959 resultados para 796[72 82]


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The binding of xylo-oligosaccharides to Chainia endoxylanase resulted in a decrease in fluorescence intensity of the enzyme with the formation of 1:1 complex. Equilibrium and thermodynamic parameters of ligand binding were determined by fluorescence titrations and titration calorimetry. The affinity of xylanase for the oligosaccharides increases in the order X-2 < X-3 < X-4 less than or equal to X-5. Contributions from the enthalpy towards the free energy change decreased with increasing chain length from X-2 to X-4, whereas an increase in entropy was observed, the change in enthalpy and entropy of binding being compensatory. The entropically driven binding process suggested that hydrophobic interactions as well as hydrogen bonds play a predominant role in ligand binding.

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Purpose Melanopsin-expressing retinal ganglion cells (mRGCs) have non-image forming functions including mediation of the pupil light reflex (PLR). There is limited knowledge about mRGC function in retinal disease. Initial retinal changes in age-related macular degeneration (AMD) occur in the paracentral region where mRGCs have their highest density, making them vulnerable during disease onset. In this cross-sectional clinical study, we measured the PLR to determine if mRGC function is altered in early stages of macular degeneration. Methods Pupil responses were measured in 8 early AMD patients (AREDS 2001 classification; mean age 72.6 ± 7.2 years, 5M, and 3F) and 12 healthy control participants (mean age 66.6 ± 6.1 years, 8M and 4F) using a custom-built Maxwellian-view pupillometer. Stimuli were 0.5 Hz sinewaves (10 s duration, 35.6° diameter) of short wavelength light (464nm, blue; retinal irradiance = 14.5 log quanta.cm-2.s-1) to produce high melanopsin excitation and of long wavelength light (638nm, red; retinal irradiance = 14.9 log quanta.cm-2.s-1), to bias activation to outer retina and provide a control. Baseline pupil diameter was determined during a 10 s pre-stimulus period. The post illumination pupil response (PIPR) was recorded for 40 s. The 6 s PIPR and maximum pupil constriction were expressed as percentage baseline (M ± SD). Results The blue PIPR was significantly less sustained (p<0.01) in the early AMD group (75.49 ± 7.88%) than the control group (58.28 ± 9.05%). The red PIPR was not significantly different (p>0.05) between the early AMD (84.79 ± 4.03%) and control groups (82.01 ± 5.86%). Maximum constriction amplitude in the early AMD group for blue (43.67 ± 6.35%) and red (48.64 ± 6.49%) stimuli were not significantly different to the control group for blue (39.94 ± 3.66%) and red (44.98 ± 3.15%) stimuli (p>0.05). Conclusions These results are suggestive of inner retinal mRGC deficits in early AMD. This non-invasive, objective measure of pupil responses may provide a new method for quantifying mRGC function and monitoring AMD progression.

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Background and purpose: The purpose of this study is to examine the feasibility of developing plasma predictive value biomarkers of cerebral ischemic stroke before imaging evidence is acquired. Methods: Blood samples were obtained from 198 patients who attended our neurology department as emergencies - with symptoms of vertigo, numbness, limb weakness, etc. - within 4.5 h of symptom onset, and before imaging evidence was obtained and medical treatment. After the final diagnosis was made by MRI/DWI/MRA or CTA in the following 24-72 h, the above cases were divided into two groups: stroke group and non-stroke group according to the imaging results. The levels of baseline plasma antithrombin III (AT-III), thrombin-antithrombin III (TAT), fibrinogen, D-dimer and high-sensitivity C-reactive protein (hsCRP) in the two groups were assayed. Results: The level of the baseline AT-III in the stroke group was 118.07 ± 26.22%, which was lower than that of the non-stroke group (283.83 ± 38.39%). The levels of TAT, fibrinogen, hsCRP were 7.24 ± 2.28 μg/L, 5.49 ± 0.98 g/L, and 2.17 ± 1.07 mg/L, respectively, which were higher than those of the non-stroke group (2.53 ± 1.23 μg/L, 3.35 ± 0.50 g/L, 1.82 ± 0.67 mg/L). All the P-values were less than 0.001. The D-dimer level was 322.57 ± 60.34 μg/L, which was slightly higher than that of the non-stroke group (305.76 ± 49.52 μg/L), but the P-value was 0.667. The sensitivities of AT-III, TAT, fibrinogen, D-dimer and hsCRP for predicting ischemic stroke tendency were 97.37%, 96.05%, 3.29%, 7.89%, but the specificity was 93.62%, 82.61%, 100% and 100%, respectively, and all the P-values were less than 0.001. High levels of D-dimer and hsCRP were mainly seen in the few cases with severe large-vessel infarction. Conclusions: Clinical manifestations of acute focal neurological deficits were associated with plasma AT-III and fibrinogen. These tests might help the risk assessment of acute cerebral ischemic stroke and/or TIA with infarction tendency in the superacute stage before positive imaging evidence is obtained.

