951 resultados para PROLONGED DIARRHEA
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INTRODUCTION We functionally analyzed a frameshift mutation in the SCN5A gene encoding cardiac Na(+) channels (Nav1.5) found in a proband with repeated episodes of ventricular fibrillation who presented bradycardia and paroxysmal atrial fibrillation. Seven relatives also carry the mutation and showed a Brugada syndrome with an incomplete and variable expression. The mutation (p.D1816VfsX7) resulted in a severe truncation (201 residues) of the Nav1.5 C-terminus. METHODS AND RESULTS Wild-type (WT) and mutated Nav1.5 channels together with hNavβ1 were expressed in CHO cells and currents were recorded at room temperature using the whole-cell patch-clamp. Expression of p.D1816VfsX7 alone resulted in a marked reduction (≈90%) in peak Na(+) current density compared with WT channels. Peak current density generated by p.D1816VfsX7+WT was ≈50% of that generated by WT channels. p.D1816VfsX7 positively shifted activation and inactivation curves, leading to a significant reduction of the window current. The mutation accelerated current activation and reactivation kinetics and increased the fraction of channels developing slow inactivation with prolonged depolarizations. However, late INa was not modified by the mutation. p.D1816VfsX7 produced a marked reduction of channel trafficking toward the membrane that was not restored by decreasing incubation temperature during cell culture or by incubation with 300 μM mexiletine and 5 mM 4-phenylbutirate. CONCLUSION Despite a severe truncation of the C-terminus, the resulting mutated channels generate currents, albeit with reduced amplitude and altered biophysical properties, confirming the key role of the C-terminal domain in the expression and function of the cardiac Na(+) channel.
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Introduction: Boerhaave syndrome (BS) is a spontaneous esophageal perforation, described in aged, alcoholic males, secondary to forceful vomiting. BS has rarely been described in children. Case presentation: The patient is a 7-year-old Nigerian girl. She has a past history of clinical gastro-esophageal reflux (treated conservatively with prokinetics and good evolution), malaria at the age of 3 months and an episode of acute pancreatitis at 5 years. One week prior admission, she had stopped atovaquone-proguanil (AP) prophylaxis after a trip in an endemic area. Two days prior admission, she presented several bouts of isolated acute vomiting, without fever or diarrhea. On admission, she complained of chest pain. Cardiac auscultation revealed crepitus. No subcutaneous emphysema nor respiratory distress was present. Chest radiography and CT-scan confirmed a pneumomediastinum extending to the neck. Esophageal perforation was suspected. An upper gastrointestinal endoscopy was performed and showed a small esophageal tear, grade II-III esophagitis and a single gastric ulcer without any sign of H. Pylori infection. Enteral feeds were stopped and a nasogastric sucking tube inserted. The patient made a full recovery on intravenous antibiotics and conservative treatment. Of note a second episode of subclinical acute pancreatitis, treated conservatively, probably drug-induced. Discussion: BS is a complete rupture of all layers of the esophagus, secondary to an increased intra-abdominal pressure due to incomplete opening of the cricophayngeal sphincter occurring during vomiting or cough. Rarer causes include eosinophilic or Barrett's esophagitis, HIV and caustic ingestion. Esophageal perforation in children is rare, most of time secondary to necrotizing esophagitis in the newborn, medical intervention (endoscopy, sucking, or intubation) or trauma in the older child. Our patient had none of those risk factors and it is still unclear what predisposed her to this complication. However, we believe that preceding forceful vomiting with increased abdominal pressure acting on a weakened oesophagus due to esophagitis might be responsible. We could not find any association in the literature between AP and BS nor between BS and acute pancreatitis. The origin of her recurrent pancreatitis remains unclear, reason for which genetic testing for mutations in the trypsinogen, trypsin inhibitor and CFTR genes will be performed in case of a third episode.
