Prediction of Post-Weaning Fibrinogen Status during Cardiopulmonary Bypass: An Observational Study in 110 Patients.

BACKGROUND After cardiac surgery with cardiopulmonary bypass (CPB), acquired coagulopathy often leads to post-CPB bleeding. Though multifactorial in origin, this coagulopathy is often aggravated by deficient fibrinogen levels. OBJECTIVE To assess whether laboratory and thrombelastometric testing on CPB can predict plasma fibrinogen immediately after CPB weaning. PATIENTS / METHODS This prospective study in 110 patients undergoing major cardiovascular surgery at risk of post-CPB bleeding compares fibrinogen level (Clauss method) and function (fibrin-specific thrombelastometry) in order to study the predictability of their course early after termination of CPB. Linear regression analysis and receiver operating characteristics were used to determine correlations and predictive accuracy. RESULTS Quantitative estimation of post-CPB Clauss fibrinogen from on-CPB fibrinogen was feasible with small bias (+0.19 g/l), but with poor precision and a percentage of error >30%. A clinically useful alternative approach was developed by using on-CPB A10 to predict a Clauss fibrinogen range of interest instead of a discrete level. An on-CPB A10 ≤10 mm identified patients with a post-CPB Clauss fibrinogen of ≤1.5 g/l with a sensitivity of 0.99 and a positive predictive value of 0.60; it also identified those without a post-CPB Clauss fibrinogen <2.0 g/l with a specificity of 0.83. CONCLUSIONS When measured on CPB prior to weaning, a FIBTEM A10 ≤10 mm is an early alert for post-CPB fibrinogen levels below or within the substitution range (1.5-2.0 g/l) recommended in case of post-CPB coagulopathic bleeding. This helps to minimize the delay to data-based hemostatic management after weaning from CPB.

Comprehensive geriatric assessment in patients undergoing transcatheter aortic valve implantation–rationale and design of the European CGA-TAVI registry

Abstract Purpose Aortic stenosis (AS) is the most common valvular abnormality in the elderly population. For inoperable patients or those at high-risk for surgery, transcatheter aortic valve implantation (TAVI) has become an alternative therapeutic option. The aim of the “Comprehensive geriatric assessment for transcatheter aortic valve implantation” (CGA-TAVI) registry is to evaluate the effectiveness of TAVI from the perspective of the geriatrician and to identify patient characteristics and indicators related to complications and clinical benefits for patients with symptomatic severe calcified degenerative AS undergoing TAVI. Materials and methods The CGA-TAVI registry is an international, multi-center, prospective, observational registry across Europe with consecutive patient enrolment. The registry will enrol up to 200 patients with AS undergoing TAVI, starting August 2013. CGA-TAVI has two co-primary objectives: (1) Establish predictive value of Comprehensive geriatric assessment (CGA) for mortality and/or hospitalization in TAVI patients. (2) Demonstrate CGA changes within 3 months after TAVI. Secondary objectives are: (1) Establish predictive value of CGA in TAVI patients for all-cause hospitalization, TAVI-related hospitalization, and nursing home admission. (2) Develop a comprehensive score for the assessment of TAVI patient prognosis. Conclusions The data obtained from the CGA-TAVI registry will supplement previous results to document the potential value of the effectiveness of TAVI from the perspective of geriatricians and will allow the assessment of the predictive value of CGA for mortality and/or hospitalization in elderly TAVI patients. Keywords Aortic stenosis; Transcatheter aortic valve implantation (TAVI); Comprehensive geriatric assessment (CGA); Registry; Predictor

Early Improvement As a Predictor of Later Response to Antipsychotics in Schizophrenia: A Diagnostic Test Review

