970 resultados para High-Grade Dysplasia


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OBJECTIVES Evaluation of computed tomography (CT) and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) for differentiation of pancreatic intraductal papillary mucinous neoplasm (IPMN) subtypes based on objective imaging criteria. METHODS Fifty-eight patients with 60 histologically confirmed IPMNs were included in this retrospective study. Eighty-three imaging studies (CT,n = 42; MRI,n = 41) were analysed by three independent blinded observers (O1-O3), using established imaging criteria to assess likelihood of malignancy (-5, very likely benign; 5, very likely malignant) and histological subtype (i.e., low-grade (LGD), moderate-grade (MGD), high-grade dysplasia (HGD), early invasive carcinoma (IPMC), solid carcinoma (CA) arising from IPMN). RESULTS Forty-one benign (LGD IPMN,n = 20; MGD IPMN,n = 21) and 19 malignant (HGD IPMN,n = 3; IPMC,n = 6; solid CA,n = 10) IPMNs located in the main duct (n = 6), branch duct (n = 37), or both (n = 17) were evaluated. Overall accuracy of differentiation between benign and malignant IPMNs was 86/92 % (CT/MRI). Exclusion of overtly malignant cases (solid CA) resulted in overall accuracy of 83/90 % (CT/MRI). The presence of mural nodules and ductal lesion size ≥30 mm were significant indicators of malignancy (p = 0.02 and p < 0.001, respectively). CONCLUSIONS Invasive IPMN can be identified with high confidence and sensitivity using CT and MRI. The diagnostic problem that remains is the accurate radiological differentiation of premalignant and non-invasive subtypes. KEY POINTS • CT and MRI can differentiate benign from malignant forms of IPMN. • Identifying (pre)malignant histological IPMN subtypes by CT and MRI is difficult. • Overall, diagnostic performance with MRI was slightly (not significantly) superior to CT.

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Barrett's esophagus is the major risk factor for esophageal adenocarcinoma. It has a low but non-neglectable risk, high surveillance costs and no reliable risk stratification markers. We sought to identify early biomarkers, predictive of Barrett's malignant progression, using a meta-analysis approach on gene expression data. This in silico strategy was followed by experimental validation in a cohort of patients with extended follow up from the Instituto Português de Oncologia de Lisboa de Francisco Gentil EPE (Portugal). Bioinformatics and systems biology approaches singled out two candidate predictive markers for Barrett's progression, CYR61 and TAZ. Although previously implicated in other malignancies and in epithelial-to-mesenchymal transition phenotypes, our experimental validation shows for the first time that CYR61 and TAZ have the potential to be predictive biomarkers for cancer progression. Experimental validation by reverse transcriptase quantitative PCR and immunohistochemistry confirmed the up-regulation of both genes in Barrett's samples associated with high-grade dysplasia/adenocarcinoma. In our cohort CYR61 and TAZ up-regulation ranged from one to ten years prior to progression to adenocarcinoma in Barrett's esophagus index samples. Finally, we found that CYR61 and TAZ over-expression is correlated with early focal signs of epithelial to mesenchymal transition. Our results highlight both CYR61 and TAZ genes as potential predictive biomarkers for stratification of the risk for development of adenocarcinoma and suggest a potential mechanistic route for Barrett's esophagus neoplastic progression.

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Background and aim: The aim of this study was to evaluate the efficacy of endoscopic band ligation (EBL) in carefully selected patients who would benefit from this method of resection. Methods: Patients with early upper gastrointestinal and small (< 15 mm) lesions treated with EBL (Duette® Multi-Band Mucosectomy) were prospectively recruited and retrospectively analyzed between 2010 and 2015. All cases were discussed in a multidisciplinary cancer committee and it was concluded that, owing to patient conditions, surgery was not possible and that not conducting histology would not change the clinical management. A first endoscopic control with biopsies was planned at 4-8 weeks. If there was no persistence of the lesion, new controls were programmed at 6 and 12 months. Results: The group (n = 12) included 5 esophagus lesions (adenosquamous carcinoma, n = 1; carcinoma squamous, n = 2; adenocarcinoma, n = 2); 4 gastric lesions (high grade dysplasia, n = 1; adenocarcinoma, n = 2; neuroendocrine tumor [NET], n = 1), and 3 duodenal lesions (NETs) (n = 3). The mean tumor diameter was 9.6 ± 2.8 mm (range 4-15). Only one minor adverse event was described. At first follow-up (4-8 weeks), there was 91.6% and 75% of endoscopic and histological remission, respectively. At 6-month follow-up there was 70% of both endoscopic remission and negative biopsies. And at 12 months, there was 100% and 75% of endoscopic and histological remission, respectively. Persisting lesions were T1 cancers. The median follow-up was 30.6 months. Conclusion: EBL without resection is an easy and safe technique that should be considered in patients with multiple morbidities and small superficial UGI lesions.

