An Empirical Study of the Use of Relevance Information in Inductive Logic Programming

Srinivasan, A., King, R. D. and Bain, M.E. (2003) An Empirical Study of the Use of Relevance Information in Inductive Logic Programming. Journal of Machine Learning Research. 4(Jul):369-383

Long-term trends in fine particle number concentrations in the urban atmosphere of Brisbane : the relevance of traffic emissions and new particle formation

The measurement of submicrometre (< 1.0 m) and ultrafine particles (diameter < 0.1 m) number concentration have attracted attention since the last decade because the potential health impacts associated with exposure to these particles can be more significant than those due to exposure to larger particles. At present, ultrafine particles are not regularly monitored and they are yet to be incorporated into air quality monitoring programs. As a result, very few studies have analysed their long-term and spatial variations in ultrafine particle concentration, and none have been in Australia. To address this gap in scientific knowledge, the aim of this research was to investigate the long-term trends and seasonal variations in particle number concentrations in Brisbane, Australia. Data collected over a five-year period were analysed using weighted regression models. Monthly mean concentrations in the morning (6:00-10:00) and the afternoon (16:00-19:00) were plotted against time in months, using the monthly variance as the weights. During the five-year period, submicrometre and ultrafine particle concentrations increased in the morning by 105.7% and 81.5% respectively whereas in the afternoon there was no significant trend. The morning concentrations were associated with fresh traffic emissions and the afternoon concentrations with the background. The statistical tests applied to the seasonal models, on the other hand, indicated that there was no seasonal component. The spatial variation in size distribution in a large urban area was investigated using particle number size distribution data collected at nine different locations during different campaigns. The size distributions were represented by the modal structures and cumulative size distributions. Particle number peaked at around 30 nm, except at an isolated site dominated by diesel trucks, where the particle number peaked at around 60 nm. It was found that ultrafine particles contributed to 82%-90% of the total particle number. At the sites dominated by petrol vehicles, nanoparticles (< 50 nm) contributed 60%-70% of the total particle number, and at the site dominated by diesel trucks they contributed 50%. Although the sampling campaigns took place during different seasons and were of varying duration these variations did not have an effect on the particle size distributions. The results suggested that the distributions were rather affected by differences in traffic composition and distance to the road. To investigate the occurrence of nucleation events, that is, secondary particle formation from gaseous precursors, particle size distribution data collected over a 13 month period during 5 different campaigns were analysed. The study area was a complex urban environment influenced by anthropogenic and natural sources. The study introduced a new application of time series differencing for the identification of nucleation events. To evaluate the conditions favourable to nucleation, the meteorological conditions and gaseous concentrations prior to and during nucleation events were recorded. Gaseous concentrations did not exhibit a clear pattern of change in concentration. It was also found that nucleation was associated with sea breeze and long-range transport. The implications of this finding are that whilst vehicles are the most important source of ultrafine particles, sea breeze and aged gaseous emissions play a more important role in secondary particle formation in the study area.

Clinical relevance of MTHFR, eNOS, ACE, and ApoE gene polymorphisms and serum vitamin profile among Malay patients with ischemic stroke

Background The purpose of this study was threefold. First, it was to determine the relationship between serum vitamin profiles and ischemic stroke. The second purpose was to investigate the association of methylenetetrahydrofolate reductase (MTHFR), endothelial nitric oxide synthase (eNOS), angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE), and apolipoprotein-E (ApoE) gene polymorphisms with ischemic stroke and further correlate with serum vitamin profiles among ischemic stroke patients. The third purpose of the study was to highlight the interaction of MTHFR and eNOS haplotypes with serum vitamin profiles and ischemic stroke risks. Methods Polymorphisms of these genes were analyzed in age-, sex-, and ethnicity-matched case–controls (n = 594); serum vitamin profiles were determined using immunoassays. Results The MTHFR 677C>T, 1298A>C, eNOS intron 4a/b, and ApoE polymorphisms were significantly associated with the increased risk of ischemic stroke. Elevated serum homocysteine and vitamin B12 levels were associated with MTHFR 677C>T and eNOS intron 4a/b polymorphisms. The ApoE and eNOS −786T>C polymorphisms were associated with increased serum vitamin B12 levels. However, none of the polymorphisms influenced serum folate levels except for the MTHFR 1298A>C. Different patterns of MTHFR and eNOS haplotypes tend to affect serum vitamin profiles to different degrees, which contribute to either different susceptibility risk or protective effect on ischemic stroke. Overall, increased levels of serum homocysteine and vitamin B12 levels were associated with higher risk of ischemic stroke in the investigated population. Conclusions The present study suggests that the genotypes and haplotypes of MTHFR 677C>T and eNOS intron 4a/b polymorphisms are potential serum biomarkers in the pathophysiological processes of ischemic stroke, by modulating homocysteine and vitamin B12 levels.