OBJECTIVE How long clinicians should wait before considering an antipsychotic ineffective and changing treatment in schizophrenia is an unresolved clinical question. Guidelines differ substantially in this regard. The authors conducted a diagnostic test meta-analysis using mostly individual patient data to assess whether lack of improvement at week 2 predicts later nonresponse. METHOD The search included EMBASE, MEDLINE, BIOSIS, PsycINFO, Cochrane Library, CINAHL, and reference lists of relevant articles, supplemented by requests to authors of all relevant studies. The main outcome was prediction of nonresponse, defined as <50% reduction in total score on either the Positive and Negative Syndrome Scale (PANSS) or Brief Psychiatric Rating Scale (BPRS) (corresponding to at least much improved) from baseline to endpoint (4-12 weeks), by <20% PANSS or BPRS improvement (corresponding to less than minimally improved) at week 2. Secondary outcomes were absent cross-sectional symptomatic remission and <20% PANSS or BPRS reduction at endpoint. Potential moderator variables were examined by meta-regression. RESULTS In 34 studies (N=9,460) a <20% PANSS or BPRS reduction at week 2 predicted nonresponse at endpoint with a specificity of 86% and a positive predictive value (PPV) of 90%. Using data for observed cases (specificity=86%, PPV=85%) or lack of remission (specificity=77%, PPV=88%) yielded similar results. Conversely, using the definition of <20% reduction at endpoint yielded worse results (specificity=70%, PPV=55%). The test specificity was significantly moderated by a trial duration of <6 weeks, higher baseline illness severity, and shorter illness duration. CONCLUSIONS Patients not even minimally improved by week 2 of antipsychotic treatment are unlikely to respond later and may benefit from a treatment change.

Rapid and accurate G M1-gangliosidosis diagnosis using a parentage testing microsatellite

The G M1-gangliosidosis is an autosomal recessive lysosomal storage disease caused by structural defects of the beta-galactosidase gene (GLB1) which lead to a severe phenotypical impairment in homozygous individuals, whereas heterozygous carriers remain clinically normal. Currently employed DNA parentage tests include the analysis of microsatellites, which also have a diagnostic predictive value. The aim of this study was to provide a reliable tool for genotyping the canine GLB1 which can be effectively integrated in parentage testing investigations. For this purpose the association between the GLB1 gene and the AHT K253 microsatellite was analyzed in 30 Alaskan huskies (11 GLB1+/+, 17 GLB1+/- and 2 GLB1-/- dogs). The 143 bp AHT K253 microsatellite allele was identified only in GLB1+/- and GLB1-/- animals and was in strong linkage disequilibrium with the causative mutation for G M1-gangliosidosis, a 19 bp duplication within exon 15 of the GLB1 gene. The results of the present study revealed a 100% concordance between the previous established genotypes and those obtained after the analysis of the AHT K253 microsatellite. Thus, the genotype of the AHT K253 microsatellite, which is routinely determined during dog parentage testing, has a high predictive value for the G M1-gangliosidosis carrier status.

Fine-mapping and mutation analysis of TRPM1: a candidate gene for leopard complex (LP) spotting and congenital stationary night blindness in horses.

Leopard Complex spotting occurs in several breeds of horses and is caused by an incompletely dominant allele (LP). Homozygosity for LP is also associated with congenital stationary night blindness (CSNB) in Appaloosa horses. Previously, LP was mapped to a 6 cm region on ECA1 containing the candidate gene TRPM1 (Transient Receptor Potential Cation Channel, Subfamily M, Member 1) and decreased expression of this gene, measured by qRT-PCR, was identified as the likely cause of both spotting and ocular phenotypes. This study describes investigations for a mutation causing or associated with the Leopard Complex and CSNB phenotype in horses. Re-sequencing of the gene and associated splice sites within the 105 624 bp genomic region of TRPM1 led to the discovery of 18 SNPs. Most of the SNPs did not have a predictive value for the presence of LP. However, one SNP (ECA1:108,249,293 C>T) found within intron 11 had a strong (P < 0.0005), but not complete, association with LP and CSNB and thus is a good marker but unlikely to be causative. To further localize the association, 70 SNPs spanning over two Mb including the TRPM1 gene were genotyped in 192 horses from three different breeds segregating for LP. A single 173 kb haplotype associated with LP and CSNB (ECA1: 108,197,355- 108,370,150) was identified. Illumina sequencing of 300 kb surrounding this haplotype revealed 57 SNP variants. Based on their localization within expressed sequences or regions of high sequence conservation across mammals, six of these SNPs were considered to be the most likely candidate mutations. While the precise function of TRPM1 remains to be elucidated, this work solidifies its functional role in both pigmentation and night vision. Further, this work has identified several potential regulatory elements of the TRPM1 gene that should be investigated further in this and other species.