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An increase of urokinase-type plasminogen activator (uPA) and a decrease of tissue-type PA (tPA) have been associated with the transition from normal to adenomatous colorectal mucosa. Serial sections from 25 adenomas were used to identify PA-related caseinolytic activities by in situ zymography, blocking selectively uPA or tPA. The distribution of uPA, tPA, and type 1 PA inhibitor mRNAs was investigated by nonradioactive in situ hybridization, and the receptor for uPA was detected by immunostaining. Low- and high-grade epithelial cell dysplasia was mapped histologically. Results show that 23 of 25 adenomas expressed uPA-related lytic activity located predominantly in the periphery whereas tPA-related activity was mainly in central areas of adenomas. In 15 of 25 adenomas, uPA mRNA was expressed in stromal cells clustered in foci that coincided with areas of uPA lytic activity. The probability of finding uPA mRNA-reactive cells was significantly higher in areas with high-grade epithelial dysplasia. uPA receptor was mainly stromal and expressed at the periphery. Type 1 PA inhibitor mRNA cellular expression was diffuse in the stroma, in endothelial cells, and in a subpopulation of alpha-smooth muscle cell actin-reactive cells. These results show that a stromal up-regulation of the uPA/plasmin system is associated with foci of severe dysplasia in a subset of colorectal adenomas.

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Low-grade osteosarcoma is a rare malignancy that may be subdivided into two main subgroups on the basis of location in relation to the bone cortex, that is, parosteal osteosarcoma and low-grade central osteosarcoma. Their histological appearance is quite similar and characterized by spindle cell stroma with low-to-moderate cellularity and well-differentiated anastomosing bone trabeculae. Low-grade osteosarcomas have a simple genetic profile with supernumerary ring chromosomes comprising amplification of chromosome 12q13-15, including the cyclin-dependent kinase 4 (CDK4) and murine double-minute type 2 (MDM2) gene region. Low-grade osteosarcoma can be confused with fibrous and fibro-osseous lesions such as fibromatosis and fibrous dysplasia on radiological and histological findings. We investigated MDM2-CDK4 immunohistochemical expression in a series of 72 low-grade osteosarcomas and 107 fibrous or fibro-osseous lesions of the bone or paraosseous soft tissue. The MDM2-CDK4 amplification status of low-grade osteosarcoma was also evaluated by comparative genomic hybridization array in 18 cases, and the MDM2 amplification status was evaluated by fluorescence in situ hybridization or quantitative real-time polymerase chain reaction in 31 cases of benign fibrous and fibro-osseous lesions. MDM2-CDK4 immunostaining and MDM2 amplification by fluorescence in situ hybridization or quantitative real-time polymerase chain reaction were investigated in a control group of 23 cases of primary high-grade bone sarcoma, including 20 conventional high-grade osteosarcomas, two pleomorphic spindle cell sarcomas/malignant fibrous histiocytomas and one leiomyosarcoma. The results showed that MDM2 and/or CDK4 immunoreactivity was present in 89% of low-grade osteosarcoma specimens. All benign fibrous and fibro-osseous lesions and the tumors of the control group were negative for MDM2 and CDK4. These results were consistent with the MDM2 and CDK4 amplification results. In conclusion, immunohistochemical expression of MDM2 and CDK4 is specific and provides sensitive markers for the diagnosis of low-grade osteosarcomas, helping to differentiate them from benign fibrous and fibro-osseous lesions, particularly in cases with atypical radio-clinical presentation and/or limited biopsy samples.

