Gene expression profile analysis of primary glioblastomas and non-neoplastic brain tissue: identification of potential target genes by oligonucleotide microarray and real-time quantitative PCR

The prognosis of glioblastomas is still extremely poor and the discovery of novel molecular therapeutic targets can be important to optimize treatment strategies. Gene expression analyses comparing normal and neoplastic tissues have been used to identify genes associated with tumorigenesis and potential therapeutic targets. We have used this approach to identify differentially expressed genes between primary glioblastomas and non-neoplastic brain tissues. We selected 20 overexpressed genes related to cell cycle, cellular movement and growth, proliferation and cell-to-cell signaling and analyzed their expression levels by real time quantitative PCR in cDNA obtained from microdissected fresh tumor tissue from 20 patients with primary glioblastomas and from 10 samples of non-neoplastic white matter tissue. The gene expression levels were significantly higher in glioblastomas than in non-neoplastic white matter in 18 out of 20 genes analyzed: P < 0.00001 for CDKN2C, CKS2, EEF1A1, EMP3, PDPN, BNIP2, CA12, CD34, CDC42EP4, PPIE, SNAI2, GDF15 and MMP23b; and NFIA (P: 0.0001), GPS1 (P: 0.0003), LAMA1 (P: 0.002), STIM1 (P: 0.006), and TASP1 (P: 0.01). Five of these genes are located in contiguous loci at 1p31-36 and 2 at 17q24-25 and 8 of them encode surface membrane proteins. PDPN and CD34 protein expression were evaluated by immunohistochemistry and they showed concordance with the PCR results. The present results indicate the presence of 18 overexpressed genes in human primary glioblastomas that may play a significant role in the pathogenesis of these tumors and that deserve further functional investigation as attractive candidates for new therapeutic targets.

Evaluating budesonide efficacy in nasal polyposis and predicting the resistance to treatment

Cell resistance to glucocorticoids is a major problem in the treatment of nasal polyposis (NP). The objectives of this study were to observe the effect of budesonide on the expression of IL-1 beta, TNF-alpha, granulocyte macrophage-colony stimulating factor, intercellular adhesion molecule (ICAM)-1, basic fibroblast growth factor, eotaxin-2, glucocorticoid receptor (GR)-alpha, GR-beta, c-Fos and p65 in nasal polyps and to correlate their expression to clinical response. Biopsies from nasal polyps were obtained from 20 patients before and after treatment with topical budesonide. Clinical response to treatment was monitored by a questionnaire and nasal endoscopy. The mRNA levels of the studied genes were measured by real-time quantitative (RQ)-PCR. There was a significant decrease in the expression of TNF-alpha (P < 0.05), eotaxin-2 (P < 0.05) and p65 (P < 0.05) in NP after treatment. Poor responders to glucocorticoids showed higher expression of IL-1 beta (3.74 vs. 0.14; P < 0.005), ICAM-1 (1.91 vs. 0.29; P < 0.05) and p65 (0.70 vs. 0.16; P < 0.05) before treatment. Following treatment, IL-1 beta (4.18 vs. 0.42; P < 0.005) and GR-beta (0.95 vs. 0.28; P < 0.05) mRNA expression was higher in this group. Topical budesonide reduced the expression of TNF-alpha, eotaxin-2 and p65. Poor responders to topical budesonide exhibit higher levels of IL-1 beta, ICAM-1 and nuclear factor (NF)-kappa B at diagnosis and higher expression of both IL-1 beta and GR-beta after treatment. These results emphasize the anti-inflammatory action of topical budesonide at the molecular level and its importance in the treatment of NP. Nevertheless, IL-1 beta, ICAM-1 and NF-kappa B may be associated with primary resistance to glucocorticoids in NP, whereas higher expression of GR-beta in poor responders only after glucocorticoid treatment may represent a secondary drug resistance mechanism in this disease.

