993 resultados para Antigen 4
Resumo:
Cytotoxic CD8 T cells exert their antiviral and antitumor activity primarily through the secretion of cytotoxic granules. Degranulation activity and cytotoxic granules (perforin plus granzymes) generally define CD8 T cells with cytotoxic function. In this study, we have investigated the expression of granzyme K (GrmK) in comparison to that of GrmA, GrmB, and perforin. The expression of the cytotoxic granules was assessed in virus-specific CD8 T cells specific to influenza virus, Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), cytomegalovirus (CMV), or human immunodeficiency virus type 1 (HIV-1). We observed a dichotomy between GrmK and perforin expression in virus-specific CD8 T cells. The profile in influenza virus-specific CD8 T cells was perforin(-) GrmB(-) GrmA(+/-) GrmK(+); in CMV-specific cells, it was perforin(+) GrmB(+) GrmA(+) GrmK(-/+); and in EBV- and HIV-1-specific cells, it was perforin(-/+) GrmB(+) GrmA(+) GrmK(+). On the basis of the delineation of memory and effector CD8 T cells with CD45RA and CD127, the GrmK(+) profile was associated with early-stage memory CD8 T-cell differentiation, the perforin(+) GrmB(+) GrmA(+) profile with advanced-stage differentiation, and the GrmB(+) GrmA(+) Grmk(+) profile with intermediate-stage differentiation. Furthermore, perforin and GrmB but not GrmA and GrmK correlated with cytotoxic activity. Finally, changes in antigen exposure in vitro and in vivo during primary HIV-1 infection and vaccination modulated cytotoxic granule profiles. These results advance our understanding of the relationship between distinct profiles of cytotoxic granules in memory CD8 T cells and function, differentiation stage, and antigen exposure.
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A survey on Plasmodium infection was carried out in gold mine camps located in the Brazilian Amazon. Antibody against P. falciparum ring-infected erythrocyte surface antigen (RESA) was quantified by an enzyme-immunoassay in order to assess P. falciparum exposure. Hepatitis B, a common infection in this area, was also investigated by serologic markers. Among 520 sampled subjects, 517 (99.4%) admitted previous symptomatic malaria, 106 (20.4%) had positive thick smears for malaria, 82.9% had HBV markers, and 7.1% were HBsAg positive. Anti-RESA titers was significantly lower in HBV carriers than in people with resolved HBV infection suggesting that the anti-RESA immune response could be supressed by HBV carrier status. Moreover, immunedeficient responses to both infections may take place in some subjects causing concomitant lower anti-RESA response and incapacity to clear HBV.
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A recombinant-antigen enzyme immunoassay (EIA), BioSCREEN TM anti-Treponema pallidum, was compared favorably with the T. pallidum hemagglutination test, in the detection of specific antibodies in different groups of sera from patients with primary (n = 38), secondary (n = 10), early latent (n = 28) and congenital syphilis (n = 2), patients with leptospirosis ( n= 8), infectious mononucleosis (n = 7), hepatitis (n = 9), diabetes mellitus (n = 11), rheumatoid arthritis (n = 13), leprosy (n = 11), tuberculosis (n = 9), HIV/Aids ( n= 12), systemic lupus erythematosus (n = 4), rheumatic fever (n = 3), old-persons (n = 9), pregnant women (n = 29) and blood donors (n = 164). The coincidence between them was 95.1%. The sensitivity and specificity of the EIA were 93.3% and 95.5%, respectively. Fifteen serum specimens belonging to old-persons, pregnant women, blood donors, and patients with human leptospirosis, hepatitis, diabetes mellitus, tuberculosis and rheumatic fever gave false-positive results by Venereal Disease Research Laboratory and/or Rapid Plasma Reagin. The EIA can be used as alternative method for the serological confirmation of syphilis.
Resumo:
Toxoplasma gondii invades and proliferates in human umbilical vein endothelial cells where it resides in a parasitophorous vacuole. In order to analyze which components of the endothelial cell plasma membrane are internalized and become part of the parasitophorous vacuole membrane, the culture of endothelial cells was labeled with cationized ferritin or UEA I lectin or anti Class I human leukocytte antigen (HLA) before or after infection with T. gondii. The results showed no cationized ferritin and UEA I lectin in any parasitophorous vacuole membrane, however, the Class I HLA molecule labeling was observed in some endocytic vacuoles containing parasite until 1 h of interaction with T. gondii. After 24 h parasite-host cell interaction, the labeling was absent on the vacuolar membrane, but presents only in small vesicles near parasitophorous vacuole. These results suggest the anionic site and fucose residues are excluded at the time of parasitophorous vacuole formation while Class I HLA molecules are present only on a minority of Toxoplasma-containig vacuoles.