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High risk of recurrence/progression bladder tumours is treated with Bacillus Calmette-Guérin (BCG) immunotherapy after complete resection of the tumour. Approximately 75% of these tumours express the uncommon carbohydrate antigen sialyl-Tn (Tn), a surrogate biomarker of tumour aggressiveness. Such changes in the glycosylation of cell-surface proteins influence tumour microenvironment and immune responses that may modulate treatment outcome and the course of disease. The aim of this work is to determine the efficiency of BCG immunotherapy against tumours expressing sTn and sTn-related antigen sialyl-6-T (s6T). METHODS: In a retrospective design, 94 tumours from patients treated with BCG were screened for sTn and s6T expression. In vitro studies were conducted to determine the interaction of BCG with high-grade bladder cancer cell line overexpressing sTn. RESULTS: From the 94 cases evaluated, 36 had recurrence after BCG treatment (38.3%). Treatment outcome was influenced by age over 65 years (HR=2.668; (1.344-5.254); P=0.005), maintenance schedule (HR=0.480; (0.246-0.936); P=0.031) and multifocality (HR=2.065; (1.033-4.126); P=0.040). sTn or s6T expression was associated with BCG response (P=0.024; P<0.0001) and with increased recurrence-free survival (P=0.001). Multivariate analyses showed that sTn and/or s6T were independent predictive markers of recurrence after BCG immunotherapy (HR=0.296; (0.148-0.594); P=0.001). In vitro studies demonstrated higher adhesion and internalisation of the bacillus to cells expressing sTn, promoting cell death. CONCLUSION: s6T is described for the first time in bladder tumours. Our data strongly suggest that BCG immunotherapy is efficient against sTn- and s6T-positive tumours. Furthermore, sTn and s6T expression are independent predictive markers of BCG treatment response and may be useful in the identification of patients who could benefit more from this immunotherapy.

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No presente artigo é relatado um caso de uma paciente de 42 anos, diagnosticada em 2011 com Adenocarcinoma in situ e displasia grave do epitélio de revestimento pavimentoso, que foi tratada por traquelectomia. Em Novembro de 2013, a paciente realizou uma citologia da cúpula vaginal, onde se observaram achados citológicos compatíveis com lesão intraepitelial de baixo grau mas também a presença de células que favorecem o diagnóstico de lesão intraepitelial de alto grau. Não sendo possível classificar a lesão intraepitelial como sendo claramente baixo ou alto grau, atribuiu-se a interpretação de lesão intraepitelial de grau indeterminado. Para confirmação e esclarecimento do diagnóstico foi efetuada biopsia com resultado de displasia grave do epitélio de revestimento pavimentoso vaginal sem evidência de invasão do estroma. Por fim foi indicada a pesquisa e tipificação de vírus do papiloma humano, com resultado positivo para o tipo 16. Diagnósticos citológicos de lesão intraepitelial de grau indeterminado apresentam um follow-up histológico estatisticamente diferente das lesões intraepiteliais de alto e baixo grau, e estão na sua maioria associadas a infeção por vírus do papiloma humano de alto risco. Os achados citológicos do presente estudo apoiam a necessidade de se estabelecer esta lesão como categoria de diagnóstico no Sistema de Bethesda, com um follow-up definido.

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SUMMARY High-risk human papillomavirus (hr-HPV) infection is necessary but not sufficient for cervical cancer development. Recently, P16INK4A gene silencing through hypermethylation has been proposed as an important cofactor in cervical carcinogenesis due to its tumor suppressor function. We aimed to investigate P16INK4A methylation status in normal and neoplastic epithelia and evaluate an association with HPV infection and genotype. This cross-sectional study was performed with 141 cervical samples from patients attending Hospital Moncorvo Filho, Rio de Janeiro. HPV detection and genotyping were performed through PCR and P16INK4A methylation by nested-methylation specific PCR (MSP). HPV frequency was 62.4% (88/141). The most common HPV were HPV16 (37%), HPV18 (16.3%) and HPV33/45(15.2%). An upward trend was observed concerning P16INK4A methylation and lesion degree: normal epithelia (10.7%), low grade lesions (22.9%), high grade (57.1%) and carcinoma (93.1%) (p < 0.0001). A multivariate analysis was performed to evaluate an association between methylation, age, tobacco exposure, HPV infection and genotyping. A correlation was found concerning methylation with HPV infection (p < 0.0001), hr-HPV (p = 0.01), HSIL (p < 0.0007) and malignant lesions (p < 0.0001). Since viral infection and epigenetic alterations are related to cervical carcinoma, we suggest that P16INK4A methylation profile maybe thoroughly investigated as a biomarker to identify patients at risk of cancer.