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BACKGROUND Advanced heart failure (HF) is associated with high morbidity and mortality; it represents a major burden for the health system. Episodes of acute decompensation requiring frequent and prolonged hospitalizations account for most HF-related expenditure. Inotropic drugs are frequently used during hospitalization, but rarely in out-patients. The LAICA clinical trial aims to evaluate the effectiveness and safety of monthly levosimendan infusion in patients with advanced HF to reduce the incidence of hospital admissions for acute HF decompensation. METHODS The LAICA study is a multicenter, prospective, randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled, parallel group trial. It aims to recruit 213 out-patients, randomized to receive either a 24-h infusion of levosimendan at 0.1 μg/kg/min dose, without a loading dose, every 30 days, or placebo. RESULTS The main objective is to assess the incidence of admission for acute HF worsening during 12 months. Secondarily, the trial will assess the effect of intermittent levosimendan on other variables, including the time in days from randomization to first admission for acute HF worsening, mortality and serious adverse events. CONCLUSIONS The LAICA trial results could allow confirmation of the usefulness of intermittent levosimendan infusion in reducing the rate of hospitalization for HF worsening in advanced HF outpatients.
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Liddle's syndrome is a monogenic form of hypertension caused by mutations in the PY motif of the COOH terminus of beta- and gamma-epithelial Na+ channel (ENaC) subunits. These mutations lead to retention of active channels at the cell surface. Because of the critical role of this PY motif in the stability of ENaCs at the cell surface, we have investigated its contribution to the ENaC response to aldosterone and vasopressin. Mutants of the PY motif in beta- and gamma-ENaC subunits (beta-Y618A, beta-P616L, beta-R564stop, and gamma-K570stop) were stably expressed by retroviral gene transfer in a renal cortical collecting duct cell line (mpkCCDcl4), and transepithelial Na+ transport was assessed by measurements of the benzamil-sensitive short-circuit current (Isc). Cells that express ENaC mutants of the PY motif showed a five- to sixfold higher basal Isc compared with control cells and responded to stimulation by aldosterone (10(-6) M) or vasopressin (10(-9) M) with a further increase in Isc. The rates of the initial increases in Isc after aldosterone or vasopressin stimulation were comparable in cells transduced with wild-type and mutant ENaCs, but reversal of the effects of aldosterone and vasopressin was slower in cells that expressed the ENaC mutants. The conserved sensitivity of ENaC mutants to stimulation by aldosterone and vasopressin together with the prolonged activity at the cell surface likely contribute to the increased Na+ absorption in the distal nephron of patients with Liddle's syndrome.
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The programmed death 1 (PD-1) receptor is a negative regulator of activated T cells and is up-regulated on exhausted virus-specific CD8(+) T cells in chronically infected mice and humans. Programmed death ligand 1 (PD-L1) is expressed by multiple tumors, and its interaction with PD-1 resulted in tumor escape in experimental models. To investigate the role of PD-1 in impairing spontaneous tumor Ag-specific CD8(+) T cells in melanoma patients, we have examined the effect of PD-1 expression on ex vivo detectable CD8(+) T cells specific to the tumor Ag NY-ESO-1. In contrast to EBV, influenza, or Melan-A/MART-1-specific CD8(+) T cells, NY-ESO-1-specific CD8(+) T cells up-regulated PD-1 expression. PD-1 up-regulation on spontaneous NY-ESO-1-specific CD8(+) T cells occurs along with T cell activation and is not directly associated with an inability to produce cytokines. Importantly, blockade of the PD-1/PD-L1 pathway in combination with prolonged Ag stimulation with PD-L1(+) APCs or melanoma cells augmented the number of cytokine-producing, proliferating, and total NY-ESO-1-specific CD8(+) T cells. Collectively, our findings support the role of PD-1 as a regulator of NY-ESO-1-specific CD8(+) T cell expansion in the context of chronic Ag stimulation. They further support the use of PD-1/PD-L1 pathway blockade in cancer patients to partially restore NY-ESO-1-specific CD8(+) T cell numbers and functions, increasing the likelihood of tumor regression.