Linking altered central pain processing and genetic polymorphism to drug efficacy in chronic low back pain.

BACKGROUND Inability to predict the therapeutic effect of a drug in individual pain patients prolongs the process of drug and dose finding until satisfactory pharmacotherapy can be achieved. Many chronic pain conditions are associated with hypersensitivity of the nervous system or impaired endogenous pain modulation. Pharmacotherapy often aims at influencing these disturbed nociceptive processes. Its effect might therefore depend on the extent to which they are altered. Quantitative sensory testing (QST) can evaluate various aspects of pain processing and might therefore be able to predict the analgesic efficacy of a given drug. In the present study three drugs commonly used in the pharmacological management of chronic low back pain are investigated. The primary objective is to examine the ability of QST to predict pain reduction. As a secondary objective, the analgesic effects of these drugs and their effect on QST are evaluated. METHODS/DESIGN In this randomized, double blinded, placebo controlled cross-over study, patients with chronic low back pain are randomly assigned to imipramine, oxycodone or clobazam versus active placebo. QST is assessed at baseline, 1 and 2 h after drug administration. Pain intensity, side effects and patients' global impression of change are assessed in intervals of 30 min up to two hours after drug intake. Baseline QST is used as explanatory variable to predict drug effect. The change in QST over time is analyzed to describe the pharmacodynamic effects of each drug on experimental pain modalities. Genetic polymorphisms are analyzed as co-variables. DISCUSSION Pharmacotherapy is a mainstay in chronic pain treatment. Antidepressants, anticonvulsants and opioids are frequently prescribed in a "trial and error" fashion, without knowledge however, which drug suits best which patient. The present study addresses the important need to translate recent advances in pain research to clinical practice. Assessing the predictive value of central hypersensitivity and endogenous pain modulation could allow for the implementation of a mechanism-based treatment strategy in individual patients. TRIAL REGISTRATION Clinicaltrials.gov, NCT01179828.

Thrombophilia and risk of VTE recurrence according to the age at the time of first VTE manifestation

BACKGROUND Whether screening for thrombophilia is useful for patients after a first episode of venous thromboembolism (VTE) is a controversial issue. However, the impact of thrombophilia on the risk of recurrence may vary depending on the patient's age at the time of the first VTE. PATIENTS AND METHODS Of 1221 VTE patients (42 % males) registered in the MAISTHRO (MAin-ISar-THROmbosis) registry, 261 experienced VTE recurrence during a 5-year follow-up after the discontinuation of anticoagulant therapy. RESULTS Thrombophilia was more common among patients with VTE recurrence than those without (58.6 % vs. 50.3 %; p = 0.017). Stratifying patients by the age at the time of their initial VTE, Cox proportional hazards analyses adjusted for age, sex and the presence or absence of established risk factors revealed a heterozygous prothrombin (PT) G20210A mutation (hazard ratio (HR) 2.65; 95 %-confidence interval (CI) 1.71 - 4.12; p < 0.001), homozygosity/double heterozygosity for the factor V Leiden and/or PT mutation (HR 2.35; 95 %-CI 1.09 - 5.07, p = 0.030), and an antithrombin deficiency (HR 2.12; 95 %-CI 1.12 - 4.10; p = 0.021) to predict recurrent VTE in patients aged 40 years or older, whereas lupus anticoagulants (HR 3.05; 95%-CI 1.40 - 6.66; p = 0.005) increased the risk of recurrence in younger patients. Subgroup analyses revealed an increased risk of recurrence for a heterozygous factor V Leiden mutation only in young females without hormonal treatment whereas the predictive value of a heterozygous PT mutation was restricted to males over the age of 40 years. CONCLUSIONS Our data do not support a preference of younger patients for thrombophilia testing after a first venous thromboembolic event.

