzed by immunohistochemistry in 42 cases of surgically resected primary PPFTs. Surgeries were performed in our institution from January 2003 to December 2006. Tumor samples consisted of 21 pilocytic astrocytomas (PAs), 13 medulloblastomas, 4 ependymomas, 2 diffuse cerebellar astrocytomas, and 2 atypical teratoid/rhabdoid tumors (AT/RTs). All PAs and ependymomas strongly showed Gal-3 expression, whereas no immunostaining was observed in medulloblastomas and diffuse astrocytomas. In AT/RTs, Gal-3 expression was conspicuous but heterogeneous, being mainly observed in rhabdoid cells. Concerning the Gal-3 expressing tumors, no relationship was observed between the degree of expression and patient survival. Gal-3 was strongly expressed in reactive astrocytes, normal endothelial cells, and macrophages in the adjacent non-neoplastic brain parenchyma. Interestingly, the endothelial cells in the tumor bulk of PAs lacked Gal-3 expression. Gal-3 is differentially expressed in PPFTs, but its expression shows no correlation with patient outcome. However, the evaluation of Gal-3 is helpful in establishing a differential diagnosis among PPFTs, especially between PAs and diffuse astrocytomas, and in some circumstances between medulloblastomas and AT/RTs.
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Leptospirosis is a zoonosis of multisystem involvement caused by pathogenic strains of the genus Leptospira. In the last few years, intensive studies aimed at the development of a vaccine have provided important knowledge about the nature of the immunological mechanisms of the host. The purpose of this study was to analyze the immune responses to two recombinant proteins, MPL17 and MPL21 (encoded by the genes LIC10765 and LIC13131, respectively) of Leptospira interrogans serovar Copenhageni in individuals during infection. The recombinant proteins were expressed in Escherichia coli as six-His tag fusion proteins and were purified from the soluble bacterial fraction by affinity chromatography with Ni2+ -charged resin. The recombinant proteins were used to evaluate their ability to bind to immunoglobulin G (IgG) (and IgG subclass) or IgM antibodies in serum samples from patients in the early and convalescent phases of leptospirosis (n = 52) by enzyme-linked immunosorbent assays. The prevalences of total IgG antibodies against MPL17 and MPL21 were 38.5% and 21.2%, respectively. The titers achieved with MPL17 were statistically significantly higher than those obtained by the reference microscopic agglutination test. The specificity of the assay was estimated to be 95.5% for MPL17 and 80.6% for MPL21 when serum samples from individuals with unrelated febrile diseases and control healthy donors were tested. The proteins are conserved among Leptospira strains that cause human and animal diseases. MPL17 and MPL21 are most likely new surface proteins of leptospires, as revealed by liquid-phase immunofluorescence assays with living organisms. Our results demonstrate that these recombinant proteins are highly immunogenic and, when they are used together, might be useful as a means of diagnosing leptospirosis.
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Organisms of the genera Toxoplasma, Hammondia and Neospora, the Hammondia-like organisms, are closely related coccidian with similarly sized oocysts. Therefore, a diagnosis based on microscopy of oocysts in feces is not a method of choice for species identification of these important parasites. In this paper, we present a polymerase chain reaction coupled with restriction fragment length polymorphism (PCR-RFLP) method to differentially diagnose oocysts of Toxoplasma gondii from oocyst of Hammondia hammondi. Another PCR-RFLP was designed to differentiate oocysts of Hammondia heydorni from oocysts of Neospora spp. Both PCR-RFLP are based on nucleotide sequences of the Hsp70 coding gene. In conclusion, we presented two alternative molecular diagnostic assays that can be successfully applied for the differentiation of oocysts of Hammondia-like organisms shed by felids and canids.
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The present study aimed to determine whether Cryptosporidium oocysts were present in stools from captive snakes at Fundacao Parque Zoo logic (Zoological Park Foundation) in Sno Paulo, Brazil. Two collections were performed; the first in July 2008 and the second in February 2009. Fecal samples were collected from 74 enclosures that housed 101 individuals of 23 snake species. The stool specimens collected from 16 out of the 74 enclosures (21.6%) contained Cryptosporidium spp. oocysts; all of them were confirmed as Cryptosporidium serpent is, using molecular techniques. Only in three (18.7%) out of the 16 enclosures with positive samples were there animals with clinical signs compatible with infection by C. serpentis, such as regurgitation and significant progressive weight loss. From the results, it was concluded that diagnostic examinations need to be performed periodically, even on clinically healthy animals, as a preventive measure.