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Yellow form (I): Mr= 350.09, monoclinic, P2Jn, Z--4, a=9.525(1), b=14.762(1), c= 11.268(1),/t, fl= 107.82 (1) o , V= 1508.3 A 3 , Din(flotation in aqueous KI)= 1.539 (2), D x= 1.541 (2) g cm -3, #(Cu Ka, 2 = 1.5418 A) = 40.58 cm -~, F(000) = 712, T= 293 K, R = 8.8% for 2054 significant refections. Red form (II): Mr= 350.09, triclinic, Pi, Z=2, a=9.796(2), b= 10.750 (2), c= 7.421 (1)A, a= 95.29 (2), fl= 0108-2701/84/111901-05501.50 70.18 (1), y = 92-.76 (2) °, V= 731.9 A 3, Din(flotation in KI) = 1.585 (3), D x = 1.588 (3) g cm -3, ~t(Cu Ka, 2 = 1.5418/~) = 40.58 cm -1, F(000) = 356, T=293 K, R = 5.8% for 1866 significant reflections. There are no unusual bond distances or angles. The triazole and two phenyl rings are planar. On the basis of packing considerations the possibility of intermolecular interactions playing a role in the reactivity of the starting material is ruled out.

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In this study, we assessed a broad range of barley breeding lines and commercial varieties by three hardness methods (two particle size methods and one crush resistance method (SKCS—Single-Kernel Characterization System), grown at multiple sites to see if there was variation in barley hardness and if that variation was genetic or environmentally controlled. We also developed near-infrared reflectance (NIR) calibrations for these three hardness methods to ascertain if NIR technology was suitable for rapid screening of breeding lines or specific populations. In addition, we used this data to identify genetic regions that may be associated with hardness. There were significant (p<0.05) genetic effects for the three hardness methods. There were also environmental effects, possibly linked to the effect of protein on hardness, i.e. increasing protein resulted in harder grain. Heritability values were calculated at >85% for all methods. The NIR calibrations, with R2 values of >90%, had Standard Error of Prediction values of 0.90, 72 and 4.0, respectively, for the three hardness methods. These equations were used to predict hardness values of a mapping population which resulted in genetic markers being identified on all chromosomes but chromosomes 2H, 3H, 5H, 6H and 7H had markers with significant LOD scores. The two regions on 5H were on the distal end of both the long and short arms. The region that showed significant LOD score was on the long arm. However, the region on the short arm associated with the hardness (hordoindoline) genes did not have significant LOD scores. The results indicate that barley hardness is influenced by both genotype and environment and that the trait is heritable, which would allow breeders to develop very hard or soft varieties if required. In addition, NIR was shown to be a reliable tool for screening for hardness. While the data set used in this study has a relatively low variation in hardness, the tools developed could be applied to breeding populations that have large variation in barley grain hardness.

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Carvalhotingis visenda (Hemiptera: Tingidae) is the first biological control agent approved for release against cat’s claw creeper Macfadyena unguis-cati (Bignoniaceae) in Australia. The mass-rearing and field releases of C. visenda commenced in May 2007 and since then more than half a million individuals have been released at 72 sites in Queensland and New South Wales. In addition, community groups have released over 11,000 tingid-infested potted cat’s claw creeper plants at 63 sites in Queensland. Establishment of C. visenda was evident at 80% of the release sites after three years. The tingid established on the two morphologically distinct ‘long-pod’ and ‘short-pod’ cat’s claw creeper varieties present in Australia. Establishment was more at sites that received three or more field releases (83%) than at sites that received two or less releases (73%); and also at sites that received more than 5000 individuals (82%) than at sites that received less than 5000 individuals (68%). In the field, the tingid spread slowly (5.4 m per year), and the maximum distance of C. visenda incidence away from the initial release points ranged from 6 m to approximately 1 km.