Implications of intraglandular lymph node metastases in primary carcinomas of the parotid gland

OBJECTIVES/HYPOTHESIS Assess the diagnostic and prognostic relevance of intraglandular lymph node (IGLN) metastases in primary parotid gland carcinomas (PGCs). STUDY DESIGN Retrospective study at a tertiary referral university hospital. METHODS We reviewed the records of 95 patients with primary PGCs, treated at least surgically, between 1997 and 2010. We assessed the clinicopathological associations of IGLN metastases, their prognostic significance, and predictive value in the diagnosis of occult neck lymph node metastases RESULTS Twenty-four (25.26%) patients had IGLN metastases. This feature was significantly more prevalent in patients with advanced pT status (P = .01), pN status (P < .01), and overall stage (P < .001); high-risk carcinomas (P = .01); as well as in patients with treatment failures (P < .01). IGLN involvement was significantly associated with decreased univariate disease-free survival (P < .001). Positive and negative predictive values and accuracy for IGLN involvement in the detection of occult neck lymph node metastases were 63.64%, 90.48%, and 84.91%, respectively. The diagnostic values were generally higher in patients with low-risk subtype of PGCs. CONCLUSIONS IGLN involvement provides prognostic information and is associated with advanced tumoral stage and higher risk of recurrence. This feature could be used as a potential readout to determine whether a neck dissection in clinically negative neck lymph nodes is needed or not. LEVEL OF EVIDENCE 4.

Clinical Significance of NOTCH1 and NOTCH2 Expression in Gastric Carcinomas: An Immunohistochemical Study.

BACKGROUND NOTCH signaling can exert oncogenic or tumor suppressive functions and can contribute to chemotherapy resistance in cancer. In this study, we aimed to clarify the clinicopathological significance and the prognostic and predictive value of NOTCH1 and NOTCH2 expression in gastric cancer (GC). METHODS NOTCH1 and NOTCH2 expression was determined immunohistochemically in 142 primarily resected GCs using tissue microarrays and in 84 pretherapeutic biopsies from patients treated by neoadjuvant chemotherapy. The results were correlated with survival, response to therapy, and clinico-pathological features. RESULTS Primarily resected patients with NOTCH1-negative tumors demonstrated worse survival. High NOTCH1 expression was associated with early-stage tumors and with significantly increased survival in this subgroup. Higher NOTCH2 expression was associated with early-stage and intestinal-type tumors and with better survival in the subgroup of intestinal-type tumors. In pretherapeutic biopsies, higher NOTCH1 and NOTCH2 expression was more frequent in non-responding patients, but these differences were statistically not significant. CONCLUSION Our findings suggested that, in particular, NOTCH1 expression indicated good prognosis in GC. The close relationship of high NOTCH1 and NOTCH2 expression with early tumor stages may indicate a tumor-suppressive role of NOTCH signaling in GC. The role of NOTCH1 and NOTCH2 in neoadjuvantly treated GC is limited.

