972 resultados para Objective diagnosis


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OBJECTIVE: To review the accuracy of electrocardiography in screening for left ventricular hypertrophy in patients with hypertension. DESIGN: Systematic review of studies of test accuracy of six electrocardiographic indexes: the Sokolow-Lyon index, Cornell voltage index, Cornell product index, Gubner index, and Romhilt-Estes scores with thresholds for a positive test of > or =4 points or > or =5 points. DATA SOURCES: Electronic databases ((Pre-)Medline, Embase), reference lists of relevant studies and previous reviews, and experts. STUDY SELECTION: Two reviewers scrutinised abstracts and examined potentially eligible studies. Studies comparing the electrocardiographic index with echocardiography in hypertensive patients and reporting sufficient data were included. DATA EXTRACTION: Data on study populations, echocardiographic criteria, and methodological quality of studies were extracted. DATA SYNTHESIS: Negative likelihood ratios, which indicate to what extent the posterior odds of left ventricular hypertrophy is reduced by a negative test, were calculated. RESULTS: 21 studies and data on 5608 patients were analysed. The median prevalence of left ventricular hypertrophy was 33% (interquartile range 23-41%) in primary care settings (10 studies) and 65% (37-81%) in secondary care settings (11 studies). The median negative likelihood ratio was similar across electrocardiographic indexes, ranging from 0.85 (range 0.34-1.03) for the Romhilt-Estes score (with threshold > or =4 points) to 0.91 (0.70-1.01) for the Gubner index. Using the Romhilt-Estes score in primary care, a negative electrocardiogram result would reduce the typical pre-test probability from 33% to 31%. In secondary care the typical pre-test probability of 65% would be reduced to 63%. CONCLUSION: Electrocardiographic criteria should not be used to rule out left ventricular hypertrophy in patients with hypertension.

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Enophthalmos is a relatively frequent and misdiagnosed clinical sign in orbital diseases. The knowledge of the different etiologies of enophthalmos and its adequate management are important, because in some cases, it could be the first sign revealing a life-threatening disease. This article provides a comprehensive review of the pathophysiology, evaluation, and management of enophthalmos. The main etiologies, such as trauma, chronic maxillary atelectasis (silent sinus syndrome), breast cancer metastasis, and orbital varix, will be discussed. Its objective is to enable the reader to recognize, assess, and treat the spectrum of disorders causing enophthalmos.

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Objective. The purpose of this study was to determine the dose profile of the Cranex Tome radiography unit and compare it with that of the Scanora machine.Study design. The radiation dose delivered by the Cranex Tome radiography unit during the cross-sectional mode was determined. Single tooth gaps in regions 3 (16) and 30 (46) were simulated. Dosimetry was carried out with 2 phantoms, a head and neck phantom and a full-body phantom loaded with 142 thermoluminescent dosimeters (TLD) and 280 TLD, respectively; all locations corresponded to radiosensitive organs or tissues. The recorded local mean organ doses were compared with those measured in another study evaluating the Scanora machine.Results. Generally, dose values from the Cranex Tome radiography unit reached only 50% to 60% of the values measured for the Scanora machine. The effective dose was calculated as 0.061 mSv and 0.04 mSv for tooth regions 3 (16) and 30 (46), respectively. Corresponding values for the Scanora machine were 0.117 mSv and 0.084 mSv.Conclusion. Cross-sectional imaging in the molar region of the upper and the lower jaw can be performed with the Cranex Tome unit, which delivers only approximately half of the dose that the Scanora machine delivers.

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OBJECTIVE: The purpose of this article is to show the important radiographic criteria that indicate the two types of femoroacetabular impingement: pincer and cam impingement. In addition, potential pitfalls in pelvic imaging concerning femoroacetabular impingement are shown. CONCLUSION: Femoroacetabular impingement is a major cause for early "primary" osteoarthritis of the hip. It can easily be recognized on conventional radiographs of the pelvis and the proximal femur.