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The present cross-sectional study aimed to assess oral health behaviour, dental and periodontal conditions, dental care, and their relationships among elderly dentate patients in Lithuania. The target population in the study were dentate patients aged 60 and older attending public dental services in Kedainiai, Lithuania. The data collection took place between the autumn of 1999 and the winter of 2001. Data were collected by means of a self-administered questionnaire for all (n=174) and a clinical examination targeting about half of the subjects (n=100). The questionnaire inquired about oral health behaviour, the life-first and also the most recent dental treatments, sources on and self-assessed knowledge of oral self-care, a self-reported number of teeth, and socio-demographic information. The clinical examination included basic dental and periodontal conditions. A total of 82 women and 92 men completed the questionnaire; their mean age was 69.2 and their average number of teeth was 16.2 (CI 95% 15.4-17.1). In all, 25% had 21 or more teeth and 32% indicated wearing removable dentures. The oral health behaviour, the participants reported, was poor: 30% reported twice daily toothbrushing, 57% responded that they always use fluoride toothpaste, 19% indicated daily interdental cleaning, nearly all said they take sugar in their coffee and tea, and 30% indicated going for check-ups. As the main source of information on oral self-care, the subjects indicated health professionals (82%), followed by social contacts (72%), broadcasted media (58%), and printed media (42%). A total of 34% assessed their knowledge of oral self-care as good, and their self-assessed knowledge correlated (r=0.52) with professional guidance they had received about oral self-care. In their most recent treatment, conservative (39%) and non-conservative (34%) treatments dominated, and preventive ones were the least reported (7%). Regarding guidance in oral self-care, 54% reported having received such about toothbrushing, 32% about interdental cleaning, and 33% had been given visual information. Clinical examinations revealed the presence of plaque, calculus, bleeding on probing and deepened pockets in all of the subjects; 70% of the subjects were diagnosed with pockets of 6mm and deeper, 94% with caries, and 73% with overhangs of restorations. Those subjects assessing their knowledge of oral self-care as good and reporting a higher intensity of guidance in oral self-care as received, indicated practicing the recommended oral self-care more frequently. Twice daily toothbrushing was associated with good self-assessed knowledge of oral self-care (OR 4.1, p<0.001) and a university education (OR 5.6, p<0.001). Those subjects with better oral health behaviour had a greater number of teeth. Having 21 or more teeth was associated with good self-assessed knowledge of oral self-care (OR 4.1, p=0.03). Better periodontal conditions were associated with a higher frequency of toothbrushing. The presence of periodontal pockets of 6mm and deeper was associated with the level of self-assessed knowledge of oral self-care being below good (OR=3.0, p=0.04) and the level of dental cleanliness being poor (OR=2.7, p=0.02). To conclude, oral health behaviour and conditions call for improvement in elderly subjects in Lithuania. To improve the oral health of their elderly dentate patients, dentists should apply all the available tools of chair-side prevention and active guidance. The latter would be an effective means of updating the knowledge of oral self-care and supporting recommended oral health behaviour. A preventive approach should be strongly emphasized in countries with limited resources for oral health care, such as Lithuania. Author’s address: Sonata Vyšniauskaite, Department of Oral Public Health, Institute of Dentistry, University of Helsinki, P.O.Box 41, FI-00014 Helsinki, Finland. E-mail: sonata.vysniauskaite@helsinki.fi