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BACKGROUND: Food allergy is a common allergic disorder--especially in early childhood. The avoidance of the allergenic food is the only available method to prevent further reactions in sensitized patients. A better understanding of the immunologic mechanisms involved in this reaction would help to develop therapeutic approaches applicable to the prevention of food allergy. OBJECTIVE: To establish a multi-cell in vitro model of sensitized intestinal epithelium that mimics the intestinal epithelial barrier to study the capacity of probiotic microorganisms to modulate permeability, translocation and immunoreactivity of ovalbumin (OVA) used as a model antigen. METHODS: Polarized Caco-2 cell monolayers were conditioned by basolateral basophils and used to examine apical to basolateral transport of OVA by ELISA. Activation of basophils with translocated OVA was measured by beta-hexosaminidase release assay. This experimental setting was used to assess how microorganisms added apically affected these parameters. Basolateral secretion of cytokine/chemokines by polarized Caco-2 cell monolayers was analysed by ELISA. RESULTS: Basophils loaded with OVA-specific IgE responded to OVA in a dose-dependent manner. OVA transported across polarized Caco-2 cell monolayers was found to trigger basolateral basophil activation. Microorganisms including lactobacilli and Escherichia coli increased transepithelial electrical resistance while promoting OVA passage capable to trigger basophil activation. Non-inflammatory levels of IL-8 and thymic stromal lymphopoietin were produced basolaterally by Caco-2 cells exposed to microorganisms. CONCLUSION: The complex model designed in here is adequate to learn about the consequence of the interaction between microorganisms and epithelial cells vis-a-vis the barrier function and antigen translocation, two parameters essential to mucosal homeostasis. It can further serve as a direct tool to search for microorganisms with anti-allergic and anti-inflammatory properties.
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After inoculation of Leishmania major, a rapid production of IL-4 by LACK-specific CD4+ T cells has been shown to drive Th2 cell development in susceptible mice i.e. BALB/c and C57BL/6 mice rendered susceptible by neutralization of IFN-gamma at the onset of infection. Here, we showed that peptide AA 156-173 induced an early IL-4 mRNA expression not only in BALB/c mice but also in resistant B10.D2 mice when IFN-gamma is neutralized. Epitope mapping of LACK protein demonstrated that peptide containing AA 293-305 induced early IL-4 mRNA transcripts in susceptible H-2b mice i.e. BALB/b and resistant C57BL/6 mice when IFN-gamma is neutralized. Stringently, the early IL-4 response to the H-2d (AA 156-173) or the H-2b (AA 293-305) epitopes occurred in V beta 4 V alpha 8 CD4+ T cells from either H-2d or H-2b susceptible mice, respectively.
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The present study developed and standardized an enzime-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) to detect Giardia antigen in feces using rabbit polyclonal antibodies. Giardia cysts were purified from human fecal samples by sucrose and percoll gradients. Gerbils (Meriones unguiculatus) were infected to obtain trophozoites. Rabbits were inoculated with either cyst or trophozoite antigens of 14 Colombian Giardia isolates to develop antibodies against the respective stages. The IgG anti-Giardia were purified by sequential caprylic acid and ammonium sulfate precipitation. A portion of these polyclonal antibodies was linked to alkaline phosphatase (conjugate). One hundred and ninety six samples of human feces, from different patients, were tested by parasitologic diagnosis: 69 were positive for Giardia cysts, 56 had no Giardia parasites, and 71 revealed parasites other than Giardia. The optimal concentration of polyclonal antibodies for antigen capture was 40 µg/ml and the optimal conjugate dilution was 1:100. The absorbance cut-off value was 0.24. The parameters of the ELISA test for Giardia antigen detection were: sensitivity, 100% (95% CI: 93.4-100%); specificity, 95% (95% CI: 88.6-97.6%); positive predictive value, 91% (95% CI: 81.4-95.9%); and negative predictive value, 100% (95% CI: 96.1-100%). This ELISA will improve the diagnosis of Giardia infections in Colombia and will be useful in following patients after treatment.
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The production and regulation of interleukin (IL) IL-13, IL-4 and interferon-gamma was evaluated in different clinical forms of human schistosomiasis. The mechanisms of immune regulation are apparently different in the various clinical stages of the disease, some of them being antigen specific.