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Animal models of infective endocarditis (IE) induced by high-grade bacteremia revealed the pathogenic roles of Staphylococcus aureus surface adhesins and platelet aggregation in the infection process. In humans, however, S. aureus IE possibly occurs through repeated bouts of low-grade bacteremia from a colonized site or intravenous device. Here we used a rat model of IE induced by continuous low-grade bacteremia to explore further the contributions of S. aureus virulence factors to the initiation of IE. Rats with aortic vegetations were inoculated by continuous intravenous infusion (0.0017 ml/min over 10 h) with 10(6) CFU of Lactococcus lactis pIL253 or a recombinant L. lactis strain expressing an individual S. aureus surface protein (ClfA, FnbpA, BCD, or SdrE) conferring a particular adhesive or platelet aggregation property. Vegetation infection was assessed 24 h later. Plasma was collected at 0, 2, and 6 h postinoculation to quantify the expression of tumor necrosis factor (TNF), interleukin 1α (IL-1α), IL-1β, IL-6, and IL-10. The percentage of vegetation infection relative to that with strain pIL253 (11%) increased when binding to fibrinogen was conferred on L. lactis (ClfA strain) (52%; P = 0.007) and increased further with adhesion to fibronectin (FnbpA strain) (75%; P < 0.001). Expression of fibronectin binding alone was not sufficient to induce IE (BCD strain) (10% of infection). Platelet aggregation increased the risk of vegetation infection (SdrE strain) (30%). Conferring adhesion to fibrinogen and fibronectin favored IL-1β and IL-6 production. Our results, with a model of IE induced by low-grade bacteremia, resembling human disease, extend the essential role of fibrinogen binding in the initiation of S. aureus IE. Triggering of platelet aggregation or an inflammatory response may contribute to or promote the development of IE.

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Telomerase activity (TA) is detected in most human cancers but, with few exceptions, not in normal somatic cells. Little is known about TA in soft tissue tumors. We have examined a series of benign and malignant soft tissue tumors for TA using the telomerase repeat amplification protocol assay. Analysis of the expression of the human telomerase reverse transcriptase was also carried out using RT-PCR. TA was undetectable in benign lesions (15 of 15) and low-grade sarcomas (6 of 6) and was detectable in 50% (19 of 38) of intermediate-/high-grade sarcomas. Although the presence of TA in soft tissue tumors is synonymous with malignancy, it is neither a reliable method in making the distinction between reactive/benign and malignant (especially low-grade) lesions nor a reliable marker of tumor aggressiveness. Leiomyosarcomas and storiform/pleomorphic malignant fibrous histiocytomas rarely showed TA, irrespective of their grade. A strong correlation between human telomerase reverse transcriptase mRNA expression and TA was observed, supporting the close relationship between both parameters. No significant relationship was observed between proliferative activity (as assessed by MIB-1 immunolabeling) and TA. We verified that the absence of telomerase expression was not due to the presence of telomerase inhibitors and therefore alternative mechanism(s) for cell immortalization, yet to be determined, seem to be involved in the development and/or maintenance of some soft tissue sarcomas.

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Human immunodeficiency virus type 1 (HIV-positive) pregnant women require specific prophylactic and therapeutic approaches. The efficacy of established approaches is further challenged by co-infection with other sexually transmitted diseases (STDs). The objective of this study was to determine the prevalence of co-infections in pregnant women infected with different HIV-1 subtypes and to relate these findings, together with additional demographic and clinical parameters, to maternal and infant outcomes. Blood samples from pregnant women were collected and tested for syphilis, hepatitis B virus (HBV) and hepatitis C virus (HCV). Human papillomavirus (HPV) diagnosis was evaluated by the presence of alterations in the cervical epithelium detected through a cytopathological exam. Medical charts provided patient data for the mothers and children. Statistical analyses were conducted with STATA 9.0. We found a prevalence of 10.8% for HCV, 2.3% for chronic HBV, 3.1% for syphilis and 40.8% for HPV. Of those co-infected with HPV, 52.9% presented high-grade intraepithelial lesions or in situ carcinoma. Prematurity, birth weight, Apgar 1' and 5' and Capurro scores were similar between co-infected and non-co-infected women. The presence of other STDs did not impact maternal and concept outcomes. More than half of the patients presenting cervical cytology abnormalities suggestive of HPV had high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesions or cervical cancer, evidencing an alarming rate of these lesions.