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The aim of this study was to deepen the understanding of eating disorders, body image dissatisfaction and related traits in males by examining the epidemiology and genetic epidemiology of these conditions in representative population-based twin samples. The sample of Study I included adolescent twins from FinnTwin12 cohorts born 1983 87 and assessed by a questionnaire at ages 14 y (N=2070 boys, N=2062 girls) and 17 y (N=1857 boys, N=1984 girls). Samples of Studies II-V consisted of young adult twins born 1974-79 from FinnTwin16 cohorts (Study II N=1245 men, Study III N=724 men, Study IV N=2122 men, Study V N=2426 women and N=1962 men), who were assessed by a questionnaire at the age 22-28 y. In addition, 49 men and 526 women were assessed by a diagnostic interview. The overall response rates for both twin cohorts in all studies were 80-90%. In boys, mainly genetic factors (82%, 95% confidence interval [CI] 72-92) explained the covariation of self-esteem between the ages 14 y and 17 y, whereas in girls, environmental factors (69%, 95% CI 43-93) were the largest contributors. Of young men, 30% experienced high muscle dissatisfaction, while 12% used or had used muscle building supplements and/or anabolic steroids on a regular basis. Muscle dissatisfaction exhibited a robust association with the indicators of mental distress and a genetic component (42%, 95% CI 23-59) for its liability in this population was found. The variation of muscle-building substance use was primarily explained by the environmental factors. The incidence rate of anorexia nervosa in males for the age of 10-24 y was 15.7 (95% CI 6.6-37.8) per 100 000 person-years, and its lifetime prevalence by the young adulthood was 0.24% (95% CI 0.03-0.44). All detected probands with anorexia nervosa had recovered from eating disorders, but suffered from substantial psychiatric comorbidity, which manifested also in their co-twins. Additionally, male co-twins of the probands displayed significant dissatisfaction with body musculature, a male-specific feature of body dysmorphic disorder. All probands were from twin pairs discordant for eating disorders. Of the five male probands with anorexia nervosa, only one was from an opposite-sex twin pair. Among women from the opposite-sex pairs, the prevalence of DSM-IV or broad anorexia nervosa was no significantly different compared to that of the women from monozygotic pairs or from dizygotic same-sex pairs. The prevalence of DSM-IV or broad bulimia nervosa did not differ in opposite- versus same-sex female twin individuals either. In both sexes, the overall profile of indicators on eating disorders was rather similar between individuals from opposite-sex and same-sex pairs. In adolescence, development of self-esteem was differently regulated in boys compared to girls: this finding may have far-reaching implications on the etiology of sex discrepancy of internalizing and externalizing disorders. In young men, muscle dissatisfaction and muscle building supplement/steroid use were relatively common. Muscle dissatisfaction was associated with marked psychological distress such as symptoms of depression and disordered eating. Both genetic and environmental factors explained muscle dissatisfaction in the population, but environmental factors appeared to best explain the use of muscle-building substances. In this study, anorexia nervosa in boys and young men from the general population was more common, transient and accompanied by more substantial co-morbidity than previously thought. Co-twins of the probands with anorexia nervosa displayed significant psychopathology such as male specific symptoms of body dysmorphic disorder, but none of them had had an eating disorder: taken together, these traits are suggestive for an endophenotype of anorexia nervosa in males. Little evidence was found on that the risk for anorexia nervosa, bulimia nervosa, disordered eating or body dissatisfaction were associated with twin zygosity. Thus, it is unlikely that in utero femininization, masculinization or postnatal socialization according to the sex of the co-twin have a major influence on the later development of eating disorders or related traits.

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Obesity is globally prevalent and highly heritable, but its underlying genetic factors remain largely elusive. To identify genetic loci for obesity susceptibility, we examined associations between body mass index and approximately 2.8 million SNPs in up to 123,865 individuals with targeted follow up of 42 SNPs in up to 125,931 additional individuals. We confirmed 14 known obesity susceptibility loci and identified 18 new loci associated with body mass index (P < 5 x 10(-)(8)), one of which includes a copy number variant near GPRC5B. Some loci (at MC4R, POMC, SH2B1 and BDNF) map near key hypothalamic regulators of energy balance, and one of these loci is near GIPR, an incretin receptor. Furthermore, genes in other newly associated loci may provide new insights into human body weight regulation.