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BACKGROUND: Clinician-rated large-scale studies estimating the prevalence of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) related to myocardial infarction (MI) and identifying predictors of clinical PTSD are currently lacking. HYPOTHESES: We hypothesized that PTSD is prevalent in post-MI patients and that the subjective experience of the MI determines PTSD status. METHODS: We approached 951 post-MI patients with a questionnaire screening for PTSD symptoms related to their MI. Those responding and meeting a cutoff of PTSD symptom levels were invited to participate in a structured clinical interview to diagnose PTSD following Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-IV) criteria. Fear of dying, feelings of helplessness, and severity of pain perceived during the MI were also assessed by visual analog scales. RESULTS: The screening questionnaire was completed by 394 patients, whereby 77 met the cutoff for the interview (8 patients declined the interview). Forty of 394 patients (10.2%) had clinical PTSD (subsyndromal and syndromal forms combined). Younger age (OR 0.95, 95% CI 0.91-0.99), greater fear of dying (OR 2.77, 95% CI 1.28-5.97), and more intense feelings of helplessness (OR 2.97, 95% CI 1.42-6.21) were independent predictors of PTSD status. Perceived pain intensity during MI, sex, type of index MI, left ventricular ejection fraction, number of coronary occlusions, and highest level of total creatinine kinase were not significant predictors. CONCLUSIONS: Clinical PTSD is prevalent in post-MI patients. Demographic and particularly psychological variables related to the subjective experience of the event were stronger predictors of PTSD status than were objective measures of MI severity.

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BACKGROUND: The objective of this study was to systematically review the diagnostic criteria, indications, and need for treatment of ankyloglossia (tongue-tie), as well as the various treatment options for patients in different age groups. METHODS: The MEDLINE databases and the Cochrane Library were searched according to well-defined criteria, resulting in 64 included articles. The evidence regarding the classifications of tongue-tie, epidemiologic data, inheritance, breastfeeding problems, impaired tongue mobility, speech disorders, malocclusion, gingival recessions, therapy, and complications due to surgery was analyzed in detail. RESULTS: Different classifications for ankyloglossia have been proposed but not uniformly accepted. Breastfeeding problems in neonates could be associated with a tongue-tie, but not enough controlled trials have been performed to identify an ideal treatment option. In children and adults with ankyloglossia, limitations in tongue mobility are present, but the individual degree of discomfort, as well as the severity of an associated speech problem, are subjective and difficult to categorize. There is no evidence supporting the development of gingival recessions because of ankyloglossia. Frenotomy, frenectomy, and frenuloplasty are the main surgical treatment options to release/remove an ankyloglossia. Because of the limited evidence available, no specific surgical method can be favored. CONCLUSIONS: The lack of an accepted definition and classification of ankyloglossia makes comparisons between studies almost impossible. Because almost no controlled prospective trials for surgical interventions in patients with tongue-ties are present in the literature, no conclusive suggestions regarding the method of choice can be made. It also remains controversial which tongue-ties need to be surgically removed and which can be left to observation.

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OBJECTIVE: To assess the types and numbers of cases, gestational age at specific prenatal diagnosis and diagnostic accuracy of the diagnosis of skeletal dysplasias in a prenatal population from a single tertiary center. METHODS: This was a retrospective database review of type, prenatal and definitive postnatal diagnoses and gestational age at specific prenatal diagnosis of all cases of skeletal dysplasias from a mixed referral and screening population between 1985 and 2007. Prenatal diagnoses were grouped into 'correct ultrasound diagnosis' (complete concordance with postnatal pediatric or pathological findings) or 'partially correct ultrasound diagnosis' (skeletal dysplasias found postnatally to be a different one from that diagnosed prenatally). RESULTS: We included 178 fetuses in this study, of which 176 had a prenatal ultrasound diagnosis of 'skeletal dysplasia'. In 160 cases the prenatal diagnosis of a skeletal dysplasia was confirmed; two cases with skeletal dysplasias identified postnatally had not been diagnosed prenatally, giving 162 fetuses with skeletal dysplasias in total. There were 23 different classifiable types of skeletal dysplasia. The specific diagnoses based on prenatal ultrasound examination alone were correct in 110/162 (67.9%) cases and partially correct in 50/162 (30.9%) cases, (160/162 overall, 98.8%). In 16 cases, skeletal dysplasia was diagnosed prenatally, but was not confirmed postnatally (n = 12 false positives) or the case was lost to follow-up (n = 4). The following skeletal dysplasias were recorded: thanatophoric dysplasia (35 diagnosed correctly prenatally of 40 overall), osteogenesis imperfecta (lethal and non-lethal, 31/35), short-rib dysplasias (5/10), chondroectodermal dysplasia Ellis-van Creveld (4/9), achondroplasia (7/9), achondrogenesis (7/8), campomelic dysplasia (6/8), asphyxiating thoracic dysplasia Jeune (3/7), hypochondrogenesis (1/6), diastrophic dysplasia (2/5), chondrodysplasia punctata (2/2), hypophosphatasia (0/2) as well as a further 7/21 cases with rare or unclassifiable skeletal dysplasias. CONCLUSION: Prenatal diagnosis of skeletal dysplasias can present a considerable diagnostic challenge. However, a meticulous sonographic examination yields high overall detection. In the two most common disorders, thanatophoric dysplasia and osteogenesis imperfecta (25% and 22% of all cases, respectively), typical sonomorphology accounts for the high rates of completely correct prenatal diagnosis (88% and 89%, respectively) at the first diagnostic examination.