Expression of transcription factors NF-kappa B and AP-1 in nasal polyposis

Background The treatment and prognosis of nasal polyposis (NP) may be influenced by transcription factors, but their expression is poorly understood. Objective To determine the expression of transcription factors [(nuclear factor-kappa B) NF-kappa B and (activator protein) AP-1], cytokines [IL-1 beta, TNF-alpha and (granulocytes and macrophage colony-stimulating factor) GM-CSF], growth factor (b-FGF), chemokine (eotaxin-2) and adhesion molecule (ICAM-1) in NP in comparison with nasal mucosa controls. Methods Cross-sectional study. Twenty biopsies of nasal polyps were compared with eight middle turbinate biopsies. p65, c-Fos, IL-1 beta, TNF-alpha, ICAM-1, b-FGF, eotaxin-2 and GM-CSF were analysed through RQ-PCR, and p65 and c-Fos were also analysed through Western blotting. Results NF-kappa B expression was increased in patients with NP when compared with control mucosa (P < 0.05), whereas AP-1 expression did not differ significantly between groups. Expressions of IL-1 beta, eotaxin-2 and b-FGF were also increased in patients with NP compared with controls (P < 0.05). Conclusions The transcription factor NF-kappa B is more expressed in NP than in control mucosa. This is important in NP because NF-kappa B can induce the transcription of cytokines, chemokines and adhesion molecules, which play an important role in the inflammatory process. Moreover, transcription factors influence the response to corticosteroids, which are the basis of NP treatment. Transcription factor AP-1 does not seem to have a significant role in the pathological process.

Number of expressed cancer/testis antigens identifies focal adhesion pathway genes as possible targets for multiple myeloma therapy

Considering that the importance of cancer/testis (CT) antigens in multiple myeloma (MM) biology is still under investigation, the present study aimed to: (1) identify genes differentially expressed in MM using microarray analysis of plasma cell samples, separated according to the number of expressed CTs; (2) examine possible pathways related to MM pathogenesis; (3) validate the expression of candidate genes by quantitative real-time PCR (RQ-PCR). Three samples predominantly positive (>6 expressed), including the U266 cell line, and three samples predominantly negative (0 or 1 expressed CT for the 13 analyzed CT antigens), were submitted for microarray analysis. Validation by RQ-PCR from 24 MM samples showed that the ITGAS gene was downregulated in predominantly positive (>6 expressed CTs, p = 0.0030) and in tumor versus normal plasma cells (p = 0.0182). The RhoD gene was overexpressed in tumor plasma cells when compared to normal plasma cells (p = 0.0339). Results of the microarray analysis corroborate the hypothesis that MM could be separated into predominantly positive and predominantly negative expression. The differential expression of ITGA5 and RhoD suggests disruption of the focal adhesion pathway in MM and offers a new target field to be explored in this disease.

Is Less Chemotherapy Detrimental in Adults with Philadelphia Chromosome (Ph)-Positive Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL) Treated with High-Dose Imatinib? Results of the Prospective Randomized Graaph-2005 Study