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PURPOSE: To evaluate the feasibility of radioimmunotherapy (RIT) with radiolabeled anti-carcinoembryonic antigen antibodies after complete resection of liver metastases (LM) from colorectal cancer. Patients and Methods: Twenty-two patients planned for surgery of one to four LM received a preoperative diagnostic dose of a 131I-F(ab')2-labeled anti-carcinoembryonic antigen monoclonal antibody F6 (8-10 mCi/5 mg). 131I-F(ab')2 uptake was analyzed using direct radioactivity counting, and tumor-to-normal liver ratios were recorded. Ten patients with tumor-to-normal liver ratios of >5 and three others were treated with a therapeutic injection [180-200 mCi 131I/50 mg F(ab')2] 30 to 64 days after surgery. RESULTS: Median 131I-F(ab')2 immunoreactivity in patient serum remained at 91% of initial values for up to 96 hours after injection. The main and dose-limiting-toxicity was hematologic, with 92% and 85% grades 3 to 4 neutropenia and thrombocytopenia, respectively. Complete spontaneous recovery occurred in all patients. No human anti-mouse antibody response was observed after the diagnosis dose; however, 10 of the 13 treated patients developed human anti-mouse antibody approximately 3 months later. Two treated patients presented extrahepatic metastases at the time of RIT (one bone and one abdominal node) and two relapsed within 3 months of RIT (one in the lung and the other in the liver). Two patients are still alive, and one of these is disease-free at 93 months after resection. At a median follow-up of 127 months, the median disease-free survival is 12 months and the median overall survival is 50 months. CONCLUSION: RIT is feasible in an adjuvant setting after complete resection of LM from colorectal cancer and should be considered for future trials, possibly in combination with chemotherapy, because of the generally poor prognosis of these patients.
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Plasmodium falciparum is the parasite responsible for the most acute form of malaria in humans. Recently, the serine repeat antigen (SERA) in P. falciparum has attracted attention as a potential vaccine and drug target, and it has been shown to be a member of a large gene family. To clarify the relationships among the numerous P. falciparum SERAs and to identify orthologs to SERA5 and SERA6 in Plasmodium species affecting rodents, gene trees were inferred from nucleotide and amino acid sequence data for 33 putative SERA homologs in seven different species. (A distance method for nucleotide sequences that is specifically designed to accommodate differing GC content yielded results that were largely compatible with the amino acid tree. Standard-distance and maximum-likelihood methods for nucleotide sequences, on the other hand, yielded gene trees that differed in important respects.) To infer the pattern of duplication, speciation, and gene loss events in the SERA gene family history, the resulting gene trees were then "reconciled" with two competing Plasmodium species tree topologies that have been identified by previous phylogenetic studies. Parsimony of reconciliation was used as a criterion for selecting a gene tree/species tree pair and provided (1) support for one of the two species trees and for the core topology of the amino acid-derived gene tree, (2) a basis for critiquing fine detail in a poorly resolved region of the gene tree, (3) a set of predicted "missing genes" in some species, (4) clarification of the relationship among the P. falciparum SERA, and (5) some information about SERA5 and SERA6 orthologs in the rodent malaria parasites. Parsimony of reconciliation and a second criterion--implied mutational pattern at two key active sites in the SERA proteins-were also seen to be useful supplements to standard "bootstrap" analysis for inferred topologies.
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A total of 221 strains of Aeromonas species isolated in Mexico from clinical (161), environmental (40), and food (20) samples were identified using the automated system bioMérieux-Vitek®. Antisera for serogroups O1 to 044 were tested using the Shimada and Sakazaki scheme. The K1 antigen was examined using as antiserum the O7:K1C of Escherichia coli. Besides, we studied the antimicrobial patterns according to Vitek AutoMicrobic system. Among the 161 clinical strains 60% were identified as A. hydrophila, 20.4% as A. caviae, and 19.25% as A. veronii biovar sobria. Only A. hydrophila and A. veronii biovar sobria were found in food (55 and 90% respectively) and environmental sources (45 and 10% respectively). Using "O" antisera, only 42.5% (94/221) of the strains were serologically identified, 55% (121/221) were non-typable, and 2.5% (6/221) were rough strains. Twenty-two different serogroups were found, O14, O16, O19, O22, and O34 represented 60% of the serotyped strains. More than 50% of Aeromonas strain examined (112/221) expressed K1 encapsulating antigen; this characteristic was predominant among Aeromonas strains of clinical origin. Resistance to ampicillin/sulbactam and cephazolin was detected in 100 and 67% of Aeromonas strain tested for their susceptibility to antibiotics. In conclusion, antibiotic-resistant Aeromonas species that possess the K1 encapsulating antigen and represent serogroups associated with clinical syndrome in man are not uncommon among Aeromonas strains isolated from clinical, food and environmental sources in Mexico.