At risk or not at risk? A meta-analysis of the prognostic accuracy of psychometric interviews for psychosis prediction

An accurate detection of individuals at clinical high risk (CHR) for psychosis is a prerequisite for effective preventive interventions. Several psychometric interviews are available, but their prognostic accuracy is unknown. We conducted a prognostic accuracy meta-analysis of psychometric interviews used to examine referrals to high risk services. The index test was an established CHR psychometric instrument used to identify subjects with and without CHR (CHR+ and CHR-). The reference index was psychosis onset over time in both CHR+ and CHR- subjects. Data were analyzed with MIDAS (STATA13). Area under the curve (AUC), summary receiver operating characteristic curves, quality assessment, likelihood ratios, Fagan's nomogram and probability modified plots were computed. Eleven independent studies were included, with a total of 2,519 help-seeking, predominately adult subjects (CHR+: N=1,359; CHR-: N=1,160) referred to high risk services. The mean follow-up duration was 38 months. The AUC was excellent (0.90; 95% CI: 0.87-0.93), and comparable to other tests in preventive medicine, suggesting clinical utility in subjects referred to high risk services. Meta-regression analyses revealed an effect for exposure to antipsychotics and no effects for type of instrument, age, gender, follow-up time, sample size, quality assessment, proportion of CHR+ subjects in the total sample. Fagan's nomogram indicated a low positive predictive value (5.74%) in the general non-help-seeking population. Albeit the clear need to further improve prediction of psychosis, these findings support the use of psychometric prognostic interviews for CHR as clinical tools for an indicated prevention in subjects seeking help at high risk services worldwide.

Detection of Malnutrition in Patients Undergoing Maintenance Haemodialysis: A Quantitative Data Analysis on 12 Parameters

Background Protein-energy-malnutrition (PEM) is common in people with end stage kidney disease (ESKD) undergoing maintenance haemodialysis (MHD) and correlates strongly with mortality. To this day, there is no gold standard for detecting PEM in patients on MHD. Aim of Study The aim of this study was to evaluate if Nutritional Risk Screening 2002 (NRS-2002), handgrip strength measurement, mid-upper arm muscle area (MUAMA), triceps skin fold measurement (TSF), serum albumin, normalised protein catabolic rate (nPCR), Kt/V and eKt/V, dry body weight, body mass index (BMI), age and time since start on MHD are relevant for assessing PEM in patients on MHD. Methods The predictive value of the selected parameters on mortality and mortality or weight loss of more than 5% was assessed. Quantitative data analysis of the 12 parameters in the same patients on MHD in autumn 2009 (n = 64) and spring 2011 (n = 40) with paired statistical analysis and multivariate logistic regression analysis was performed. Results Paired data analysis showed significant reduction of dry body weight, BMI and nPCR. Kt/Vtot did not change, eKt/v and hand grip strength measurements were significantly higher in spring 2011. No changes were detected in TSF, serum albumin, NRS-2002 and MUAMA. Serum albumin was shown to be the only predictor of death and of the combined endpoint “death or weight loss of more than 5%”. Conclusion We now screen patients biannually for serum albumin, nPCR, Kt/V, handgrip measurement of the shunt-free arm, dry body weight, age and time since initiation of MHD.

Biochemical MRI predicts hip osteoarthritis in an experimental ovine femoroacetabular impingement model