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Deformation of the Circum-Rhodope Belt Mesozoic (Middle Triassic to earliest Lower Cretaceous) low-grade schists underneath an arc-related ophiolitic magmatic suite and associated sedimentary successions in the eastern Rhodope-Thrace region occurred as a two-episode tectonic process: (i) Late Jurassic deformation of arc to margin units resulting from the eastern Rhodope-Evros arc-Rhodope terrane continental margin collision and accretion to that margin, and (ii) Middle Eocene deformation related to the Tertiary crustal extension and final collision resulting in the closure of the Vardar ocean south of the Rhodope terrane. The first deformational event D-1 is expressed by Late Jurassic NW-N vergent fold generations and the main and subsidiary planar-linear structures. Although overprinting, these structural elements depict uniform bulk north-directed thrust kinematics and are geometrically compatible with the increments of progressive deformation that develops in same greenschist-facies metamorphic grade. It followed the Early-Middle Jurassic magmatic evolution of the eastern Rhodope-Evros arc established on the upper plate of the southward subducting Maliac-Meliata oceanic lithosphere that established the Vardar Ocean in a supra-subduction back-arc setting. This first event resulted in the thrust-related tectonic emplacement of the Mesozoic schists in a supra-crustal level onto the Rhodope continental margin. This Late Jurassic-Early Cretaceous tectonic event related to N-vergent Balkan orogeny is well-constrained by geochronological data and traced at a regional-scale within distinct units of the Carpatho-Balkan Belt. Following subduction reversal towards the north whereby the Vardar Ocean was subducted beneath the Rhodope margin by latest Cretaceous times, the low-grade schists aquired a new position in the upper plate, and hence, the Mesozoic schists are lacking the Cretaceous S-directed tectono-metamorphic episode whose effects are widespread in the underlying high-grade basement. The subduction of the remnant Vardar Ocean located behind the colliding arc since the middle Cretaceous was responsible for its ultimate closure, Early Tertiary collision with the Pelagonian block and extension in the region caused the extensional collapse related to the second deformational event D-2. This extensional episode was experienced passively by the Mesozoic schists located in the hanging wall of the extensional detachments in Eocene times. It resulted in NE-SW oriented open folds representing corrugation antiforms of the extensional detachment surfaces, brittle faulting and burial history beneath thick Eocene sediments as indicated by 42.1-39.7 Ma Ar-40/Ar-39 mica plateau ages obtained in the study. The results provide structural constraints for the involvement components of Jurassic paleo-subduction zone in a Late Jurassic arc-continental margin collisional history that contributed to accretion-related crustal growth of the Rhodope terrane. (C) 2011 Elsevier Ltd. All rights reserved.

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In the NW Himalaya of India, high-grade metamorphic rocks of the High Himalayan Crystalline Zone (HHCZ) are exposed as a 50 km large dome along the Miyar and Gianbul valleys. This Gianbul dome is cored by migmatitic paragneiss formed at peak conditions around 750 degreesC and 8 kbar, and symmetrically surrounded by sillimanite, kyanite +/- staurolite, garnet, biotite, and chlorite Barrovian mineral zones. Thermobarometric and structural investigations reveal that the Gianbul dome results from a polyphase tectono-metamorphic evolution. The first phase corresponds to the NE-directed thrusting of the Shikar Beh nappe, that is responsible for the Barrovian prograde metamorphic field gradient in the southern limb of the dome. In the northern limb of the dome, the Barrovian prograde metamorphism is the consequence of a second tectonic phase, associated with the SW-directed thrusting of the Nyimaling-Tsarap nappe. Following these crustal thickening events, exhumation and doming of the HHCZ high-grade rocks were controlled by extension along the north-dipping Zanskar Shear Zone, in the frontal part of the Nyimaling-Tsarap nappe, as well as by coeval to late extension along the south-dipping Khanjar Shear Zone, in the southern limb of the Gianbul dome. Rapid syn-convergence extension along both of these detachments induced a nearly isothermal decompression, resulting in a high-temperature/low-pressure metamorphic overprint, as well as enhanced partial melting. Such a rapid exhumation within a compressional orogenic context appears unlikely to be controlled solely by granitic diapirism. Alternatively, large-scale doming in the Himalaya could reflect a sub-vertical ductile extrusion of partially melted rocks.

