Lesion Recognition in Multiple Sclerosis: A Sequence Comparison and Quantification Study at 3T

Introduction Lesion detection in multiple sclerosis (MS) is an essential part of its clinical diagnosis. In addition, radiological characterisation of MS lesions is an important research field that aims at distinguishing different MS types, monitoring drug response and prognosis. To date, various MR protocols have been proposed to obtain optimal lesion contrast for early and comprehensive diagnosis of the MS disease. In this study, we compare the sensitivity of five different MR contrasts for lesion detection: (i) the DIR sequence (Double Inversion Recovery, [4]), (ii) the Dark-fluid SPACE acquisition schemes, a 3D variant of a 2D FLAIR sequence [1], (iii) the MP2RAGE [2], an MP-RAGE variant that provides homogeneous T1 contrast and quantitative T1-values, and the sequences currently used for clinical MS diagnosis (2D FLAIR, MP-RAGE). Furthermore, we investigate the T1 relaxation times of cortical and sub-cortical regions in the brain hemispheres and the cerebellum at 3T. Methods 10 early-stage female MS patients (age: 31.64.7y; disease duration: 3.81.9y; disability score, EDSS: 1.80.4) and 10 healthy controls (age and gender-matched: 31.25.8y) were included in the study after obtaining informed written consent according to the local ethic protocol. All experiments were performed at 3T (Magnetom Trio a Tim System, Siemens, Germany) using a 32-channel head coil [5]. The imaging protocol included the following sequences, (all except for axial FLAIR 2D with 1x1x1.2 mm3 voxel and 256x256x160 matrix): DIR (TI1/TI2/TR XX/3652/10000 ms, iPAT=2, TA 12:02 min), MP-RAGE (TI/TR 900/2300 ms, iPAT=3, TA 3:47 min); MP2RAGE (TI1/TI2/TR 700/2500/5000 ms, iPAT=3, TA 8:22 min, cf. [2]); 3D FLAIR SPACE (only for patient 4-6, TI/TR 1800/5000 ms, iPAT=2, TA=5;52 min, cf. [1]); Axial FLAIR (0.9x0.9x2.5 mm3, 256x256x44 matrix, TI/TR 2500/9000 ms, iPAT=2, TA 4:05 min). Lesions were identified by two experienced neurologist and radiologist, manually contoured and assigned to regional locations (s. table 1). Regional lesion masks (RLM) from each contrast were compared for number and volumes of lesions. In addition, RLM were merged in a single "master" mask, which represented the sum of the lesions of all contrasts. T1 values were derived for each location from this mask for patients 5-10 (3D FLAIR contrast was missing for patient 1-4). Results & Discussion The DIR sequence appears the most sensitive for total lesions count, followed by the MP2RAGE (table 1). The 3D FLAIR SPACE sequence turns out to be more sensitive than the 2D FLAIR, presumably due to reduced partial volume effects. Looking for sub-cortical hemispheric lesions, the DIR contrast appears to be equally sensitive to the MP2RAGE and SPACE, but most sensitive for cerebellar MS plaques. The DIR sequence is also the one that reveals cortical hemispheric lesions best. T1 relaxation times at 3T in the WM and GM of the hemispheres and the cerebellum, as obtained with the MP2RAGE sequence, are shown in table 2. Extending previous studies, we confirm overall longer T1-values in lesion tissue and higher standard deviations compared to the non-lesion tissue and control tissue in healthy controls. We hypothesize a biological (different degree of axonal loss and demyelination) rather than technical origin. Conclusion In this study, we applied 5 MR contrasts including two novel sequences to investigate the contrast of highest sensitivity for early MS diagnosis. In addition, we characterized for the first time the T1 relaxation time in cortical and sub-cortical regions of the hemispheres and the cerebellum. Results are in agreement with previous publications and meaningful biological interpretation of the data.

Kinetics of T cell-activation molecules in response to Mycobacterium tuberculosis antigens

The phenotypic features acquired subsequent to antigen-specific stimulation in vitro were evaluated by means of the kinetic expressions of CD69 and CD25 activation molecules on T lymphocytes and assayed by flow cytometry in response to PPD, Ag85B, and ferritin in PPD-positive healthy control individuals. In response to PHA, CD69 staining on both CD4+ and CD8+ T cells became initially marked after 4 h, peaked at 24 h, and quickly decreased after 120 h. For CD25, a latter expression was detected around 8 h, having increased after 96 h. As expected, the response rate to the mycobacterial antigens was much lower than that to the mitogen. Positive staining was high after 96 h for CD25 and after 24 h for CD69. CD69 expression was significantly enhanced (p < 0.05) on CD8+ as compared to CD4+ T cells. High levels were also found between 96-120 h. Regarding Ag85B, CD25+ cells were mostly CD4+ instead of CD8+ T cells. Moreover, in response to ferritin, a lower CD25 expression was noted. The present data will allow further characterization of the immune response to new mycobacterial-specific antigens and their evaluation for possible inclusion in developing new diagnostic techniques for tuberculosis as well in a new vaccine to prevent the disease.