BACKGROUND Cam-type femoroacetabular impingement (FAI) resulting from an abnormal nonspherical femoral head shape leads to chondrolabral damage and is considered a cause of early osteoarthritis. A previously developed experimental ovine FAI model induces a cam-type impingement that results in localized chondrolabral damage, replicating the patterns found in the human hip. Biochemical MRI modalities such as T2 and T2* may allow for evaluation of the cartilage biochemistry long before cartilage loss occurs and, for that reason, may be a worthwhile avenue of inquiry. QUESTIONS/PURPOSES We asked: (1) Does the histological grading of degenerated cartilage correlate with T2 or T2* values in this ovine FAI model? (2) How accurately can zones of degenerated cartilage be predicted with T2 or T2* MRI in this model? METHODS A cam-type FAI was induced in eight Swiss alpine sheep by performing a closing wedge intertrochanteric varus osteotomy. After ambulation of 10 to 14 weeks, the sheep were euthanized and a 3-T MRI of the hip was performed. T2 and T2* values were measured at six locations on the acetabulum and compared with the histological damage pattern using the Mankin score. This is an established histological scoring system to quantify cartilage degeneration. Both T2 and T2* values are determined by cartilage water content and its collagen fiber network. Of those, the T2* mapping is a more modern sequence with technical advantages (eg, shorter acquisition time). Correlation of the Mankin score and the T2 and T2* values, respectively, was evaluated using the Spearman's rank correlation coefficient. We used a hierarchical cluster analysis to calculate the positive and negative predictive values of T2 and T2* to predict advanced cartilage degeneration (Mankin ≥ 3). RESULTS We found a negative correlation between the Mankin score and both the T2 (p < 0.001, r = -0.79) and T2* values (p < 0.001, r = -0.90). For the T2 MRI technique, we found a positive predictive value of 100% (95% confidence interval [CI], 79%-100%) and a negative predictive value of 84% (95% CI, 67%-95%). For the T2* technique, we found a positive predictive value of 100% (95% CI, 79%-100%) and a negative predictive value of 94% (95% CI, 79%-99%). CONCLUSIONS T2 and T2* MRI modalities can reliably detect early cartilage degeneration in the experimental ovine FAI model. CLINICAL RELEVANCE T2 and T2* MRI modalities have the potential to allow for monitoring the natural course of osteoarthrosis noninvasively and to evaluate the results of surgical treatments targeted to joint preservation.

An Increased Iliocapsularis-to-rectus-femoris Ratio Is Suggestive for Instability in Borderline Hips

BACKGROUND The iliocapsularis muscle is an anterior hip structure that appears to function as a stabilizer in normal hips. Previous studies have shown that the iliocapsularis is hypertrophied in developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH). An easy MR-based measurement of the ratio of the size of the iliocapsularis to that of adjacent anatomical structures such as the rectus femoris muscle might be helpful in everyday clinical use. QUESTIONS/PURPOSES We asked (1) whether the iliocapsularis-to-rectus-femoris ratio for cross-sectional area, thickness, width, and circumference is increased in DDH when compared with hips with acetabular overcoverage or normal hips; and (2) what is the diagnostic performance of these ratios to distinguish dysplastic from pincer hips? METHODS We retrospectively compared the anatomy of the iliocapsularis muscle between two study groups with symptomatic hips with different acetabular coverage and a control group with asymptomatic hips. The study groups were selected from a series of patients seen at the outpatient clinic for DDH or femoroacetabular impingement. The allocation to a study group was based on conventional radiographs: the dysplasia group was defined by a lateral center-edge (LCE) angle of < 25° with a minimal acetabular index of 14° and consisted of 45 patients (45 hips); the pincer group was defined by an LCE angle exceeding 39° and consisted of 37 patients (40 hips). The control group consisted of 30 asymptomatic hips (26 patients) with MRIs performed for nonorthopaedic reasons. The anatomy of the iliocapsularis and rectus femoris muscle was evaluated using MR arthrography of the hip and the following parameters: cross-sectional area, thickness, width, and circumference. The iliocapsularis-to-rectus-femoris ratio of these four anatomical parameters was then compared between the two study groups and the control group. The diagnostic performance of these ratios to distinguish dysplasia from protrusio was evaluated by calculating receiver operating characteristic (ROC) curves and the positive predictive value (PPV) for a ratio > 1. Presence and absence of DDH (ground truth) were determined on plain radiographs using the previously mentioned radiographic parameters. Evaluation of radiographs and MRIs was performed in a blinded fashion. The PPV was chosen because it indicates how likely a hip is dysplastic if the iliocapsularis-to-rectus-femoris ratio was > 1. RESULTS The iliocapsularis-to-rectus-femoris ratio for cross-sectional area, thickness, width, and circumference was increased in hips with radiographic evidence of DDH (ratios ranging from 1.31 to 1.35) compared with pincer (ratios ranging from 0.71 to 0.90; p < 0.001) and compared with the control group, the ratio of cross-sectional area, thickness, width, and circumference was increased (ratios ranging from 1.10 to 1.15; p ranging from 0.002 to 0.039). The area under the ROC curve ranged from 0.781 to 0.852. For a one-to-one iliocapsularis-to-rectus-femoris ratio, the PPV was 89% (95% confidence interval [CI], 73%-96%) for cross-sectional area, 77% (95% CI, 61%-88%) for thickness, 83% (95% CI, 67%-92%) for width, and 82% (95% CI, 67%-91%) for circumference. CONCLUSIONS The iliocapsularis-to-rectus-femoris ratio seems to be a valuable secondary sign of DDH. This parameter can be used as an adjunct for clinical decision-making in hips with borderline hip dysplasia and a concomitant cam-type deformity to identify the predominant pathology. Future studies will need to prove this finding can help clinicians determine whether the borderline dysplasia accounts for the hip symptoms with which the patient presents. LEVEL OF EVIDENCE Level III, prognostic study.