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Invasive fungal infections (IFI) are life-threatening diseases that are of particular concern in specific debilitated or immunosuppressed populations. Invasive candidiasis (IC) is the most frequent of the IFI, being one of the major causes of nosocomial bloodstream infection and a feared complication in patients with recurrent gastrointestinal surgery or prolonged stay in the intensive-care unit [1,2]. Patients with hematological malignancies or prolonged chemotherapy-induced neutropenia, and those with allogeneic hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (allo-HSCT), represent the groups at highest risk for developing invasive aspergillosis (IA), which is associated with a high mortality rate despite the increasing availability of antifungal therapies [3,4]. An increasing incidence of IA has also been reported in non-neutropenic immunosuppressed populations such as solid-organ transplant recipients or steroid-treated patients with chronic pulmonary diseases [5]. Early diagnosis of IFI is crucial for improving chances of survival [6], but is particularly challenging owing to the lack of reliable diagnostic methods [7,8]. Significant efforts during the last few decades have focused on the prevention of these severe complications. Antifungal prophylaxis in high-risk patients has been shown to reduce the incidence of IA in patients with onco-hematological malignancies [9] and that of IC in surgical intensive-care unit patients [10]. However, its widespread use raises concerns about costs, toxicity, and the risk of emergence of resistant fungal species such as non-Aspergillus moulds or non-albicansCandida spp. [4,11,12]. Prophylactic strategies usually rely on the identification of host risk factors resulting from clinical conditions (type and duration of immunosuppression, underlying diseases, and extrinsic interventions) [8,13]. Recent advances in the field of immunogenetics may change our perspective of, and approach to, preventive strategies with the identification of subgroups of patients exhibiting a genetic predisposition to IFI.
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BACKGROUND While pain is frequently associated with unipolar depression, few studies have investigated the link between pain and bipolar depression. In the present study we estimated the prevalence and characteristics of pain among patients with bipolar depression treated by psychiatrists in their regular clinical practice. The study was designed to identify factors associated with the manifestation of pain in these patients. METHODS Patients diagnosed with bipolar disorder (n=121) were selected to participate in a cross-sectional study in which DSM-IV-TR criteria were employed to identify depressive episodes. The patients were asked to describe any pain experienced during the study, and in the 6 weeks beforehand, by means of a Visual Analogical Scale (VAS). RESULTS Over half of the bipolar depressed patients (51.2%, 95% CI: 41.9%-60.6%), and 2/3 of the female experienced concomitant pain. The pain was of moderate to severe intensity and prolonged duration, and it occurred at multiple sites, significantly limiting the patient's everyday activities. The most important factors associated with the presence of pain were older age, sleep disorders and delayed diagnosis of bipolar disorder. CONCLUSIONS Chronic pain is common in bipolar depressed patients, and it is related to sleep disorders and delayed diagnosis of their disorder. More attention should be paid to study the presence of pain in bipolar depressed patients, in order to achieve more accurate diagnoses and to provide better treatment options.
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Marine mammals are often reported to possess reduced variation of major histocompatibility complex (MHC) genes compared with their terrestrial counterparts. We evaluated diversity at two MHC class II B genes, DQB and DRB, in the New Zealand sea lion (Phocarctos hookeri, NZSL) a species that has suffered high mortality owing to bacterial epizootics, using Sanger sequencing and haplotype reconstruction, together with next-generation sequencing. Despite this species' prolonged history of small population size and highly restricted distribution, we demonstrate extensive diversity at MHC DRB with 26 alleles, whereas MHC DQB is dimorphic. We identify four DRB codons, predicted to be involved in antigen binding, that are evolving under adaptive evolution. Our data suggest diversity at DRB may be maintained by balancing selection, consistent with the role of this locus as an antigen-binding region and the species' recent history of mass mortality during a series of bacterial epizootics. Phylogenetic analyses of DQB and DRB sequences from pinnipeds and other carnivores revealed significant allelic diversity, but little phylogenetic depth or structure among pinniped alleles; thus, we could neither confirm nor refute the possibility of trans-species polymorphism in this group. The phylogenetic pattern observed however, suggests some significant evolutionary constraint on these loci in the recent past, with the pattern consistent with that expected following an epizootic event. These data may help further elucidate some of the genetic factors underlying the unusually high susceptibility to bacterial infection of the threatened NZSL, and help us to better understand the extent and pattern of MHC diversity in pinnipeds.