Enhanced Proinflammatory Cytokine Response to Bacterial Lipopolysaccharide in the Adult Male Rat after either Neonatal or Prepubertal Ablation of Biological Testosterone Activity.

A sex steroid-dependent modulation of the immune function in mammals is accepted, and evidence suggests that while estrogens enhance, androgens inhibit the immune response. The aim of this study was to explore in the adult male rat the effect of either neonatal flutamide (FTM) treatment or prepubertal orchidectomy (ODX) on endocrine markers in the basal condition and peripheral tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNFα) levels during inflammatory stress. For these purposes, (1) 5-day-old male rats were subcutaneously injected with either sterile vehicle alone or containing 1.75 mg FTM, and (2) 25-day-old male rats were sham operated or had ODX. Rats were sacrificed (at 100 days of age) in the basal condition for determination of peripheral metabolite levels. Additional rats were intravenously injected with bacterial lipopolysaccharide (LPS; 25 μg/kg body weight, i.v.) and bled for up to 4 h. Data indicate that (1) ODX increased peripheral glucocorticoid levels and reduced those of testosterone, whereas FTM-treated rats displayed low circulating leptin concentrations, and (2) LPS-induced TNFα secretion in plasma was significantly enhanced in the FTM and ODX groups. Our study supports that neonatal FTM treatment affected adiposity function, and adds data maintaining that androgens have a suppressive role in proinflammatory cytokine release in plasma during inflammation.

Response of the Pacific oyster Crassostrea gigas, Thunberg 1793, to pesticide exposure under experimental conditions.

Pesticide run-off into the ocean represents a potential threat to marine organisms, especially bivalves living in coastal environments. However, little is known about the effects of environmentally relevant concentrations of pesticides at the individual level. In this study, the suppression subtractive hybridisation technique was used to discover the main physiological function affected by a cocktail of three pesticides (lindane, metolachlor and carbofuran) in the Pacific oyster Crassostrea gigas. Two oyster populations exposed to different pollution levels in the wild were investigated. The pesticide concentrations used to induce stress were close to those found in the wild. In a time course experiment, the expression of three genes implicated in iron metabolism and oxidative stress as well as that of two ubiquitous stress proteins was examined. No clear regulation of gene or protein expression was found, potentially due to a low-dose effect. However, we detected a strong site- and organ-specific response to the pesticides. This study thus (1) provides insight into bivalve responses to pesticide pollution at the level of the transcriptome, which is the first level of response for organisms facing pollution, and (2) raises interesting questions concerning the importance of the sites and organs studied in the toxicogenomic field.

Acute inflammatory response in the stomach of BALB/c mice challenged with coccoidal Helicobacter pylori

An experimental murine model was used to verify the viability and pathogenicity of coccoid Helicobacter pylori. For this purpose, 27 BALB/c mice were inoculated intragastrically with 1 ml broth culture (10(8)organisms/ml) of a coccoid H. pylori clinical isolate. The animals were divided into two groups. Nine were infected on a one-time basis (GA1) and 18 were infected on two consecutive days (GA2). Other 27 mice were inoculated with Brucella broth and divided in the same way; they composed the control group. Mice were killed at 2, 3, 7, 14 and 21 days post inoculation (pi). Fragments of stomach and duodenum were collected, fixed with 12% formalin and stained by hematoxilin-eosin and Giemsa for histopathological examination. Until the 14th()day, only reinfected mice had mild-to-moderate inflammatory infiltrate in the stomach. The infiltration was predominantly lymphomonocytic, although plasma cells and eosinophils could be seen. However, at 21st day, severe eosinophilic infiltration was present in the lamina propria and submucosa of gastric corpus. In subgroup GA1, animals presented lymphomonocytic infiltration in the stomach from 14th()day pi. Our results showed that coccoid H. pylori was able to induce an acute inflammatory response in stomach of reinfected mice since the initial periods of infection.