Predicting interpretability of metabolome models based on behavior, putative identity, and biological relevance of explanatory signals

Enot, D. P., Beckmann, M., Overy, D., Draper, J. (2006). Predicting interpretability of metabolome models based on behavior, putative identity, and biological relevance of explanatory signals. Proceedings of the National Academy of Sciences of the USA, 103(40), 14865-14870. Sponsorship: BBSRC RAE2008

Relevance of breast cancer hormone receptors and other factors to the efficacy of adjuvant tamoxifen: patient-level meta-analysis of randomised trials

Background: As trials of 5 years of tamoxifen in early breast cancer mature, the relevance of hormone receptor measurements (and other patient characteristics) to long-term outcome can be assessed increasingly reliably. We report updated meta-analyses of the trials of 5 years of adjuvant tamoxifen.
Methods: We undertook a collaborative meta-analysis of individual patient data from 20 trials (n=21457) in early breast cancer of about 5 years of tamoxifen versus no adjuvant tamoxifen, with about 80% compliance. Recurrence and death rate ratios (RRs) were from log-rank analyses by allocated treatment.
Findings: In oestrogen receptor (ER)-positive disease (n=10 645), allocation to about 5 years of tamoxifen substantially reduced recurrence rates throughout the first 10 years (RR 0.53 [SE 0.03] during years 0-4 and RR 0.68 [0.06] during years 5-9 [both 2p<0.00001]; but RR 0.97 [0.10] during years 10-14, suggesting no further gain or loss after year 10). Even in marginally ER-positive disease (10-19 fmol/mg cytosol protein) the recurrence reduction was substantial (RR 0.67 [0.08]). In ER-positive disease, the RR was approximately independent of progesterone receptor status (or level), age, nodal status, or use of chemotherapy. Breast cancer mortality was reduced by about a third throughout the first 15 years (RR 0.71 [0.05] during years 0-4, 0.66 [0.05] during years 5-9, and 0.68 [0.08] during years 10-14; p<0.0001 for extra mortality reduction during each separate time period). Overall non-breast-cancer mortality was little affected, despite small absolute increases in thromboembolic and uterine cancer mortality (both only in women older than 55 years), so all-cause mortality was substantially reduced. In ER-negative disease, tamoxifen had little or no effect on breast cancer recurrence or mortality.
Interpretation: 5 years of adjuvant tamoxifen safely reduces 15-year risks of breast cancer recurrence and death. ER status was the only recorded factor importantly predictive of the proportional reductions. Hence, the absolute risk reductions produced by tamoxifen depend on the absolute breast cancer risks (after any chemotherapy) without tamoxifen.
Funding: Cancer Research UK, British Heart Foundation, and Medical Research Council.

Clinical relevance of the ESKAPE pathogens.

In recent years, the Infectious Diseases Society of America has highlighted a faction of antibiotic-resistant bacteria (Enterococcus faecium, Staphylococcus aureus, Klebsiella pneumoniae, Acinetobacter baumannii, Pseudomonas aeruginosa and Enterobacter spp.) - acronymically dubbed 'the ESKAPE pathogens' - capable of 'escaping' the biocidal action of antibiotics and mutually representing new paradigms in pathogenesis, transmission and resistance. This review aims to consolidate clinically relevant background information on the ESKAPE pathogens and provide a contemporary summary of bacterial resistance, alongside pertinent microbiological considerations necessary to face the mounting threat of antimicrobial resistance.

Evidence-based practice: the relevance of systematic reviews.

Aim:
To demonstrate how systematic reviews provide robust evidence to inform clinical decision making in practice.

Background
Systematic reviews collate findings from a number of research studies in order to provide a comprehensive and reliable summary of the best available evidence. The use of systematic reviews to inform practice based decisions has increased as a result of the overwhelming amount of research literature available, poor quality of research evidence and the need to ensure practice is based upon the best available evidence. Systematic reviews are an efficient way of coping with large volumes of data to answer focused research questions. They differ from traditional literature reviews as they adhere to an explicit scientific process. The use of explicit and rigorous methods to identify, appraise and synthesise relevant studies minimises bias and provides a reliable basis for decision making. As a result systematic reviews provide clear evidence on the effectiveness of a healthcare intervention to inform policy and decision making across healthcare systems. An example of how the findings from systematic reviews can provide reliable evidence to inform healthcare decisions will be provided in this presentation1. This will demonstrate how focused clinical questions can be answered by systematic reviews and translated into practice.