Aim: To compare a less intensive regimen based on high-dose imatinib (IM) to an intensive IM/HyperCVAD regimen in adults with Ph+ ALL, in terms of early response and outcome after stem cell transplantation (SCT). Methods: Patients aged 18-60 years with previously untreated Ph+ ALL not evolving from chronic myeloid leukemia were eligible if no contra-indication to chemotherapy and SCT (ClinicalTrials.gov ID, NCT00327678). After a steroid prephase allowing Ph and/or BCR-ABL diagnosis, cycle 1 differed between randomization arms. In arm A (IM-based), IM was given at 800 mg on day 1-28, combined with vincristine (2 mg, day 1, 8, 15, 22) and dexamethasone (40 mg, day 1-2, 8-9, 15-16, and 22-23) only. In arm B (IM/HyperCVAD), IM was given at 800 mg on day 1-14, combined with adriamycin (50 mg/m2, day 4), cyclophosphamide (300 mg/m2/12h, day 1, 2, 3), vincristine (2 mg, day 4 and 11), and dexamethasone (40 mg, day 1-4 and 11-14). All patients received a cycle 2 combining high-dose methotrexate (1 g/m2, day 1) and AraC (3 g/m2/12h, day 2 and 3) with IM at 800 mg on day 1-14, whatever their response. Four intrathecal infusions were given during this induction/consolidation period. Minimal residual disease (MRD) was centrally evaluated by quantitative RQ-PCR after cycle 1 (MRD1) and cycle 2 (MRD2). Major MRD response was defined as BCR-ABL/ABL ratio <0.1%. Then, all patients were to receive allogeneic SCT using related or unrelated matched donor stem cells or autologous SCT if no donor and a major MRD2 response. IM/chemotherapy maintenance was planned after autologous SCT. In the absence of SCT, patients received alternating cycles 1 (as in arm B) and cycles 2 followed by maintenance, like in the published IM/HyperCVAD regimen. The primary objective was non-inferiority of arm A in term of major MRD2 response. Secondary objectives were CR rate, SCT rate, treatment- and transplant-related mortality, relapse-free (RFS), event-free (EFS) and overall (OS) survival. Results: Among the 270 patients randomized between May 2006 and August 2011, 265 patients were evaluable for this analysis (133 arm A, 132 arm B; median age, 47 years; median follow-up, 40 months). Main patient characteristics were well-balanced between both arms. Due to higher induction mortality in arm B (9 versus 1 deaths; P=0.01), CR rate was higher in the less intensive arm A (98% versus 89% after cycle 1 and 98% versus 91% after cycle 2; P= 0.003 and 0.006, respectively). A total of 213 and 205 patients were evaluated for bone marrow MRD1 and MRD2. The rates of patients reaching major MRD response and undetectable MRD were 45% (44% arm A, 46% arm B; P=0.79) and 10% (in both arms) at MRD1 and 66% (68% arm A, 63.5% arm B; P=0.56) and 25% (28% arm A, 22% arm B; P=0.33) at MRD2, respectively. The non-inferiority primary endpoint was thus demonstrated (P= 0.002). Overall, EFS was estimated at 42% (95% CI, 35-49) and OS at 51% (95% CI, 44-57) at 3 years, with no difference between arm A and B (46% versus 38% and 53% versus 49%; P=0.25 and 0.61, respectively). Of the 251 CR patients, 157 (80 arm A, 77 arm B) and 34 (17 in both arms) received allogeneic and autologous SCT in first CR, respectively. Allogeneic transplant-related mortality was similar in both arms (31.5% versus 22% at 3 years; P=0.51). Of the 157 allografted patients, 133 had MRD2 evaluation and 89 had MRD2 <0.1%. In these patients, MRD2 did not significantly influence post-transplant RFS and OS, either when tested with the 0.1% cutoff or as a continuous log covariate. Of the 34 autografted patients, 31 had MRD2 evaluation and, according to the protocol, 28 had MRD2 <0.1%. When restricting the comparison to patients achieving major MRD2 response and with the current follow-up, a trend for better results was observed after autologous as compared to allogeneic SCT (RFS, 63% versus 49.5% and OS, 69% versus 58% at 3 years; P=0.35 and P=0.08, respectively). Conclusions: In adults, the use of TK inhibitors (TKI) has markedly improved the results of Ph+ ALL therapy, now close to those observed in Ph-negative ALL. We demonstrated here that chemotherapy intensity may be safely reduced when associated with high-dose IM. We will further explore this TKI-based strategy using nilotinib prior to SCT in our next GRAAPH-2013 trial. The trend towards a better outcome after autologous compared to allogeneic SCT observed in MRD responders validates MRD as an important early surrogate endpoint for treatment stratification and new drug investigation in this disease.

MicroRNoma do carcinoma de pulmão de células não pequenas

Pós-graduação em Bases Gerais da Cirurgia - FMB

Mechanisms of cell senescence: p21 and DNA damage response in aging and longevity