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CONTEXT: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) combined with magnetic resonance spectroscopy imaging (MRSI) emerged as a promising test in the diagnosis of prostate cancer and showed encouraging results. OBJECTIVE: The aim of this systematic review is to meta-analyse the diagnostic accuracy of combined MRI/MRSI in prostate cancer and to explore risk profiles with highest benefit. EVIDENCE ACQUISITION: The authors searched the MEDLINE and EMBASE databases and the Cochrane Library, and the authors screened reference lists and contacted experts. There were no language restrictions. The last search was performed in August 2008. EVIDENCE SYNTHESIS: We identified 31 test-accuracy studies (1765 patients); 16 studies (17 populations) with a total of 581 patients were suitable for meta-analysis. Nine combined MRI/MRSI studies (10 populations) examining men with pathologically confirmed prostate cancer (297 patients; 1518 specimens) had a pooled sensitivity and specificity on prostate subpart level of 68% (95% CI, 56-78%) and 85% (95% CI, 78-90%), respectively. Compared with patients at high risk for clinically relevant cancer (six studies), sensitivity was lower in low-risk patients (four studies) (58% [46-69%] vs 74% [58-85%]; p>0.05) but higher for specificity (91% [86-94%] vs 78% [70-84%]; p<0.01). Seven studies examining patients with suspected prostate cancer at combined MRI/MRSI (284 patients) had an overall pooled sensitivity and specificity on patients level of 82% (59-94%) and 88% (80-95%). In the low-risk group (five studies) these values were 75% (39-93%) and 91% (77-97%), respectively. CONCLUSIONS: A limited number of small studies suggest that MRI combined with MRSI could be a rule-in test for low-risk patients. This finding needs further confirmation in larger studies and cost-effectiveness needs to be established.

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The aim of this work was to investigate the published evidence on the comparison of self-perception and diagnosis of orthodontic treatment need. A search of Cochrane Library, MEDLINE, Scopus databases, and archives of two orthodontic journals was carried out from January 1966 to August 2011 by the two authors using Medical Subject Heading terms. Studies that investigated solely either self-perception of orthodontic need by laypersons or assessment of orthodontic need by professionals were excluded from the data analysis. The methodological soundness of each study and the aggregate level of evidence were evaluated according to predetermined criteria. Moderate level of evidence, the relatively highest grade, was assigned to 9.1 per cent of the 22 studies, finally included in the data analysis. The overall evidence level provided by the evaluated publications was rated as limited. However, the existing body of evidence indicated a highly variable association between self-perception of orthodontic treatment need and orthodontist's assessment. Future controlled studies with well-defined samples and common assessment methodology will clarify further the relationship between perception of treatment need by laypersons and orthodontists and enhance international comparison and development of health care strategies.