Reference:
1. McGaughey J, Alderdice F, Fowler R, Kapila A, Moutray M. (2007) Outreach and Early Warning Systems (EWS) for the prevention of Intensive Care admission admission and death of critically ill adult patients on general hospital wards (REVIEW). The Cochrane Database of Systematic Reviews 3. art no CD005529

Outcome analysis of immediately placed, immediately restored implants in the esthetic area: The clinical relevance of different interimplant distances

Background: The purpose of this study was to compare and evaluate bone and soft tissue levels between immediately placed, immediately restored implants positioned in the esthetic anterior region with different interimplant distances (IID). Methods: Forty-nine patients requiring multiple implant restorations in the anterior regions received 152 implants, which were restored immediately. Periapical radiographs and digital images of 99 interimplant sites were taken at the regular follow-up examinations at 0, 6, 12, and 24 months after surgery. They were digitally recorded and analyzed. The presence of the interproximal papilla was assessed and compared to the distances between the bone crest and the contact point between the natural teeth and the restoration crowns. Results: Implants with an IID <2 mm seemed to lose less bone laterally. When the IID was <2 mm, vertical crestal bone loss was significantly greater than in the group with IID >4 mm. The percentage of the interproximal papilla presence decreased when the distance between the bone crest and the contact point between the two restoration crowns was >6 mm and when two implants were placed at a distance >= 4 mm. Conclusions: To guarantee a better esthetic result in immediately placed, immediately restored implants, the contact point between the two prosthetic crowns should be placed at 3 to 4 mm, and never >6 mm, from the bone peak. Two adjacent implants should be placed at a distance >2 and <4 mm.

Knowledge translation in Uganda : a qualitative study of Ugandan midwives' and managers' perceived relevance of the sub-elements of the context cornerstone in the PARIHS framework

BACKGROUND: A large proportion of the annual 3.3 million neonatal deaths could be averted if there was a high uptake of basic evidence-based practices. In order to overcome this 'know-do' gap, there is an urgent need for in-depth understanding of knowledge translation (KT). A major factor to consider in the successful translation of knowledge into practice is the influence of organizational context. A theoretical framework highlighting this process is Promoting Action on Research Implementation in Health Services (PARIHS). However, research linked to this framework has almost exclusively been conducted in high-income countries. Therefore, the objective of this study was to examine the perceived relevance of the subelements of the organizational context cornerstone of the PARIHS framework, and also whether other factors in the organizational context were perceived to influence KT in a specific low-income setting. METHODS: This qualitative study was conducted in a district of Uganda, where focus group discussions and semi-structured interviews were conducted with midwives (n = 18) and managers (n = 5) within the catchment area of the general hospital. The interview guide was developed based on the context sub-elements in the PARIHS framework (receptive context, culture, leadership, and evaluation). Interviews were transcribed verbatim, followed by directed content analysis of the data. RESULTS: The sub-elements of organizational context in the PARIHS framework--i.e., receptive context, culture, leadership, and evaluation--also appear to be relevant in a low-income setting like Uganda, but there are additional factors to consider. Access to resources, commitment and informal payment, and community involvement were all perceived to play important roles for successful KT. CONCLUSIONS: In further development of the context assessment tool, assessing factors for successful implementation of evidence in low-income settings--resources, community involvement, and commitment and informal payment--should be considered for inclusion. For low-income settings, resources are of significant importance, and might be considered as a separate subelement of the PARIHS framework as a whole.

The relevance of Asian development bank: existing in the shadow of the Asian infrastructure investment bank

This paper analyses the potential impact of the China-led Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) on the Japan-USA-led Asian Development Bank (ADB). Given the financial strengths and the technical know-how of the newly formed AIIB there is a question about thefuture role and indeed relevance of the ADB. The questions canvassed in this article refer to ADB’s ability to change and adapt to the new situation, where it is no longer the dominant multi-lateral development bank (MDB) in the Asia-Pacific region. Against this background the discussion turns to issues concerning the geo-political sphere of influence of the ADB andAIIB and analyses the ADB – AIIB geo-political equilibrium in the Asia-Pacific region. Subsequently this paper discusses factors that may impact on ADB’s future relevance.