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- Objectives To identify the psychological effects of false-positive screening mammograms in the UK. - Methods Systematic review of all controlled studies and qualitative studies of women with a false-positive screening mammogram. The control group participants had normal mammograms. All psychological outcomes including returning for routine screening were permitted. All studies had a narrative synthesis. - Results The searches returned seven includable studies (7/4423). Heterogeneity was such that meta-analysis was not possible. Studies using disease-specific measures found that, compared to normal results, there could be enduring psychological distress that lasted up to 3 years; the level of distress was related to the degree of invasiveness of the assessment. At 3 years the relative risks were, further mammography, 1.28 (95% CI 0.82 to 2.00), fine needle aspiration 1.80 (95% CI 1.17 to 2.77), biopsy 2.07 (95% CI 1.22 to 3.52) and early recall 1.82 (95% CI 1.22 to 2.72). Studies that used generic measures of anxiety and depression found no such impact up to 3 months after screening. Evidence suggests that women with false-positive mammograms have an increased likelihood of failing to reattend for routine screening, relative risk 0.97 (95% CI 0.96 to 0.98) compared with women with normal mammograms. - Conclusions Having a false-positive screening mammogram can cause breast cancer-specific distress for up to 3 years. The degree of distress is related to the invasiveness of the assessment. Women with false-positive mammograms are less likely to return for routine assessment than those with normal ones.

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In this study, for the first time the effects of glycerol on enzymatic hydrolysis and ethanol fermentation were investigated. Enzymatic hydrolysis was inhibited slightly with 2.0 wt% glycerol, leading to reduction in glucan digestibility from 84.9% without glycerol to 82.9% (72 h). With 5.0 wt% and 10.0 wt% glycerol, glucan digestibility reduced by 4.5% and11.0%, respectively. However, glycerol appeared not detrimental to cellulase enzymes. Ethanol fermentation was not affected with glycerol up to 5.0 wt%, and was inhibited slightly with 10.0 wt% glycerol, which resulted in reduction in ethanol yield from 86.0% without glycerol to 83.7% (20 h). Based on laboratory and pilot scale enzymatic hydrolysis and ethanol production results, it was estimated that 0.142 kg ethanol could be produced from 1.0 kg dry bagasse (a glucan content of 38.0%) after pretreatment with acidified glycerol solution.

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Infectious diseases put an enormous burden on both children and the elderly in the forms of respiratory, gastrointestinal and oral infections. There is evidence suggesting that specific probiotics may be antagonistic to pathogens and may enhance the immune system, but the clinical evidence is still too sparce to make general conclusions on the disease-preventive effects of probiotics. This thesis, consisting of four independent, double-blind, placebo-controlled clinical trials, investigated whether Lactobacillus GG (LGG) or a specific probiotic combination containing LGG would reduce the risk of common infections or the prevalence of pathogens in healthy and infection-prone children and in independent and institutionalised elderly people. In healthy day-care children, the 7-month consumption of probiotic milk containing Lactobacillus GG appeared to postpone the first acute respiratory infection (ARI) by one week (p=0.03, adjusted p=0.16), and to reduce complicated infections (39% vs. 47%, p<0.05, adjusted p=0.13), as well as the need for antibiotic treatment (44% vs. 54%, p=0.03, adjusted p=0.08) and day-care absences (4.9 vs. 5.8 days, p=0.03, adjusted p=0.09) compared to the placebo milk. In infection-prone children, the 6-month consumption of a combination of four probiotic bacteria (LGG, L. rhamnosus LC705, Propionibacterium freudenreichii JS, Bifidobacterium breve 99) taken in capsules appeared to reduce recurrent ARIs (72% vs. 82%, p<0.05; adjusted p=0.06), and the effect was particularly noticeable in a subgroup of children with allergic diseases (12% vs. 33%, p=0.03), although no effect on the presence of nasopharyngeal rhinovirus or enterovirus was seen. The 5-month consumption of the same probiotic combination did not show any beneficial effects on the respiratory infections in frail, institutionalised elderly subjects. In healthy children receiving Lactobacillus GG, the reduction in complications resulted in a marginal reduction in the occurrence of acute otitis media (AOM) (31% vs. 39%, p=0.08; adjusted p=0.19), and the postponement of the first AOM episode by 12 days (p=0.04; adjusted p=0.09). However, in otitis-prone children, a probiotic combination did not reduce the occurrence of AOM or the total prevalence of common AOM pathogens (Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, Moraxella catarrhalis), except in the case of children with allergic diseases, in whom probiotics reduced recurrent AOM episodes (0% vs. 14%, p=0.03). In addition, interaction between probiotics and bacterial carriage was seen: probiot-ics reduced AOM in children who did not carry any bacterial pathogens (63% vs. 83%), but the effect was the reverse in children carrying bacteria in the nasopharynx (74% vs 62%) (p<0.05). Long-term probiotic treatment, either LGG given in milk to healthy children for 7 months or a combination of probiotics given in capsules to institutionalised elderly subjects for 5 months, did not reduce the occurrence of acute diarrhoea. However, when the probiotic combination (LGG, L. rhamnosus LC705, Propionibacterium JS) was given in cheese to independent elderly subjects for 4 months, the oral carriage of high Candida counts was reduced in the probiotic group vs. the placebo group (21% vs. 34%, p=0.01, adjusted p=0.004). The risk of hyposalivation was also reduced in the probiotic group (p=0.05). In conclusion, probiotics appear to slightly alleviate the severity of infections by postponing their appearance, by reducing complications and the need for antimicrobial treatments. In addition, they appear to prevent recurrent infections in certain subgroups of children, such as in infection-prone children with allergic diseases. Alleviating ARI by probiotics may lead to a marginal reduction in the occurrence of AOM in healthy children but not in infection-prone children with disturbed nasopharyngeal microbiota. On the basis of these results it could be supposed that Lactobacillus GG or a specific combination containing LGG are effective against viral but not against bacterial otitis, and the mechanism is probably mediated through the stimulation of the immune system. A specific probiotic combination does not reduce respiratory infections in frail elderly subjects. Acute diarrhoea, either in children or in the elderly, is not prevented by the continuous, long-term consumption of probiotics, but the consumption of a specific probiotic combination in a food matrix is beneficial to the oral health of the elderly, through the reduction of the carriage of Candida.