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The pathogenesis of Schistosoma mansoni infection is largely determined by host T-cell mediated immune responses such as the granulomatous response to tissue deposited eggs and subsequent fibrosis. The major egg antigens have a valuable role in desensitizing the CD4+ Th cells that mediate granuloma formation, which may prevent or ameliorate clinical signs of schistosomiasis.S. mansoni major egg antigen Smp40 was expressed and completely purified. It was found that the expressed Smp40 reacts specifically with anti-Smp40 monoclonal antibody in Western blotting. Three-dimensional structure was elucidated based on the similarity of Smp40 with the small heat shock protein coded in the protein database as 1SHS as a template in the molecular modeling. It was figured out that the C-terminal of the Smp40 protein (residues 130 onward) contains two alpha crystallin domains. The fold consists of eight beta strands sandwiched in two sheets forming Greek key. The purified Smp40 was used for in vitro stimulation of peripheral blood mononuclear cells from patients infected with S. mansoni using phytohemagglutinin mitogen as a positive control. The obtained results showed that there is no statistical difference in interferon-g, interleukin (IL)-4 and IL-13 levels obtained with Smp40 stimulation compared with the control group (P > 0.05 for each). On the other hand, there were significant differences after Smp40 stimulation in IL-5 (P = 0.006) and IL-10 levels (P < 0.001) compared with the control group. Gaining the knowledge by reviewing the literature, it was found that the overall pattern of cytokine profile obtained with Smp40 stimulation is reported to be associated with reduced collagen deposition, decreased fibrosis, and granuloma formation inhibition. This may reflect its future prospect as a leading anti-pathology schistosomal vaccine candidate.
Resumo:
BALB/c mice develop aberrant T helper 2 (Th2) responses and suffer progressive disease after infection with Leishmania major. These outcomes depend on the production of interleukin-4 (IL-4) early after infection. Here we demonstrate that the burst of IL-4 mRNA, peaking in draining lymph nodes of BALB/c mice 16 hr after infection, occurs within CD4+ T cells that express V beta 4 V alpha 8 T cell receptors. In contrast to control and V beta 6-deficient BALB/c mice, V beta 4-deficient BALB/c mice were resistant to infection, demonstrating the role of these cells in Th2 development. The early IL-4 response was absent in these mice, and T helper 1 responses occurred following infection. Recombinant LACK antigen from L. major induced comparable IL-4 production in V beta 4 V alpha 8 CD4+ cells. Thus, the IL-4 required for Th2 development and susceptibility to L. major is produced by a restricted population of V beta 4 V alpha 8 CD4+ T cells after cognate interaction with a single antigen from this complex organism.
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Understanding how nanoparticles may affect immune responses is an essential prerequisite to developing novel clinical applications. To investigate nanoparticle-dependent outcomes on immune responses, dendritic cells (DCs) were treated with model biomedical poly(vinylalcohol)-coated super-paramagnetic iron oxide nanoparticles (PVA-SPIONs). PVA-SPIONs uptake by human monocyte-derived DCs (MDDCs) was analyzed by flow cytometry (FACS) and advanced imaging techniques. Viability, activation, function, and stimulatory capacity of MDDCs were assessed by FACS and an in vitro CD4(+) T cell assay. PVA-SPION uptake was dose-dependent, decreased by lipopolysaccharide (LPS)-induced MDDC maturation at higher particle concentrations, and was inhibited by cytochalasin D pre-treatment. PVA-SPIONs did not alter surface marker expression (CD80, CD83, CD86, myeloid/plasmacytoid DC markers) or antigen-uptake, but decreased the capacity of MDDCs to process antigen, stimulate CD4(+) T cells, and induce cytokines. The decreased antigen processing and CD4(+) T cell stimulation capability of MDDCs following PVA-SPION treatment suggests that MDDCs may revert to a more functionally immature state following particle exposure.
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Significant advances were made in the diagnosis of filariasis in the 1990s with the emergence of three new alternative tools: ultrasound and tests to detect circulating antigen using two monoclonal antibodies, Og4C3 and AD12-ICT-card. This study aimed to identify which of these methods is the most sensitive for diagnosis of infection. A total of 256 individuals, all male and carrying microfilariae (1-15,679 MF/mL), diagnosed by nocturnal venous blood samples, were tested by all three techniques. The tests for circulating filarial antigen concurred 100% and correctly identified 246/256 (96.69%) of the positive individuals, while ultrasound detected only 186/256 (73.44%). Of the circulating antigen tests, ICT-card was the most convenient method for identification of Wuchereria bancrofti carriers. It was easy to perform, practical and quick.