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IMPORTANCE This study addresses the value of patients' reported symptoms as markers of tumor recurrence after definitive therapy for head and neck squamous cell carcinoma. OBJECTIVE To evaluate the correlation between patients' symptoms and objective findings in the diagnosis of local and/or regional recurrences of head and neck squamous cell carcinomas in the first 2 years of follow-up. DESIGN Retrospective single-institution study of a prospectively collected database. SETTING Regional hospital. PARTICIPANTS We reviewed the clinical records of patients treated for oral cavity, oropharyngeal, laryngeal, and hypopharyngeal carcinomas between January 1, 2008, and December 31, 2009, with a minimum follow-up of 2 years. MAIN OUTCOMES AND MEASURES Correlation between symptoms and oncologic status (recurrence vs remission) in the posttreatment period. RESULTS Of the 101 patients included, 30 had recurrences. Pain, odynophagia, and dysphonia were independently correlated with recurrence (odds ratios, 16.07, 11.20, and 5.90, respectively; P < .001). New-onset symptoms had the best correlation with recurrences. Correlation was better between 6 to 12 and 18 to 21 months after therapy and in patients initially treated unimodally (P < .05). Primary stage and tumor site had no effect. CONCLUSIONS AND RELEVANCE The correlation between symptoms and oncologic status is low during substantial periods within the first 2 years of follow-up. New-onset symptoms, especially pain, odynophagia, or dysphonia, better correlate with tumor recurrence, especially in patients treated unimodally.

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OBJECTIVE To determine the diagnostic value of a serologic microagglutination test (MAT) and a PCR assay on urine and blood for the diagnosis of leptospirosis in dogs with acute kidney injury (AKI). DESIGN Cross-sectional study. Animals-76 dogs with AKI in a referral hospital (2008 to 2009). PROCEDURES Dogs' leptospirosis status was defined with a paired serologic MAT against a panel of 11 Leptospira serovars as leptospirosis-associated (n = 30) or nonleptospirosis-associated AKI (12). In 34 dogs, convalescent serologic testing was not possible, and leptospirosis status was classified as undetermined. The diagnostic value of the MAT single acute or convalescent blood sample was determined in dogs in which leptospirosis status could be classified. The diagnostic value of a commercially available genus-specific PCR assay was evaluated by use of 36 blood samples and 20 urine samples. RESULTS Serologic acute testing of an acute blood sample had a specificity of 100% (95% CI, 76% to 100%), a sensitivity of 50% (33% to 67%), and an accuracy of 64% (49% to 77%). Serologic testing of a convalescent blood sample had a specificity of 92% (65% to 99%), a sensitivity of 100% (87% to 100%), and an accuracy of 98% (88% to 100%). Results of the Leptospira PCR assay were negative for all samples from dogs for which leptospirosis status could be classified. CONCLUSIONS AND CLINICAL RELEVANCE Serologic MAT results were highly accurate for diagnosis of leptospirosis in dogs, despite a low sensitivity for early diagnosis. In this referral setting of dogs pretreated with antimicrobials, testing of blood and urine samples with a commercially available genus-specific PCR assay did not improve early diagnosis.

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Diagnostic tests based on cell-mediated immunity are used in programmes for eradication of bovine tuberculosis (Mycobacterium bovis). Serological assays could be applied as ancillary methods to detect infected animals. Our objective was to evaluate two serological techniques: M. bovis Ab Test (IDEXX, USA) and Enferplex™ TB assay (Enfer, Ireland) in animals tested simultaneously with the single and comparative intradermal tests and the interferon-gamma assay. This work was performed at two stages. First, a preliminary panel of samples collected prior to intradermal tests from tuberculosis-free (n=60) and M. bovis-infected herds (n=78) was assayed, obtaining high specificity: 100% (M. bovis Ab Test) and 98.3% (Enferplex TB assay) but low sensitivity (detection of M. bovis infected animals): 23.9% (M. bovis Ab Test) and 32.6% (Enferplex TB assay). Subsequently, the use of serological techniques was further studied in two herds with M. bovis infection (n=77) using samples collected prior to, and 72 h and 15 days after PPD inoculation. The highest level of detection of infected animals for serology was achieved at 15 days post-intradermal tests taking advantage of the anamnestic effect: 70.4% and 85.2% in herd A, and 66.7% and 83.3% in herd B, using M. bovis Ab Test and Enferplex TB assay, respectively. Quantitative results (average values obtained with M. bovis Ab Test ELISA and degree of positivity obtained with Enferplex TB assay) were higher in animals showing lesions compatible with tuberculosis. No significant differences were observed in the number of confirmed infected animals detected with either serological technique.