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INTRODUCTION: Physical training programmes are based on provoking transitory states of fatigue in order to induce super compensation by the biological systems involved in the activity, in order to improve the athlete's medium-long term performance. The administration of nutritional supplements with antioxidant and immunomodulatory properties, such as Phlebodium decumanum and coenzyme Q10, can be a very advantageous means of achieving recovery from the inflammation and tissue damage caused by the stress of prolonged, intense exercise. METHODOLOGY: An experimental, longitudinal, double- blind experiment was conducted, with three randomised groups obtained from a sample of 30 male volleyball players (aged 22-32 years) at the University of Granada, with a high level of training (17 hours a week during the 6 months preceding the study). The effects were then evaluated of a month-long physical training programme, common to all the study groups, associated with the simultaneous administration of the following nutritional supplements: Phlebodium decumanum (4 capsules of 400 mg/capsule, daily), Experimental Group 1; Phlebodium decumanum (same dose andchedule as Group 1) plus coenzyme Q10 (4 capsules of 30 mg/ capsule, daily), Experimental Group 2; a placebo substance, Control Group. The following dependent blood variables were examined to assess the effects of the intervention on the basal immune and endocrine-metabolic profile: cortisol and interleukin-6, both related to the axis of exercise-induced stress; and lactic acid and ammonium, related essentially to the anaerobic metabolism of energy. RESULTS: All the study groups presented favourable adaptive changes with respect to the endocrine-metabolic and immune profile, as reflected by a significant decrease in the post-test concentrations of cortisol, interleukin 6, lactic acid and ammonium, compared to the values recorded before the physical activity with/without nutritional supplement, per protocol. The groups that achieved the most favourable profile were those which had received nutritional supplementation, rather than the placebo, and among the former, those which had received the double- strength supplement with Phlebodium decumanum plus coenzyme Q10. CONCLUSIONS: The intake of Phlebodium decumanum plus coenzyme Q10 for 4 weeks produced protective effects on the endocrine-metabolic and immune profile, which we attribute to the immunomodulatory and antioxidant properties of these substances, which are highly beneficial not only in terms of delaying fatigue and improving athletic performance, but also in reducing the risk of injuries associated with high intensity exercise.
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RÉSUMÉ : Le traitement répété à la phencyclidine (PCP), un bloqueur du récepteur NMDA (NMDAR), reproduit chez les rongeurs une partie de la symptomatologie typique de la schizophrénie. Le blocage prolongé du NMDAR par la PCP mime une hypofunction du NMDAR, une des principales altérations supposées exister dans les cerveaux des patients schizophréniques. Le but de notre étude était d'examiner les conséquences neurochimiques, métaboliques et fonctionnelles du traitement répété à la phencyclidine in vivo, au niveau du cortex préfrontal (cpf), une région cérébrale qui joue un rôle dans les déficits cognitifs observés chez les patients schizophréniques. Pour répondre à cette question, les rats ou les souris ont reçu chaque jour une injection soit de PCP (5 mg/kg), soit de solution saline, pendant 7 ou 14 jours. Les animaux ont ensuite été sacrifiés au moins 24 heures après le dernier traitement. Des tranches aiguës du cpf ont été préparées rapidement, puis stimulées avec une concentration élevée de KCI, de manière à induire une libération de glutamate à partir des terminaisons synaptiques excitatrices. Les résultats montrent que les tranches du cpf des animaux traités à la PCP ont libéré une quantité de glutamate significativement inférieure par rapport à celles des animaux contrôle. Ce déficit de libération a persisté 72 heures après la fin du traitement, tandis qu'il n'était pas observé dans le cortex visuel primaire, une autre région corticale. En outre, le traitement avec des antipsychotiques, l'halopéridol ou l'olanzapine, a supprimé