962 resultados para CD8 and CD4 epitopes
Resumo:
Immunodominance has been well-demonstrated in many antiviral and antibacterial systems, but much less so in the setting of immune responses against cancer. Tumor Ag-specific CD8+ T cells keep cancer cells in check via immunosurveillance and shape tumor development through immunoediting. Because most tumor Ags are self Ags, the breadth and depth of antitumor immune responses have not been well-appreciated. To design and develop antitumor vaccines, it is important to understand the immunodominance hierarchy and its underlying mechanisms, and to identify the most immunodominant tumor Ag-specific T cells. We have comprehensively analyzed spontaneous cellular immune responses of one individual and show that multiple tumor Ags are targeted by the patient's immune system, especially the "cancer-testis" tumor Ag NY-ESO-1. The pattern of anti-NY-ESO-1 T cell responses in this patient closely resembles the classical broad yet hierarchical antiviral immunity and was confirmed in a second subject.
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We studied the role of CD4+, CD8+, CD4- CD8- T cells and IgG anti-Leishmania after infection or vaccination in the CBA/ca mouse. Mice were either infected with L. m. mexicana promastigotes or vaccinated with parasite-membrane antigens incorporated into liposomes. Successfully vaccinated mice were used as cell-donors in adoptive transfer experiments. Naive, syngeneic recipients received highly-enriched CD4+, CD8+ or CD4- CD8- T cells from those two set of donors and challenged with live parasites. Our results showed that, both CD4+ and CD8+ T cells from infected or vaccinated donors conferred significant disease-resistance to naive recipients. In addition, adoptive transfer of CD4- CD8- T cells from vaccinated donors significantly delayed lesion growth in recipient mice. We concluded that vaccination of CBA mice correlates with the induction of protective CD4+, CD8+ and CD4- CD8- T cells and the synthesis of IgG anti-Leishmania.
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Although Fas ligand (FasL) is well characterized for its capacity to deliver a death signal through its receptor Fas, recent work demonstrates that FasL also can receive signals facilitating antigen (Ag)-specific proliferation of CD8+ T cells. The fact that the gld mutation differentially influences the proliferative capacity of CD8+ and CD4+ T cells presented the intriguing possibility that a single molecule may play opposing roles in these two subpopulations. The present study focuses on how these positive and negative regulatory roles are balanced. We show that naive CD4+ T cells are responsive to FasL-mediated costimulation on encounter with Ag when Fas-mediated death is prevented. Thus, the machinery responsible for transducing the FasL positive reverse signal operates in both CD4+ and CD8+ T cells. Instead, differential control of FasL expression distinguishes the role of FasL in these two T cell subpopulations. FasL costimulation occurs immediately on T cell receptor ligation and correlates with the up-regulation of FasL expression on CD8+ and naive CD4+ T cells, both of which are sensitive to the FasL costimulatory signal. Conversely, FasL-initiated death occurs late in an immune response when high levels of FasL expression are maintained on CD4+ T cells that are sensitive to Fas-mediated death, but not on CD8+ T cells that are relatively insensitive to this signal. This careful orchestration of FasL expression during times of susceptibility to costimulation and conversely, to death, endows FasL with the capacity to both positively and negatively regulate the peripheral T cell compartment.
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CD8+ T cells have been implicated as critical effector cells in protection against the pre-erythrocytic stage of malaria in mice and humans following irradiated sporozoite immunization. Immunization experiments in animal models by several investigators have suggested different strategies for vaccination against malaria and many of the targets from liver stage malaria antigens have been shown to be immunogenic and to protect mice from the sporozoite challenge. Several prime/boost protocols with replicating vectors, such as vaccinia/influenza, with non-replicating vectors, such as recombinant particles derived from yeast transposon (Ty-particles) and modified vaccinia virus Ankara, and DNA, significantly enhanced CD8+ T cell immunogenicity and also the protective efficacy against the circumsporosoite protein of Plasmodium berghei and P. yeti. Based on these experimental results the development of a CD8+ T cell inducing vaccine has moved forward from epitope identification to planning stages of safety and immunogenicity trials of candidate vaccines.