Theory of aging postulates that aging is a remodeling process where the body of survivors progressively adapts to internal and external damaging agents they are exposed to during several decades. Thus , stress response and adaptation mechanisms play a fundamental role in the aging process where the capability of adaptating effects, certainly, also is related the lifespan of each individual. A key gene linking aging to stress response is indeed p21, an induction of cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitor which triggers cell growth arrest associated with senescence and damage response and notably is involved in the up-regulation of multiple genes that have been associated with senescence or implicated in age-related . This PhD thesis project that has been performed in collaboration with the Roninson Lab at Ordway Research Institute in Albany, NY had two main aims: -the testing the hypothesis that p21 polymorphisms are involved in longevity -Evaluating age-associated differences in gene expression and transcriptional response to p21 and DNA damage In the first project, trough PCR-sequencing and Sequenom strategies, we we found out that there are about 30 polymorphic variants in the p21 gene. In addition, we found an haplotpype located in -5kb region of the p21 promoter whose frequency is ~ 2 fold higher in centenarians than in the general population (Large-scale analysis of haplotype frequencies is currently in progress). Functional studies I carried out on the promoter highilighted that the ―centenarian‖ haplotype doesn’t affect the basal p21 promoter activity or its response to p53. However, there are many other possible physiological conditions in which the centenarian allele of the p21 promoter may potentially show a different response (IL6, IFN,progesterone, vitamin E, Vitamin D etc). In the second part, project #2, trough Microarrays we seeked to evaluate the differences in gene expression between centenarians, elderly, young in dermal fibroblast cultures and their response to p21 and DNA damage. Microarray analysis of gene expression in dermal fibroblast cultures of individuals of different ages yielded a tentative "centenarian signature". A subset of genes that were up- or downregulated in centenarians showed the same response to ectopic expression of p21, yielding a putative "p21-centenarian" signature. Trough RQ-PCR (as well Microarrays studies whose analysis is in progress) we tested the DNA damage response of the p21-centenarian signature genes showing a correlation stress/aging in additional sets of young and old samples treated with p21-inducing drug doxorubicin thus finding for a subset of of them , a response to stress age-related.

Caratterizzazione Citogenetico-Molecolare delle alterazioni cromosomiche 3q26 e 1p36 nelle Sindromi Mieloproliferative

L’overespressione dei geni EVI1(3q26) e PRDM16(1p36), è descritta sia in presenza che in assenza di riarrangiamenti 3q26 e 1p36 in specifici sottogruppi citogenetici di LAM, ed è associata ad una prognosi sfavorevole. Lo scopo principale del nostro studio è stato identificare e caratterizzare tramite FISH e RQ-PCR, alterazioni di EVI1 e PRDM16 in pazienti con alterazioni cromosomiche 3q e 1p.Riarrangiamenti di EVI1 si associavano ad alterazioni cromosomiche 3q26, ma, in 6 casi (6/35;17,1%) erano presenti in assenza di coinvolgimenti, in citogenetica convenzionale, della regione 3q26, a causa di meccanismi complessi e/o alterazioni ‘criptiche’. Inoltre, abbiamo identificato quattro nuovi riarrangiamenti di EVI1, tra cui due nuove traslocazioni simili presenti in due fratelli. Riarrangiamenti e/o amplificazioni di PRDM16 erano spesso associate ad alterazioni 1p36 (7/14;50%). L’analisi di EVI1 e PRDM16 è stata estesa ad altri casi con alterazioni -7/7q-, con cariotipo normale, con alterazioni 3q per PRDM16 e con alterazioni 1p per EVI1. L’overespressione di EVI1 era presente solo nel gruppo -7/7q- (10/58;17.2%) ed in un caso si associava ad amplificazione genica, mentre PRDM16 era overespresso in casi di tutti i gruppi analizzati,sia con cariotipi complessi, dove si associava in alcuni casi ad amplificazione genica, sia con cariotipi normali o con singole alterazioni. Il nostro studio dimostra come la FISH permetta di identificare alterazioni dei geni EVI1 e PRDM16, anche in assenza di coinvolgimenti delle regioni 3q26 e 1p36. Riarrangiamenti complessi e/o una scarsa qualità dei preparati citogenetici sono le cause principali per la mancata identificazione di queste alterazioni. La RQ-PCR permette di identificare l’overespressione anche nei casi in cui non sia dovuta ad alterazioni citogenetiche. È importante confermare con FISH e/o RQ-PCR il coinvolgimento di questi due geni, per individuare alla diagnosi pazienti con prognosi sfavorevole e che potranno beneficiare di terapie maggiormente aggressive e/o di trapianto allogenico di cellule staminali.

Minimal residual disease monitoring in multiple myeloma: a comparison between allelic-specific oligonucleotide real-time quantitative polymerase chain reaction and flow cytometry.