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OBJECTIVE Due to an increased focus on erosive tooth wear (ETW), the European Federation of Conservative Dentistry (EFCD) considered ETW as a relevant topic for generating this consensus report. MATERIALS AND METHODS This report is based on a compilation of the scientific literature, an expert conference, and the approval by the General Assembly of EFCD. RESULTS ETW is a chemical-mechanical process resulting in a cumulative loss of hard dental tissue not caused by bacteria, and it is characterized by loss of the natural surface morphology and contour of the teeth. A suitable index for classification of ETW is the basic erosive wear examination (BEWE). Regarding the etiology, patient-related factors include the pre-disposition to erosion, reflux, vomiting, drinking and eating habits, as well as medications and dietary supplements. Nutritional factors relate to the composition of foods and beverages, e.g., with low pH and high buffer capacity (major risk factors), and calcium concentration (major protective factor). Occupational factors are exposition of workers to acidic liquids or vapors. Preventive management of ETW aims at reducing or stopping the progression of the lesions. Restorative management aims at reducing symptoms of pain and dentine hypersensitivity, or to restore esthetic and function, but it should only be used in conjunction with preventive strategies. CONCLUSIONS Effective management of ETW includes screening for early signs of ETW and evaluating all etiological factors. CLINICAL RELEVANCE ETW is a clinical condition, which calls for the increased attention of the dental community and is a challenge for the cooperation with other medical specialities.

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Alveolar echinococcosis (AE), a parasitic disease primarily of the liver caused by the larval stage of Echinococcus multilocularis, is highly endemic in Switzerland. In contrast to well-established management protocols in people, little is known with regard to optimal treatment strategies in dogs. The objective of this study was to describe the clinical signs and diagnostic procedures in dogs with AE and to evaluate outcome following medical treatment alone or surgery and medical treatment. Of 23 putative AE cases between 2004 and 2014, 20 were classified as confirmed (n=18) or probable (n=2) AE, based on abdominal ultrasound, serology, cytology, histology and/or PCR. Most dogs presented with abdominal distension in an advanced stage of disease. Dogs receiving specific treatment (radical or debulking surgery together with medical treatment, or medical treatment alone) survived longer than dogs left untreated, but no difference was found between treatment types. Survival at one year was associated with absence of free abdominal fluid, absence of abdominal distension and treatment of any type. However, dogs treated with debulking surgery all faced relapse. Findings of this study suggest that in AE-affected dogs for which a therapeutic approach is regarded appropriate by owners and veterinarians, radical surgical resection and medical treatment or, if total resection is not possible, medical treatment alone should be considered. However, studies on larger numbers of dogs are necessary before definitive treatment recommendations can be made.

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OBJECTIVE The improvement in diagnostic accuracy and optimization of treatment planning in periodontology through the use of three-dimensional imaging with cone beam computed tomography (CBCT) is discussed controversially in the literature. The objective was to identify the best available external evidence for the indications of CBCT for periodontal diagnosis and treatment planning in specific clinical situations. DATA SOURCES A systematic literature search was performed for articles published by 2 March 2015 using electronic databases and hand search. Two reviewers performed the study selection, data collection, and validity assessment. PICO and PRISMA criteria were applied. From the combined search, seven studies were finally included. CONCLUSION The case series were published from the years 2009 to 2014. Five of the included publications refer to maxillary and/or mandibular molars and two to aspects related to vertical bony defects. Two studies show a high accuracy of CBCT in detecting intrabony defect morphology when compared to periapical radiographs. Particularly, in maxillary molars, CBCT provides high accuracy for detecting furcation involvement and morphology of surrounding periodontal tissues. CBCT has demonstrated advantages, when more invasive treatment approaches were considered in terms of decision making and cost benefit. Within their limits, the available data suggest that CBCT may improve diagnostic accuracy and optimize treatment planning in periodontal defects, particularly in maxillary molars with furcation involvement, and that the higher irradiation doses and cost-benefit ratio should be carefully analyzed before using CBCT for periodontal diagnosis and treatment planning.