Resumo:
T-cell based vaccines against HIV have the goal of limiting both transmission and disease progression by inducing broad and functionally relevant T cell responses. Moreover, polyfunctional and long-lived specific memory T cells have been associated to vaccine-induced protection. CD4(+) T cells are important for the generation and maintenance of functional CD8(+) cytotoxic T cells. We have recently developed a DNA vaccine encoding 18 conserved multiple HLA-DR-binding HIV-1 CD4 epitopes (HIVBr18), capable of eliciting broad CD4(+) T cell responses in multiple HLA class II transgenic mice. Here, we evaluated the breadth and functional profile of HIVBr18-induced immune responses in BALB/c mice. Immunized mice displayed high-magnitude, broad CD4(+)/CD8(+) T cell responses, and 8/18 vaccine-encoded peptides were recognized. In addition, HIVBr18 immunization was able to induce polyfunctional CD4(+) and CD8(+) T cells that proliferate and produce any two cytokines (IFN gamma/TNF alpha, IFN gamma/IL-2 or TNF alpha/IL-2) simultaneously in response to HIV-1 peptides. For CD4(+) T cells exclusively, we also detected cells that proliferate and produce all three tested cytokines simultaneously (IFN gamma/TNF alpha/IL-2). The vaccine also generated long-lived central and effector memory CD4(+) T cells, a desirable feature for T-cell based vaccines. By virtue of inducing broad, polyfunctional and long-lived T cell responses against conserved CD4(+) T cell epitopes, combined administration of this vaccine concept may provide sustained help for CD8(+) T cells and antibody responses-elicited by other HIV immunogens.
Resumo:
Ag-experienced or memory T cells have increased reactivity to recall Ag, and can be distinguished from naive T cells by altered expression of surface markers such as CD44. Memory T cells have a high turnover rate, and CD8(+) memory T cells proliferate upon viral infection, in the presence of IFN-alphabeta and/or IL-15. In this study, we extend these findings by showing that activated NKT cells and superantigen-activated T cells induce extensive bystander proliferation of both CD8(+) and CD4(+) memory T cells. Moreover, proliferation of memory T cells can be induced by an IFN-alphabeta-independent, but IFN-gamma- or IL-12-dependent pathway. In these conditions of bystander activation, proliferating memory (CD44(high)) T cells do not derive from activation of naive (CD44(low)) T cells, but rather from bona fide memory CD44(high) T cells. Together, these data demonstrate that distinct pathways can induce bystander proliferation of memory T cells.
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Mutations in the nucleophosmin gene (NPM1(mut)) are one of the most frequent molecular alterations in acute myeloid leukemia (AML), and immune responses may contribute to the favorable prognosis of AML patients with NPM1(mut). In the present study, we were able to demonstrate both CD4(+) and CD8(+) T-cell responses against NPM1(mut). Ten peptides derived from wild-type NPM1 and NPM1(mut) were subjected to ELISPOT analysis in 33 healthy volunteers and 27 AML patients. Tetramer assays against the most interesting epitopes were performed and Cr(51)-release assays were used to show the cytotoxicity of peptide-specific T cells. Moreover, HLA-DR-binding epitopes were used to test the role of CD4(+) T cells in NPM1 immunogenicity. Two epitopes (epitopes #1 and #3) derived from NPM1(mut) induced CD8(+) T-cell responses. A total of 33% of the NPM1(mut) AML patients showed immune responses against epitope #1 and 44% against epitope #3. Specific lysis of leukemic blasts was detected. To obtain robust immune responses against tumor cells, the activation of CD4(+) T cells is crucial. Therefore, overlapping (OL) peptides were analyzed in ELISPOT assays and OL8 was able to activate both CD8(+) and CD4(+) T cells. The results of the present study show that NPM1(mut) induces specific T-cell responses of CD4(+) and CD8(+) T cells and therefore is a promising target for specific immunotherapies in AML.
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Current HIV vaccine approaches are focused on immunogens encoding whole HIV antigenic proteins that mainly elicit cytotoxic CD8+ responses. Mounting evidence points toward a critical role for CD4+ T cells in the control of immunodeficiency virus replication, probably due to cognate help. Vaccine-induced CD4+ T cell responses might, therefore, have a protective effect in HIV replication. In addition, successful vaccines may have to elicit responses to multiple epitopes in a high proportion of vaccinees, to match the highly variable circulating strains of HIV. Using rational vaccine design, we developed a DNA vaccine encoding 18 algorithm-selected conserved, ""promiscuous"" ( multiple HLA-DR-binding) B-subtype HIV CD4 epitopes - previously found to be frequently recognized by HIV-infected patients. We assessed the ability of the vaccine to induce broad T cell responses in the context of multiple HLA class II molecules using different strains of HLA class II-transgenic mice (-DR2, -DR4, -DQ6 and -DQ8). Mice displayed CD4+ and CD8+ T cell responses of significant breadth and magnitude, and 16 out of the 18 encoded epitopes were recognized. By virtue of inducing broad responses against conserved CD4+ T cell epitopes that can be recognized in the context of widely diverse, common HLA class II alleles, this vaccine concept may cope both with HIV genetic variability and increased population coverage. The vaccine may thus be a source of cognate help for HIV-specific CD8+ T cells elicited by conventional immunogens, in a wide proportion of vaccinees.