BACKGROUND AND OBJECTIVES: Minimal residual disease (MRD) studies are useful in multiple myeloma (MM). However, the definition of the best technique and clinical utility are still unresolved issues. The aim of this study was to analyze and compare the clinical utility of MRD studies in MM with two different techniques: allelic-specific oligonucleotide real-time quantitative PCR (ASO-RQ-PCR), and flow cytometry (FCM). DESIGN AND METHODS: Bone marrow samples from 32 MM patients who had achieved complete response after transplantation were evaluated by ASO-RQ-PCR, using TaqMan technology, and multiparametric FCM. RESULTS: ASO-RQ-PCR was only applicable in 75% of patients for a variety of technical reasons, while FCM was applicable in up to 90%. Therefore, simultaneous PCR/FCM analysis was possible in only 24 patients. The number of residual tumor cells identified by both techniques was very similar (mean=0.29%, range=0.001-1.61%, correlation coefficient=0.861). However, RQ-PCR was able to detect residual myelomatous cells in 17 patients while FCM only did so in 11; thus, 6 cases were FCM negative but PCR positive, all of them displaying a very low number of clonal cells (median=0.014%, range=0.001-0.11). Using an MRD threshold of 0.01% (10(-4)) two risk groups with significantly different progression-free survival could be identified by either PCR (34 vs. 15m, p=0.04) or FCM (27 vs. 10m, p=0.05). INTERPRETATION AND CONCLUSIONS: Although MRD evaluation by ASO-RQ-PCR is slightly more sensitive and specific than FCM, it is applicable in a lower proportion of MM patients and is more time-consuming, while both techniques provide similar prognostic information.

Post Hoc Analysis Of The Patricia Randomized Trial Of The Efficacy Of Human Papillomavirus Type 16 (hpv-16)/hpv-18 As04-adjuvanted Vaccine Against Incident And Persistent Infection With Nonvaccine Oncogenic Hpv Types Using An Alternative Multiplex Type-specific Pcr Assay For Hpv Dna.

The efficacy of the human papillomavirus type 16 (HPV-16)/HPV-18 AS04-adjuvanted vaccine against cervical infections with HPV in the Papilloma Trial against Cancer in Young Adults (PATRICIA) was evaluated using a combination of the broad-spectrum L1-based SPF10 PCR-DNA enzyme immunoassay (DEIA)/line probe assay (LiPA25) system with type-specific PCRs for HPV-16 and -18. Broad-spectrum PCR assays may underestimate the presence of HPV genotypes present at relatively low concentrations in multiple infections, due to competition between genotypes. Therefore, samples were retrospectively reanalyzed using a testing algorithm incorporating the SPF10 PCR-DEIA/LiPA25 plus a novel E6-based multiplex type-specific PCR and reverse hybridization assay (MPTS12 RHA), which permits detection of a panel of nine oncogenic HPV genotypes (types 16, 18, 31, 33, 35, 45, 52, 58, and 59). For the vaccine against HPV types 16 and 18, there was no major impact on estimates of vaccine efficacy (VE) for incident or 6-month or 12-month persistent infections when the MPTS12 RHA was included in the testing algorithm versus estimates with the protocol-specified algorithm. However, the alternative testing algorithm showed greater sensitivity than the protocol-specified algorithm for detection of some nonvaccine oncogenic HPV types. More cases were gained in the control group than in the vaccine group, leading to higher point estimates of VE for 6-month and 12-month persistent infections for the nonvaccine oncogenic types included in the MPTS12 RHA assay (types 31, 33, 35, 45, 52, 58, and 59). This post hoc analysis indicates that the per-protocol testing algorithm used in PATRICIA underestimated the VE against some nonvaccine oncogenic HPV types and that the choice of the HPV DNA testing methodology is important for the evaluation of VE in clinical trials. (This study has been registered at ClinicalTrials.gov under registration no. NCT00122681.).

Human Herpesvirus Infections Of The Central Nervous System: Laboratory Diagnosis Based On Dna Detection By Nested Pcr In Plasma And Cerebrospinal Fluid Samples.