Stratification and Prognostic Relevance of Jass's Molecular Classification of Colorectal Cancer

Background: The current proposed model of colorectal tumorigenesis is based primarily on CpG island methylator phenotype (CIMP), microsatellite instability (MSI), KRAS, BRAF, and methylation status of 0-6-Methylguanine DNA Methyltransferase (MGMT) and classifies tumors into five subgroups. The aim of this study is to validate this molecular classification and test its prognostic relevance. Methods: Three hundred two patients were included in this study. Molecular analysis was performed for five CIMP-related promoters (CRABP1, MLH1, p16INK4a, CACNA1G, NEUROG1), MGMT, MSI, KRAS, and BRAF. Methylation in at least 4 promoters or in one to three promoters was considered CIMP-high and CIMP-low (CIMP-H/L), respectively. Results: CIMP-H, CIMP-L, and CIMP-negative were found in 7.1, 43, and 49.9% cases, respectively. One hundred twenty-three tumors (41%) could not be classified into any one of the proposed molecular subgroups, including 107 CIMP-L, 14 CIMP-H, and two CIMP-negative cases. The 10 year survival rate for CIMP-high patients [22.6% (95%CI: 7-43)] was significantly lower than for CIMP-L or CIMP-negative (p = 0.0295). Only the combined analysis of BRAF and CIMP (negative versus L/H) led to distinct prognostic subgroups. Conclusion: Although CIMP status has an effect on outcome, our results underline the need for standardized definitions of low- and high-level CIMP, which clearly hinders an effective prognostic and molecular classification of colorectal cancer.

Eosinophilic esophagitis in adults--no clinical relevance of wheat and rye sensitizations

BACKGROUND: Eosinophilic esophagitis (EE) is often associated with concomitant atopic diseases. In children with EE in whom food allergens have been identified as causative factors, elemental and elimination diets result in an improvement or resolution of symptoms. Most adult EE patients are sensitized to aeroallergens, which cross-react with plant-derived food allergens, most commonly to grass pollen and cereals. AIMS OF THE STUDY: To investigate the clinical relevance of the sensitization to wheat and rye, and the efficacy of an allergen-specific elimination diet in adult EE patients. METHODS: Six patients (five men, one women) with permanently active EE sensitized to grass pollen and the cereals wheat and rye underwent a double-blind placebo-controlled food challenge and were kept on an elimination diet avoiding wheat and rye for 6 weeks. RESULTS: The challenge tests with wheat and rye did not provoke any EE symptoms in all patients. The elimination diet failed in reducing disease activity. Although one patient noticed an improvement of symptoms, endoscopic and histopathologic findings remained unchanged. CONCLUSIONS: In adult EE patients, sensitization to wheat and rye does not seem causative for EE. Elimination diet is not a reliable and efficient therapeutic measure in EE patients sensitized to wheat and rye. Low specific immunoglobulin-E levels to wheat and rye may be a consequence of the underlying grass pollen allergy.

Clinical relevance of coronary angiography at the time of percutaneous closure of a patent foramen ovale

BACKGROUND: The value of incidental coronary angiography during percutaneous shunt closure to screen for asymptomatic coronary artery disease (CAD) is unknown. METHODS: On the occasion of percutaneous closure of patent foramen ovale (PFO), incidental coronary angiography routinely offered to men >40 and women >50 years, or younger patients with particular risk patterns, was performed in 575 patients (64% men, mean age 55 +/- 10 years, mean 1.5 +/- 1.1 cardiovascular risk factors) without overt history, signs, or symptoms of CAD. RESULTS: CAD was found in 164 patients (29%); 53 (9%) had >or=50% diameter stenoses. Thirty patients (5%) had one-vessel, 13 (2%) two-vessel, and 10 (2%) three-vessel disease. Patients with CAD (n = 164) were older (60 +/- 9 vs. 53 +/- 10 years; P < 0.0001), more frequently male (76% vs. 59%; P = 0.0002), and had a higher body mass index (26.5 +/- 4.0 vs. 25.4 +/- 4.6; P = 0.006) and more cardiovascular risk factors (2.0 +/- 1.1 vs. 1.2 +/- 1.0; P < 0.0001). There were six procedural complications (1%). Two were unequivocally related to coronary angiography: one minor stroke (diplopia), and one iatrogenic dissection of the right coronary ostium requiring stenting. Furthermore, four arteriovenous fistulae at the puncture site requiring elective surgical closure were possibly related to coronary angiography. Forty-five patients (8% of total) underwent percutaneous (n = 43) or surgical (n = 2) revascularization. CONCLUSIONS: In selected asymptomatic patients referred for percutaneous PFO closure, incidental coronary angiography discloses a rather high prevalence of clinically unsuspected CAD. These findings are relevant not only for timely revascularization but also for maintenance of long-term antiplatelet therapy beyond the few months recommended after PFO closure.