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Transient high-grade bacteremia following invasive procedures carries a risk of infective endocarditis (IE). This is supported by experimental endocarditis. On the other hand, case-control studies showed that IE could be caused by cumulative exposure to low-grade bacteremia occurring during daily activities. However, no experimental demonstration of this latter possibility exists. This study investigated the infectivity in animals of continuous low-grade bacteremia compared to that of brief high-grade bacteremia. Rats with aortic vegetations were inoculated with Streptococcus intermedius, Streptococcus gordonii or Staphylococcus aureus (strains Newman and P8). Animals were challenged with 10(3) to 10(6) CFU. Identical bacterial numbers were given by bolus (1 ml in 1 min) or continuous infusion (0.0017 ml/min over 10 h). Bacteremia was 50 to 1,000 times greater after bolus than during continuous inoculation. Streptococcal bolus inoculation of 10(5) CFU infected 63 to 100% vegetations compared to 30 to 71% infection after continuous infusion (P > 0.05). When increasing the inoculum to 10(6) CFU, bolus inoculation infected 100% vegetations and continuous infusion 70 to 100% (P > 0.05). S. aureus bolus injection of 10(3) CFU infected 46 to 57% valves. This was similar to the 53 to 57% infection rates produced by continuous infusion (P > 0.05). Inoculation of 10(4) CFU of S. aureus infected 80 to 100% vegetations after bolus and 60 to 75% after continuous infusion (P > 0.05). These results show that high-level bacteremia is not required to induce experimental endocarditis and support the hypothesis that cumulative exposure to low-grade bacteremia represents a genuine risk of IE in humans.

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The geologic structures and metamorphic zonation of the northwestern Indian Himalaya contrast significantly with those in the central and eastern parts of the range, where the high-grade metamorphic rocks of the High Himalayan Crystalline (HHC) thrust southward over the weakly metamorphosed sediments of the Lesser Himalaya along the Main Central Thrust (MCT). Indeed, the hanging wall of the MCT in the NW Himalaya mainly consists of the greenschist facies metasediments of the Chamba zone, whereas HHC high-grade rocks are exposed more internally in the range as a large-scale dome called the Gianbul dome. This Gianbul dome is bounded by two oppositely directed shear zones, the NE-dipping Zanskar Shear Zone (ZSZ) on the northern flank and the SW-dipping Miyar Shear Zone (MSZ) on the southern limb. Current models for the emplacement of the HHC in NW India as a dome structure differ mainly in terms of the roles played by both the ZSZ and the MSZ during the tectonothermal evolution of the HHC. In both the channel flow model and wedge extrusion model, the ZSZ acts as a backstop normal fault along which the high-grade metamorphic rocks of the HHC of Zanskar are exhumed. In contrast, the recently proposed tectonic wedging model argues that the ZSZ and the MSZ correspond to one single detachment system that operates as a subhorizontal backthrust off of the MCT. Thus, the kinematic evolution of the two shear zones, the ZSZ and the MSZ, and their structural, metamorphic and chronological relations appear to be diagnostic features for discriminating the different models. In this paper, structural, metamorphic and geochronological data demonstrate that the MSZ and the ZSZ experienced two distinct kinematic evolutions. As such, the data presented in this paper rule out the hypothesis that the MSZ and the ZSZ constitute one single detachment system, as postulated by the tectonic wedging model. Structural, metamorphic and geochronological data are used to present an alternative tectonic model for the large-scale doming in the NW Indian Himalaya involving early NE-directed tectonics, weakness in the upper crust, reduced erosion at the orogenic front and rapid exhumation along both the ZSZ and the MSZ.