Infections of the central nervous systems (CNS) present a diagnostic problem for which an accurate laboratory diagnosis is essential. Invasive practices, such as cerebral biopsy, have been replaced by obtaining a polymerase chain reaction (PCR) diagnosis using cerebral spinal fluid (CSF) as a reference method. Tests on DNA extracted from plasma are noninvasive, thus avoiding all of the collateral effects and patient risks associated with CSF collection. This study aimed to determine whether plasma can replace CSF in nested PCR analysis for the detection of CNS human herpesvirus (HHV) diseases by analysing the proportion of patients whose CSF nested PCR results were positive for CNS HHV who also had the same organism identified by plasma nested PCR. In this study, CSF DNA was used as the gold standard, and nested PCR was performed on both types of samples. Fifty-two patients with symptoms of nervous system infection were submitted to CSF and blood collection. For the eight HHV, one positive DNA result-in plasma and/or CSF nested PCR-was considered an active HHV infection, whereas the occurrence of two or more HHVs in the same sample was considered a coinfection. HHV infections were positively detected in 27/52 (51.9%) of the CSF and in 32/52 (61.5%) of the plasma, difference not significant, thus nested PCR can be performed on plasma instead of CSF. In conclusion, this findings suggest that plasma as a useful material for the diagnosis of cases where there is any difficulty to perform a CSF puncture.

Evaluation of DNA extraction protocols for Brucella abortus pcr detection in aborted fetuses or calves born from cows experimentally infected with strain 2308

The objective of the present study was to improve the detection of B. abortus by PCR in organs of aborted fetuses from infected cows, an important mechanism to find infected herds on the eradication phase of the program. So, different DNA extraction protocols were compared, focusing the PCR detection of B. abortus in clinical samples collected from aborted fetuses or calves born from cows challenged with the 2308 B. abortus strain. Therefore, two gold standard groups were built based on classical bacteriology, formed from: 32 lungs (17 positives), 26 spleens (11 positives), 23 livers (8 positives) and 22 bronchial lymph nodes (7 positives). All samples were submitted to three DNA extraction protocols, followed by the same amplification process with the primers B4 and B5. From the accumulated results for organ, the proportion of positives for the lungs was higher than the livers (p=0.04) or bronchial lymph nodes (p=0.004) and equal to the spleens (p=0.18). From the accumulated results for DNA extraction protocol, the proportion of positives for the Boom protocol was bigger than the PK (p<0.0001) and GT (p=0.0004). There was no difference between the PK and GT protocols (p=0.5). Some positive samples from the classical bacteriology were negative to the PCR and viceversa. Therefore, the best strategy for B. abortus detection in the organs of aborted fetuses or calves born from infected cows is the use, in parallel, of isolation by classical bacteriology and the PCR, with the DNA extraction performed by the Boom protocol.

Differentiation of Melipona quadrifasciata L. (Hymenoptera, Apidae, Meliponini) subspecies using cytochrome b PCR-RFLP patterns

Melipona quadrifasciata quadrifasciata and M. quadrifasciata anthidioides are subspecies of M. quadrifasciata, a stingless bee species common in coastal Brazil. These subspecies are discriminated by the yellow stripe pattern of the abdominal tergites. We found Vsp I restriction patterns in the cytochrome b region closely associated to each subspecies in 155 M. quadrifasciata colonies of different geographical origin. This mitochondrial DNA molecular marker facilitates diagnosis of M. quadrifasciata subspecies matrilines and can be used to establish their natural distribution and identify hybrid colonies.

Sensitivity evaluation of a single-step PCR assay using Ehrlichia canis p28 gene as a target and its application in diagnosis of canine ehrlichiosis

The aim of this study was to optimize a PCR assay that amplifies an 843 pb fragment from the p28 gene of Ehrlichia canis and compare it with two other PCR methods used to amplify portions of the 16S rRNA and dsb genes of Ehrlichia. Blood samples were collected from dogs suspected of having a positive diagnosis for canine ehrlichiosis. Amplification of the p28 gene by PCR produced an 843-bp fragment and this assay could detect DNA from one gene copy among 1 billion cells. All positive samples detected by the p28-based PCR were also positive by the 16S rRNA nested-PCR and also by the dsb-based PCR. Among the p28-based PCR negative samples, 55.3% were co-negatives, but 27.6% were positive in 16S rRNA and dsb based PCR assays. The p28-based PCR seems to be a useful test for the molecular detection of E. canis, however improvements in this PCR sensitivity are desired, so that it can become an important alternative in the diagnosis of canine ehrlichiosis.