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A highly sensitive and specific reverse transcription polymerase chain reaction enzyme linked immunosorbent assay (RT-PCR-ELISA) was developed for the objective detection of nucleoprotein (N) gene of peste des petits ruminants (PPR) virus from field outbreaks or experimentally infected sheep. Two primers (IndF and Np4) and one probe (Sp3) available or designed for the amplification/probing of the 'N' gene of PPR virus, were chosen for labeling and use in RT-PCR-ELISA based on highest analytical sensitivity of detection of infective virus or N-gene containing recombinant plasmid, higher nucleotide homology at the primer binding sites of the 'N' gene sequences available and the ability to amplify PPR viral genome from different sources of samples. RT-PCR was performed with unlabeled IndF and Np4 digoxigenin labeled primers followed by a microplate hybridization probe reaction with biotin labeled Sp3 probe. RT-PCR-ELISA was found to be 10-fold more sensitive than the conventional RT-PCR followed by agarose gel based detection of PCR product. Based on the Mean (mean +/- 3S.D.) optical density (OD) values of 47 RT-PCR negative samples, OD values above 0.306 were considered positive in RT-PCR-ELISA. A total of 82 oculo-nasal swabs and tissue samples from suspected PPR cases were analyzed by RT-PCR and RT-PCR-ELISA, which revealed 54.87 and 58.54% positivity, respectively. From an experimentally infected sheep, both RT-PCR and RT-PCR-ELISA could detect the virus from 6 days post-infection up to 9 days in oculo-nasal swabs. On post-mortem, PPR viral genome was detected in spleen, lymph node, lung, heart and liver. The correlation co-efficient between RT-PCR-ELISA OD values and either TCID50 of virus or molecules of DNA was 0.622 and 0.657, respectively. The advantages of RT-PCR-ELISA over the conventional agarose gel based detection of RT-PCR products are discussed. (c) 2006 Elsevier B.V. All rights reserved.

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We report interesting anomalies in the temperature dependent Raman spectra of FeSe0.82 measured from 3 K to 300 K in the spectral range from 60 to 1800 cm(-1) and determine their origin using complementary first-principles density functional calculations. A phonon mode near 100 cm-1 exhibits a sharp increase by similar to 5% in the frequency below a temperature T-s (similar to 100 K) attributed to strong spin-phonon coupling and onset of short-range antiferromagnetic order. In addition, two high frequency modes are observed at 1350 cm-1 and 1600 cm-1, attributed to electronic Raman scattering from (x(2)-y(2)) to xz/yz d-orbitals of Fe. (C) 2010 Elsevier Ltd. All rights reserved.