le déficit induit par la PCP. Le même déficit de libération a été remarqué sur des synaptosomes obtenus à partir du cpf des animaux traités à la phenryclidine. Cette observation indique que la PCP induit une modification plastique adaptative du mécanisme qui contrôle la libération du glutamate dans les terminaisons synaptiques. Nous avons découvert que cette modification implique la sous-régulation d'un NMDAR présynaptique, qui serait doué d'un rôle d'autorécepteur stimulateur de la libération du glutamate. Grâce à des tests comportementaux conduits en parallèle et réalisés pour évaluer la fonctionnalité du cpf, nous avons observé chez les souris traitées à la PCP une flexibilité comportementale réduite lors d'un test de discrimination de stimuli visuels/tactiles. Le déficit cognitif était encore présent 4 jours après la dernière administration de PCP. La technique de l'autoradiographie quantitative du [14C]2-deoxyglucose a permis d'associer ce déficit à une réduction de l'activité métabolique cérébrale pendant le déroulement du test, particulièrement au niveau du cpf. Dans l'ensemble, nos résultats suggèrent que le blocage prolongé du NMDAR lors de l'administration répétée de PCP produit un déficit de libération du glutamate au niveau des terminaisons synaptiques excitatrices du cpf. Un tel déficit pourrait être provoqué par la sousrégulation d'un NMDAR présynaptique, qui aurait une fonction de stimulateur de libération; la transmission excitatrice du cpf s'en trouverait dans ce cas réduite. Ce résultat est en ligne avec l'activité métabolique et fonctionnelle réduite du cpf et l'observation de déficits cognitifs induits lors de l'administration de la PCP. ABSTRACT : Sub-chronic treatment with phencyclidine (PCP), an NMDA receptor (NMDAR) channel blocker, reproduces in rodents part of the symptomatology associated to schizophrenia in humans. Prolonged pharmacological blockade of NMDAR with PCP mimics NMDAR hypofunction, one of the main alterations thought to take place in the brains of schizophrenics. Our study was aimed at investigating the neurochemical, metabolic and behavioral consequences of repeated PCP administration in vivo, focusing on the functioning of the prefrontal cortex (pfc), a brain region highly relevant for the cognitive deficits observed in schizophrenic patients. Rats or mice received a daily administration of either PCP (5 mg/kg) or saline for 7 or 14 days. At least 24 hours after the last treatment the animals were sacrificed. Acute slices of the pfc were quickly prepared and challenged with high KCl to induce synaptic glutamate release. Pfc slices from PCP-treated animals released significantly less glutamate than slices from salinetreated animals. The deficit persisted 72 hours after the end of the treatment, while it was not observed in another cortical region: the primary visual cortex. Interestingly, treatment with antipsychotic drugs, either haloperidol or olanzapine, reverted the glutamate release defect induced by PCP treatment. The same release defect was observed in synaptosomes prepared from the pfc of PCP-treated animals, indicating that PCP induces a plastic adaptive change in the mechanism controlling glutamate release in the glutamatergic terminals. We discovered that such change most likely involves the down-regulation of a newly identified, pre-synaptic NMDAR with stimulatory auto-receptor function on glutamate release. In parallel sets of behavioral experiments challenging pfc function, mice sub-chronically treated with PCP displayed reduced behavioral flexibility (reversal learning) in a visual/tactile-cued discrimination task. The cognitive deficit was still evident 4 days after the last PCP administration and was associated to reduced brain metabolic activity during the performance of the behavioral task, notably in the pfc, as determined by [14C]2-deoxyglucose quantitative autoradiography. Clverall, our findings suggest that prolonged NMDAR blockade by repeated PCP administration results in a defect of glutamate release from excitatory afferents in the pfc, possibly ascribed to down-regulation of apre-synaptic stimulatory NMDAR. Deficient excitatory neurotransmission in the pfc is consistent with the reduced metabolic and functional activation of this area and the observed PCP-induced cognitive deficits.