Response evaluation in third- and fourth-line treatment of GIST: the role of PET

Background: Response evaluation in gastrointestinal stromal tumors is difficult. Computed tomography and size-based assessments have been found inadequate to draw prognostic conclusions in patients treated with tyrosine kinase inhibitors (TKI). Density criteria (CHOI) have recently been shown to better define prognostic subsets of patients evaluated with CT. Still, positron emission tomography (PET) might be better at identifying responders with good outcome early, as shown for first and recently second-line treatment in GIST (Prior et al.; J Clin Oncol 2009). We wanted to evaluate the role of PET in third- and fourth-line TKI treatment of GIST. Methods: We retrospectively reviewed patients with GIST who had received third- or fourth-line treatment with TKI and had undergone PET for response evaluation. Patient needed to have a baseline and at least one subsequent PET. Results of the first "early" PET after treatment start have been used throughout this analysis and EORTC PET Study Group criteria applied. Results: Twelve treatment courses were evaluable, seven with Nilotinib in third- and five with Sorafenib in fourth-line treatment, in 8 patients, median age 60 y (range 36−78 y), who had all failed prior Imatinib and Sunitinib treatment due to disease progession. Baseline and follow-up PET were performed within a median of 34 days (range 9−84 days). Median progression-free survival (PFS) was 262 days in patients responding to PET versus 76 days in patients with stable or progressing disease (p = 0.15). Conclusions: This small series suggests that PET retains its value for outcome prediction in third- and fourth-line TKI treatment of GIST. This could be of particular clinical value in these vulnerable patients with large tumour masses. Early PET may help in stopping ineffective, but toxic therapy and help switching to a more effective therapy. PET should be evaluated further in this patient population.

Oviposition response of the mosquito, Culex quinquefasciatus to the secondary metabolite(s) of the fungus, Trichoderma viride

Secondary metabolites produced by Trichoderma viride, a deuteromycetes fungus, under submerged culture condition were formulated and evaluated for oviposition attractancy against gravid females of Culex quinquefasciatus mosquito. At a concentration of 10 µg ml-1 the formulation showed remarkable attractancy with an oviposition active index (OAI) of +0.52. When the oviposition attractancy of the formulation was compared with a known oviposition attractant, p-cresol, both at 10 µg ml-1, the former was found to be more attractive to result in 70% egg laying than the later with 30% egg laying. Thin layer chromatography fractions of the secondary metabolites showed that a fraction with Rf value of 0.88 was highly active as oviposition attractant with an OAI of +0.65. Further work on identification of the active principle(s) of the microbial formulation might lead to an oviposition attractant useful in mosquito vector management.

Mechanisms of the pressor response to intravenous thyrotropin-releasing hormone in the rat.

1. The purpose of this study was to examine the contribution of the sympatho-adrenomedullary system to the blood pressure response to an intravenous bolus of thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) in conscious medullectomized and sham-operated rats. 2. The peak pressor effect of 0.5 mg TRH was significantly increased in rats having no adrenal medulla (+24.2 +/- 1.6 mmHg, mean +/- s.e.m., P < 0.01) as compared to sham-operated animals (+12.2 +/- 3.0 mmHg). 3. Blockade of alpha-adrenergic receptors with phentolamine abolished the pressor effect of TRH in control rats (+2.1 +/- 1.9 mmHg) but did not attenuate the blood pressure response of medullectomized rats (+21.5 +/- 4.7 mmHg). In contrast, beta-blockade with propranolol blunted the blood pressure responsiveness of rats subjected to adrenal medullectomy (+12.4 +/- 2.6 mmHg) but did not modify the effect of TRH in sham-operated controls (+10.9 +/- 2.9 mmHg). 4. The direct in vitro effect of TRH on isolated mesenteric rat arteries was also evaluated. TRH did not induce contractions of isolated arteries. 5. These results suggest that in rats with intact adrenals, the pressor effect of intravenous TRH is mediated primarily by a stimulation of alpha-adrenergic receptors. Adrenal medullectomy appears to enhance the blood pressure response to intravenous TRH. Activation of cardiac beta-adrenoceptors seems to contribute to the blood pressure increasing effect of intravenous TRH in medullectomized animals.

Differential requirement for CD4 help in the development of an antigen-specific CD8+ T cell response depending on the route of immunization.