Characteristics, determinants, and clinical relevance of CD4 T cell recovery to <500 cells/microL in HIV type 1-infected individuals receiving potent antiretroviral therapy

BACKGROUND: The CD4 T cell count recovery in human immunodeficiency virus type 1 (HIV-1)-infected individuals receiving potent antiretroviral therapy (ART) shows high variability. We studied the determinants and the clinical relevance of incomplete CD4 T cell restoration. METHODS: Longitudinal CD4 T cell count was analyzed in 293 participants of the Swiss HIV Cohort Study who had had a plasma HIV-1 RNA load <1000 copies/mL for > or =5 years. CD4 T cell recovery was stratified by CD4 T cell count 5 years after initiation of ART (> or =500 cells/microL was defined as a complete response, and <500 cells/microL was defined as an incomplete response). Determinants of incomplete responses and clinical events were evaluated using logistic regression and survival analyses. RESULTS: The median CD4 T cell count increased from 180 cells/microL at baseline to 576 cells/microL 5 years after ART initiation. A total of 35.8% of patients were incomplete responders, of whom 47.6% reached a CD4 T cell plateau <500 cells/microL. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention HIV-1 disease category B and/or C events occurred in 21% of incomplete responders and in 14.4% of complete responders (P>.05). Older age (adjusted odds ratio [aOR], 1.71 per 10-year increase; 95% confidence interval [CI], 1.21-2.43), lower baseline CD4 T cell count (aOR, 0.37 per 100-cell increase; 95% CI, 0.28-0.49), and longer duration of HIV infection (aOR, 2.39 per 10-year increase; 95% CI, 1.19-4.81) were significantly associated with a CD4 T cell count <500 cells/microL at 5 years. The median increases in CD4 T cell count after 3-6 months of ART were smaller in incomplete responders (P<.001) and predicted, in conjunction with baseline CD4 T cell count and age, incomplete response with 80% sensitivity and 72% specificity. CONCLUSION: Individuals with incomplete CD4 T cell recovery to <500 cells/microL had more advanced HIV-1 infection at baseline. CD4 T cell changes during the first 3-6 months of ART already reflect the capacity of the immune system to replenish depleted CD4 T lymphocytes.

Diagnostic approach to hypercalcemia: relevance of parathyroid hormone and parathyroid hormone-related protein measurements

Background: Parathyroid hormone (PTH) and parathyroid hormone-related protein (PTH-rP) are two potent hypercalcemic hormones that act on the same targets. Autonomous secretion of the former is involved in primary hyperparathyroidism (PHPT), whereas the latter is responsible for humoral hypercalcemia of malignancy (HHM). Methods: From 250 consecutive, hypercalcemic serum samples sent to our laboratory for assessment of intact PTH, we were able to obtain clinical information, as well as an additional plasma sample for PTH-rP measurement, in 134 patients. At the time of sampling, patients could be classified into seven groups: cancer without known bone metastases (CaNoMeta, n=36), cancer with bone metastases (CaMeta, n=9), no evidence of cancer (noEvCa, n=71), sarcoidosis (Sarc, n=3), end-stage renal disease (ESRD, n=12), vitamin D overdose (VIT-D, n=2), and hyperthyroidism (Thyr, n=1). Results: In the CaNoMeta group, 29/36 patients had elevated PTH-rP levels, 9/36 patients had inappropriately elevated PTH levels, and 5/36 had elevated levels of both hormones. In the CaMeta group, three of the nine patients had inappropriately elevated PTH levels, two of them with concomitantly elevated PTH-rP levels. In the NoEvCa group, 63/71 patients had an inappropriate elevation of PTH levels and were diagnosed as having PHPT. Four of the 71 patients had elevated levels of both PTH and PTH-rP; three of them were in poor health and died within a short period of time. All of the ESRD patients had very high PTH and normal PTH-rP levels, except for one woman with high PTH-rP and undetectable PTH levels; she died from what later turned out to be a recurrent bladder carcinoma. In the Sarc, Vit-D, and Thyr groups, both PTH and PTH-rP levels were normal. Conclusions: (1) Elevated PTH-rP levels are a common finding in cancer patients without bone metastases. Intact PTH, however, should always be measured in hypercalcemic patients with malignancy because concurrent primary hyperparathyroidism is not rare. (2) Primary hyperparathyroidism accounts for hypercalcemia in 90% of patients without evidence of cancer whose PTH-rP levels may also be found to be elevated in a few cases, even some with surgically demonstrated parathyroid adenoma.