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Benzodiazepines and hypnotic Z-drugs are indicated for the short-term treatment of insomnia and anxiety (4 weeks maximum) at the lowest dose possible. Despite the recommendations for short-term use and its unfavourable effects, the level of consumption of benzodiazepines in our context is high and it is continually rising. Prolonged medication usage is associated with adverse effects and significant risks, particularly in the elderly, and should, therefore, be avoided when approaching new treatment. If a previous treatment assessed is found to be inappropriate, its possible withdrawal must be considered. Benzodiazepines withdrawal is based on a gradual dose reduction and should be managed by establishing a doctor-patient relationship of trust to encourage and accomplish discontinuation.
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Tumor-infiltrating lymphocytes are present in a variety of tumors and play a central role in antitumor immune responses. Nevertheless, most cancers progress probably because tumors are only weakly immunogenic and develop multiple immunosuppressive mechanisms. In the present study, on head and neck squamous cell carcinoma, we found high intraepithelial infiltration of regulatory FOXP3(+) T cells, and relatively high levels of BDCA2(+) and FOXP3(+) cells in stromal (peripheral) regions of the tumors. Tumor-infiltrating (intraepithelial) FOXP3(+) T cells were significantly more frequent in patients with oropharynx and oral cavity squamous cell carcinoma and in patients without lymph node metastasis. Furthermore, arginase-II (ARG2) was expressed by 60%, inducible nitric oxide synthetase by 9%, cyclooxygenase-2 by 43%, and B-cell lymphoma 2 (BCL2) by 26% of tumors. Interestingly, the absence of ARG2 expression, enhanced stromal infiltration of CD11c(+) myeloid dendritic cells, and high numbers of FOXP3(+) T cells were each significantly associated with prolonged overall survival, and the latter two parameters were also confirmed by multivariate analysis. For disease-free survival, multivariate analysis revealed significant negative correlations with BCL2 and ARG2 expression by tumor cells. These findings shed new light on mechanisms of cancer progression, and provide rationales for therapeutic inhibition of immunosuppressive mechanisms in head and neck squamous cell carcinoma.
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The risk of infection after type III° open fractures is high (10-50%).Preemptive antibiotic therapy may prevent posttraumatic infection andimprove the outcome. Recommendations about the type and durationof antibiotic vary among the institutions and it remains unclear whethergram-negative bacilli or anaerobs need to be covered. In Europe, themost commonly recommended antibiotic is amoxicillin/clavulanic acid.We retrospectively analyzed microbiology, characteristics and outcomeof patients with open type III° fractures treated at our institution.Methods: Between 01/2005 and 12/2009 we retrospectively includedall type III grade open fractures of the leg at our institution classifiedafter Gustilo into type IIIA, IIIB and IIIC. Demographic characteristics,clinical presentation, microbiology, surgical and antibiotic treatmentand patient outcome were recorded using a standardized case-reportform.Results: 30 cases of patients with type III° open fractures wereincluded (25 males, mean age was 40.5 years, range 17-67 years).27 fractures (90%) were located on the lower leg and 3 (10%) on theupper leg. Microbiology at initial surgery was available for 19 cases(63%), of which 10 grew at least one organism (including 8 amoxicillin/clavulanic acid-resistant gram-negative bacilli [GNB], 7 amoxicillin/clavulanic acid-resistant Bacillus cereus), 11 were culture-negative.Preemptive antibiotics were given in all cases (100%) for an averageduration of 8.5 days (range 1-53 days), the most common antibioticwas amoxicillin/clavulanic acid in 60% (n = 18). 