Previous studies in our laboratory have shown that DBA/2 mice injected i.p. with syngeneic P815 tumor cells transfected with the HLA-CW3 gene (P815-CW3) showed a dramatic expansion of activated CD8+CD62L- T cells expressing exclusively the Vbeta10 segment. We have used this model to study the regulatory mechanisms involved in the development of the CW3-specific CD8+ response, with respect to different routes of immunization. Whereas both intradermal (i.d.) and i.p. immunization of DBA/2 mice with P815-CW3 cells led to a strong expansion of CD8+CD62L-Vbeta10+ cells, only the i.d. route allowed this expansion after immunization with P815 cells transfected with a minigene coding for the antigenic epitope CW3 170-179 (P815 miniCW3). Furthermore, depletion of CD4+ T cells in vivo completely abolished the specific response of CD8+CD62L-Vbeta10+ cells and prevented the rejection of P815-CW3 tumor cells injected i.p., whereas it did not affect CD8S+CD62L-Vbeta10+ cell expansion after i.d. immunization with either P815-CW3 or P815 miniCW3. Finally, the CW3-specific CD8+ memory response was identical whether or not CD4+ T cells were depleted during the primary response. Collectively, these results suggest that the CD8+ T cell response to P815-CW3 tumor cells injected i.p. is strictly dependent upon recognition of a helper epitope by CD4+ T cells, whereas no such requirement is observed for i.d. injection.

Gender difference in the response to an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor and a diurectic in hypertensive patients of African descent

Résumé de la thèse en français Titre : Différence entre hommes et femmes dans la réponse à un inhibiteur de l'enzyme de conversion de l'angiotensine et un diurétique chez des patients hypertendus d'origine Africaine. Introduction: L'efficacité des inhibiteurs de l'enzyme de conversion de l'angiotensine (ACEI) dans le traitement de l'hypertension artérielle chez les patients africains est controversée. Objectif: Nous avons examiné la baisse de la tension artérielle ambulatoire (ABP) en réponse à un diurétique et un ACEI chez des patients hypertendus d'origine africaine et nous avons évalué les différentes caractéristiques déterminant l'efficacité du traitement. Méthodes: Etude en simple-aveugle randomisée, en crossover AB/BA. Arrangement Familles hypertendues d'origine africaine de la population générale des Seychelles. Participants : 52 patients (29 hommes et 23 femmes) sur 62 patients hypertendus éligibles ont été inclus. Le principal résultat était la mesure de la réponse de l'ABP à 20 mg de lisinopril (LIS) ou 25 mg d'hydrochlorothiazide (HCT) quotidiennement pendant quatre semaines. Résultats: Le jour, la réponse systolique/diastolique de l'ABP sous HCT était de 4.9 (95% intervalle de confiance (IC) 1.2-8.6)/3.6 (1.0-6.2) mm Hg pour les hommes et 12.9 (9.216.6)/6.3 (3.7-8.8) mm Hg pour les femmes. Sous LIS, la réponse était de 18.8 (15.022.5)/14.6 (12.0-17.1) mm Hg pour les hommes et de 12.4 (8.7-16.2)/7.7 (5.1-10.2) mm Hg pour les femmes. La nuit, la réponse systolique/diastolique sous HCT était de 5.0 (0.6-9.4)/2.7 ((-0.4)-5.7) mm Hg pour les hommes et de 11.5 (7.1-16.0)/5.7 (2.6-8.8) mm Hg pour les femmes, et sous LIS était de 18.7 (14.2-22.1)/15.4 (12.4-18.5) mm Hg pour les hommes et de 3.5 ((-1.0)-7.9)/2.3 ((-0.8)-5.4) mm Hg pour les femmes. L'analyse de régression linéaire multiple a montré que le sexe est un prédicteur indépendant de la réponse tensionnelle à l'HCT et au LIS. Conclusions : Les patients hypertendus d'origine africaine ont présenté une baisse tensionnelle plus grande en réponse au LIS qu'à l'HCT. Les hommes ont mieux répondu au LIS qu'à l'HCT alors que les femmes ont répondu de manière similaire aux deux traitements.

Ampakine CX546 bolsters energetic response of astrocytes: a novel target for cognitive-enhancing drugs acting as alpha-amino-3-hydroxy-5-methyl-4-isoxazolepropionic acid (AMPA) receptor modulators.