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The role of T lymphocytes in host responses to sublethal systemic infection with Candida albicans was evaluated by mAb depletion of CD4(+) and CD8(+) cells from BALB/c and CBA/CaH mice, which develop mild and severe tissue damage, respectively. Depletion of CD4(+) lymphocytes from BALB/c mice markedly increased tissue damage, but did not alter the course of infection. In CBA/CaH mice, depletion of CD4+ cells abrogated tissue destruction in both brain and kidney at day 4 after infection, and significantly decreased fungal colonization in the brain. However, the severity of tissue lesions increased relative to controls from day 8 onwards. A small increase in tissue damage was evident in both mouse strains after depletion of CD8(+) cells. There were no major differences between days 4 end 8 after infection in cDNA cytokine profiles of CD4(+) lymphocytes from either BALB/c or CBA/CaH mice. After passive transfer into infected syngeneic recipients, spleen cells from infected CBA/CaH mice markedly increased tissue damage when compared to controls, and also caused a significant increase in fungal colonization in the brain. A similar transfer in BALB/c mice increased the number of inflammatory cells in and around the lesions, but had no effect on the fungal burden in brain and kidney. The data demonstrate that both CD4(+) and CD8(+) lymphocytes contribute to the reduction of tissue damage after systemic infection with C. albicans, and that the development and expression of CD4(+) lymphocyte effector function is influenced by the genetic background of the mouse.
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This study was designed to compare cutaneous mycoflora isolation and CD4+:CD8+ ratio in feline immunodeficiency virus (FIV)-infected cats with that in FIV-uninfected cats. Sixty cats were examined. Twenty-five were Fly-infected cats and 35 were RV-uninfected cats. All 60 cats were FeLV-negative. Fungi were speciated and immunophenotyping of peripheral CD4+ and CD8+ T lymphocytes was performed. At least one fungal colony was isolated from 22/25 (88%) FIV-infected cats. Among the FIV-uninfected cats fungal colonies were recovered from 13/35 (37%) specimens. Dermatophytes were recovered from 2/25 (8%) FIV-infected cats (one Microsporum gypseum, one Microsporum can is) and 3/35 (8.5%) FIV-uninfected cats (M gypseum). Malassezia species was the most commonly isolated organism from both groups of cats (51.6%). Malassezia species was more commonly isolated from FIV-infected cats than RV-uninfected cats (84% vs 28.6%). The CD4+ to CD8+ lymphocyte ratio for FIV-infected cats was significantly lower than the CD4+ to CD8+ ratio in the FIV-uninfected cats. The CD4+ to CD8+ lymphocyte ratio for FIV-infected cats with cutaneous overall fungal isolation was significantly lower than the CD4:CD8 lymphocyte ratio in the FIV-infected cats but without cutaneous fungal isolation. We can conclude that immunologic depletion due to retroviral infection might represent a risk factor to cutaneous fungal colonization in cats. (C) 2010 ISFM and AAFP. Published by Elsevier Ltd. All rights reserved.
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To evaluate the effect of BCG vaccination and T lymphocyte subpopulations on the reactivity to the tuberculin skin test, 113 asymtomatic HIV+ individuals were tuberculin tested by intradermal injection of 5TU of purified protein derivative and the levels of circulating lymphocyte (CD3, CD4 and CD8) subpopulations determined by indirect immunofluorescence. Ninety-two percent of the subjects included in the study were males. The mean age of the group was 32.1±7.4 years. Sixty-two percent presented a BCG scar. However, only 22% exhibited positive tuberculin reactions (³5mm) irrespective of the presence of the BCG scar. Tuberculin positive individuals exhibited higher CD4+ cell counts (p=0.004) and CD4+/CD8+ ratios (p=0.006) than tuberculin negative (<5mm) HIV+ individuals. The number of individuals with positive tuberculin reactions was significantly higher in subjects with more than 500 CD4+ lymphocytes/ml (p=0.02) or CD4+/CD8+ ratios ³1.12 (p=0.002). These results suggest that a prior BCG vaccination does not influence the reactivity to the tuberculin skin test in HIV+ asymptomatic individuals and that the number of CD4+ lymphocytes and the CD4+/CD8+ ratio positively correlate with the tuberculin reactivity
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Leishmania guyanensis (L.g.)-specific CD8+ T cells can be isolated from PBMC of subjects who have never been previously exposed to Leishmania. Cells that produce IFN-gamma in response to live L.g. are generated from naive CD45RA+CD8+ T cells. The generation of L.g.-specific CD8+ T cells requires the presence of whole L.g. or UV-irradiated parasite but not the soluble antigens from L.g. promastigotes. The IFN-gamma-producing T cells recognize a specific antigen, the Leishmania homologue of receptors of activated C kinases (LACK) and this antigen but not live L.g. can produce a strong IL-10 response in CD45RA-CD4+ memory T cells from naive subjects. A single epitope (amino acid 156-173) is found to induce the IL-10 synthesis. While the IFN-gamma-producing cells are present among CD45RA+CD8+ T cells that are CD62L-CDR7- and CLA-, the LACK-reactive IL-10-producing cells are CD4+ T cells that are CD62L+CCR7- and CLA-.