11 cases just receivedpreemptive antibiotic treatment, in 19 of 30 cases the antibiotic therapywas changed and prolonged. Microbiology at revision surgery wasavailable for 25 cases and 22 grew at least one pathogen (including32 amoxicillin/clavulanic acid-resistant gram-negative bacilli and 10amoxicillin/clavulanic acid-resistant Bacillus cereus), 3 were culturenegative.Conclusions: At initial surgery, most common isolated organismswere coagulase-negative staphylococci (43%), Bacillus cereus (23%),and gram-negative bacilli (27%), and others (7%) of which 48% wereresistant to amoxicillin/clavulanic acid. At revision surgery, isolatedorganisms were gram-negative bacilli (64%), Bacillus cereus (20%),and others (16%) of which 88% were resistant to amoxicillin/clavulanicacid. The spectrum of amoxicillin/clavulanic does not cover the mostcommon isolated organisms.FM32
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Chest physiotherapy (CP) using passive expiratory manoeuvres is widely used in Western Europe for the treatment of bronchiolitis, despite lacking evidence for its efficacy. We undertook an open randomised trial to evaluate the effectiveness of CP in infants hospitalised for bronchiolitis by comparing the time to clinical stability, the daily improvement of a severity score and the occurrence of complications between patients with and without CP. Children <1 year admitted for bronchiolitis in a tertiary hospital during two consecutive respiratory syncytial virus seasons were randomised to group 1 with CP (prolonged slow expiratory technique, slow accelerated expiratory flow, rarely induced cough) or group 2 without CP. All children received standard care (rhinopharyngeal suctioning, minimal handling, oxygen for saturation ≥92%, fractionated meals). Ninety-nine eligible children (mean age, 3.9 months), 50 in group 1 and 49 in group 2, with similar baseline variables and clinical severity at admission. Time to clinical stability, assessed as primary outcome, was similar for both groups (2.9 ± 2.1 vs. 3.2 ± 2.8 days, P = 0.45). The rate of improvement of a clinical and respiratory score, defined as secondary outcome, only showed a slightly faster improvement of the respiratory score in the intervention group when including stethoacoustic properties (P = 0.044). Complications were rare but occurred more frequently, although not significantly (P = 0.21), in the control arm. In conclusion, this study shows the absence of effectiveness of CP using passive expiratory techniques in infants hospitalised for bronchiolitis. It seems justified to recommend against the routine use of CP in these patients.
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AIMTo assess the double-balloon enteroscopy (DBE) role in malignant small bowel tumors (MSBT). METHODS This is a retrospective descriptive study performed in a single center. All consecutive patients who underwent a DBE with final diagnosis of a malignant neoplasm from 2004 to 2014 in our referral center were included. Patient demographic and clinical pathological characteristics were recorded and reviewed. MSBT diagnosis was achieved either by DBE directed biopsy with multiple tissue sampling, endoscopic findings or histological analysis of surgical specimen. We have analyzed double-balloon enteroscopy impact in outcome and clinical course of these patients. RESULTS Of 627 patients, 28 (4.5%) (mean age = 60 ± 17.3 years) underwent 30 procedures (25 anterograde, 5 retrograde) and were diagnosed of a malignant tumor. Patients presented with obscure gastrointestinal bleeding (n = 19, 67.9%), occlusion syndrome (n = 7, 25%) and diarrhea (n = 1, 3.6%). They were diagnosed by DBE biopsy (n = 18, 64.3%), histological analysis of surgical specimen (n = 7, 25%) and unequivocal endoscopic findings (n = 2, 7.1%). Gastrointestinal stromal tumor (n = 8, 28.6%), adenocarcinoma (n = 7, 25%), lymphoma (n = 4, 14.3%), neuroendocrine tumor (n = 4, 14.3%), metastatic (n = 3, 10.7%) and Kaposi sarcoma (n = 1, 3.6%) were identified. DBE modified outcome in 7 cases (25%), delaying or avoiding emergency surgery (n = 3), modifying surgery approach (n = 2) and indicating emergency SB partial resection instead of elective approach (n = 2). CONCLUSION DBE may be critical in the management of MSBT providing additional information that may be decisive in the clinical course of these patients.