Glutamate was previously shown to enhance aerobic glycolysis i.e. increase glucose utilization and lactate production with no change in oxygen levels, in mouse cortical astrocytes by a mechanism involving glutamate uptake. It is reported here that a similar response is produced in both hippocampal and cerebellar astrocytes. Application of the cognitive-enhancing drug CX546 promoted further enhancement of glucose utilization by astrocytes from each brain area following glutamate exposure. alpha-Amino-3-hydroxy-5-methyl-4-isoxazolepropionic acid (AMPA) receptors represent the purported molecular target of cognitive-enhancing drugs such as CX546, and the presence of AMPA receptor subunits GluR1-4 was evidenced in astrocytes from all three regions by immunocytochemistry. AMPA itself did not stimulate aerobic glycolysis, but in the presence of CX546, a strong enhancement of glucose utilization and lactate production was obtained in cortical, hippocampal and cerebellar astrocytes. The effect of CX546 was concentration-dependent, with an EC(50) of 93.2 microm in cortical astrocytes. AMPA-induced glucose utilization in the presence of CX546 was prevented by the AMPA receptor antagonist 6-cyano-7-nitroquinoxaline-2,3-dione (CNQX) and the negative modulator GYKI 52466. In addition, the metabolic effect of CX546 in the presence of AMPA was mimicked by the AMPA receptor modulator cyclothiazide. Our data suggest that astrocyte energetics represents a novel target for cognitive-enhancing drugs acting as AMPA receptor modulators.

Detection of pathogenic bacteria in skin lesions of patients with chiclero's ulcer: reluctant response to antimonial treatment

We investigated the bacterial flora present in skin lesions of patients with chiclero's ulcer from the Yucatan peninsula of Mexico using conventional culture methods (11 patients), and an immunocolorimetric detection of pathogenic Streptococcus pyogenes (15 patients). Prevalence of bacteria isolated by culture methods was 90.9% (10/11). We cultured, from chiclero's ulcers (60%), pathogenic bacterial such as Staphylococcus aureus (20%), S. pyogenes (1.6%), Pseudomonas aeruginosa (1.6%), Morganella morganii (1.6%), and opportunist pathogenic bacteria such as Klebsiella spp. (20.0%), Enterobacter spp. (20%), and Enterococcus spp. (20%). We also cultured coagulase-negative staphylococci in 40% (4/10) of the remaining patients. Micrococcus spp. and coagulase-negative staphylococci constituted the bacterial genuses more frequently isolated in the normal skin of patients with chiclero's ulcer and healthy individuals used as controls. We also undertook another study to find out the presence of S. pyogenes by an immunocolorimetric assay. This study indicated that 60% (9/15) of the ulcerated lesions, but not normal controls, were contaminated with S. pyogenes. Importantly, individuals with purulent secretion and holding concomitant infections with S. pyogenes, S. aureus, P. aeruginosa, M. morganii, and E. durans took longer to heal Leishmania (L.) mexicana infections treated with antimonial drugs. Our results suggest the need to eliminate bacterial purulent infections, by antibiotic treatment, before starting antimonial administration to patients with chiclero's ulcer.

Plasmodium falciparum merozoite surface protein 2: epitope mapping and fine specificity of human antibody response against non-polymorphic domains.

BACKGROUND: Two long synthetic peptides representing the dimorphic and constant C-terminal domains of the two allelic families of Plasmodium falciparum merozoite surface proteins 2 are considered promising malaria vaccine candidates. The aim of the current study is to characterize the immune response (epitope mapping) in naturally exposed individuals and relate immune responses to the risk of clinical malaria. METHODS: To optimize their construction, the fine specificity of human serum antibodies from donors of different age, sex and living in four distinct endemic regions was determined in ELISA by using overlapping 20 mer peptides covering the two domains. Immune purified antibodies were used in Western blot and immunofluorescence assay to recognize native parasite derivate proteins. RESULTS: Immunodominant epitopes were characterized, and their distribution was similar irrespective of geographic origin, age group and gender. Acquisition of a 3D7 family and constant region-specific immune response and antibody avidity maturation occur early in life while a longer period is needed for the corresponding FC27 family response. In addition, the antibody response to individual epitopes within the 3D7 family-specific region contributes to protection from malaria infection with different statistical weight. It is also illustrated that affinity-purified antibodies against the dimorphic or constant regions recognized homologous and heterologous parasites in immunofluorescence and homologous and heterologous MSP2 and other polypeptides in Western blot. CONCLUSION: Data from this current study may contribute to a development of MSP2 vaccine candidates based on conserved and dimorphic regions thus bypassing the complexity of vaccine development related to the polymorphism of full-length MSP2.