Resumo:
We have previously demonstrated that PAS-1, a 200 kDa protein from Ascaris suum, has a potent immunomodulatory effect on humoral and cell-mediated responses induced by APAS-3 (an allergenic protein from A. suum) or unrelated antigens. In this study, we investigated the mechanisms by which PAS-1 is able to induce this effect on an allergic airway inflammation induced by OVA in mice. C57BL/6 mice were adoptively transferred on day 0 with seven different PAS-1-primed cell populations: PAS-1-primed CD19(+) or B220(+) or CD3(+) or CD4(+) or CD8(+) or CD4(+) CD25) or CD4(+) CD25(+) lymphocytes. These mice were immunized twice with OVA and alum by intraperitoneal route (days 0 and 7) and challenged twice by intranasal route (days 14 and 21). Two days after the last challenge, the airway inflammation was evaluated by antibody levels, cellular migration, eosinophil peroxidase levels, cytokine and eotaxin production, and pulmonary mechanical parameters. Among the adoptively transferred primed lymphocytes, only CD4(+) CD25(+), CD8(+) or the combination of both T cells impaired the production of total IgE and OVA-specific IgE and IgG1 antibodies, eosinophilic airway inflammation, Th2-type cytokines (IL-4, IL-5 and IL-13), eotaxin release and airway hyperreactivity. Moreover, airway recruited cells from CD4(+) CD25(+) and CD8(+) T-cell recipient secreted more IL-10/TGF-beta and IFN-gamma, respectively. Moreover, we found that PAS-1 expands significantly the number of CD4(+) CD25(+) FoxP3(+) and CD8(+) gamma delta TCR(+) cells. In conclusion, these findings demonstrate that the immunomodulatory effect of PAS-1 is mediated by these T-cell subsets.
Resumo:
Factors that affect naïve T cell proliferation in syngeneic lymphopenic hosts were investigated. 2C T cell receptor (TCR) transgenic T cells lacking both CD8 and CD4 survived but hardly proliferated. Proliferation of CD8+ 2C cells was proportional to the abundance of cognate peptide/MHC complexes and was severely inhibited by injection of anti-CD8 antibody. Weakly reactive self-peptides slightly enhanced CD8+ 2C cell proliferation whereas a potent agonist peptide promoted much more rapid proliferation, but inflammation-stimulating adjuvant had only a small effect on the rate of cell proliferation. The findings suggest that under uniform lymphopenic conditions, the widely different rates of proliferation of T cells expressing various TCR, or the same TCR in the presence or absence of CD8, reflect the strength of interaction between TCR and MHC associated with particular self-peptides.
Resumo:
Background: Reactivation of chronic Chagas disease, which occurs in approximately 20% of patients coinfected with HIV/Trypanosoma cruzi (T. cruzi), is commonly characterized by severe meningoencephalitis and myocarditis. The use of quantitative molecular tests to monitor Chagas disease reactivation was analyzed. Methodology: Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) of kDNA sequences, competitive (C-) PCR and real-time quantitative (q) PCR were compared with blood cultures and xenodiagnosis in samples from 91 patients (57 patients with chronic Chagas disease and 34 with HIV/T. cruzi coinfection), of whom 5 had reactivation of Chagas disease and 29 did not. Principal Findings: qRT-PCR showed significant differences between groups; the highest parasitemia was observed in patients infected with HIV/T. cruzi with Chagas disease reactivation (median 1428.90 T. cruzi/mL), followed by patients with HIV/T. cruzi infection without reactivation (median 1.57 T. cruzi/mL) and patients with Chagas disease without HIV (median 0.00 T. cruzi/mL). Spearman's correlation coefficient showed that xenodiagnosis was correlated with blood culture, C-PCR and qRT-PCR. A stronger Spearman correlation index was found between C-PCR and qRT-PCR, the number of parasites and the HIV viral load, expressed as the number of CD4(+) cells or the CD4(+)/CD8(+) ratio. Conclusions: qRT-PCR distinguished the groups of HIV/T. cruzi coinfected patients with and without reactivation. Therefore, this new method of qRT-PCR is proposed as a tool for prospective studies to analyze the importance of parasitemia (persistent and/or increased) as a criterion for recommending pre-emptive therapy in patients with chronic Chagas disease with HIV infection or immunosuppression. As seen in this study, an increase in HIV viral load and decreases in the number of CD4(+) cells/mm(3) and the CD4(+)/CD8(+) ratio were identified as cofactors for increased parasitemia that can be used to target the introduction of early, pre-emptive therapy.