Is surgery in aCute aortiC disseCtion type A still ContraindiCated in the presenCe of preoperative neurologiCal symptoms?

Gebiet: Kardiologie Abstract: OBJECTIVES: Severe neurologiCal defiCit (ND) due to aCute aortiC disseCtion type A (AADA) was Considered a ContraindiCation for surgery beCause of poor prognosis. ReCently, more aggressive indiCation for surgery despite neurologiCal symptoms has shown aCCeptable – postoperative CliniCal results. The aim of this study was to evaluate early and mid-term outComes of patients with AADA presenting with aCute ND. – – METHODS: Data from 53 patients with new-onset ND who reCeived surgiCal repair for AADA between 2005 and 2012 at our institution were retrospeCtively reviewed. ND was defined as foCal motor or sensory defiCit, hemiplegia, paraplegia, Convulsions or Coma. NeurologiCal symptoms were evaluated preoperatively using the Glasgow Coma SCale (GCS) and modified Rankin SCale (mRS), and at disCharge as well as 3–6 months postoperatively using the mRS and National Institutes of Health Stroke SCale. Involvement of Carotid arteries was assessed in the pre- and postoperative Computed tomography. LogistiC regression analysis was performed to deteCt prediCtive faCtors for reCovery of ND. – – RESULTS: Of the 53 patients, 29 (54.7%) showed Complete reCovery from foCal ND at follow-up. NeurologiCal symptoms persisted in 24 (45.3%) patients, of whiCh 8 (33%) died without neurologiCal assessment at follow-up. Between the two groups (patients with reCovery and – those with persisting ND), there was no signifiCant differenCe regarding the duration of hypothermiC CirCulatory arrest (28 ± 14 vs 36 ± 20 min) or severely reduCed ConsCiousness (GCS <8). Multivariate analysis showed signifiCant differenCes for the preoperative mRS between the two groups (P < 0.007). A high preoperative mRS was assoCiated with persistenCe of neurologiCal symptoms (P < 0.02). CardiovasCular risk faCtors, age or involvement of supra-aortiC branChes were not prediCtive for persistenCe of ND. – – CONCLUSION: More than half of our patients reCovered Completely from ND due to AADA after surgery. Severity of CliniCal symptoms had a prediCtive value. Patients suffering from AADA and presenting with ND before surgery should not be exCluded from emergenCy surgery.

Bone mineral density (BMD) and vertebral trabecular bone score (TBS) for the identification of elderly women at high risk for fracture: the SEMOF cohort study

PURPOSE To determine the predictive value of the vertebral trabecular bone score (TBS) alone or in addition to bone mineral density (BMD) with regard to fracture risk. METHODS Retrospective analysis of the relative contribution of BMD [measured at the femoral neck (FN), total hip (TH), and lumbar spine (LS)] and TBS with regard to the risk of incident clinical fractures in a representative cohort of elderly post-menopausal women previously participating in the Swiss Evaluation of the Methods of Measurement of Osteoporotic Fracture Risk study. RESULTS Complete datasets were available for 556 of 701 women (79 %). Mean age 76.1 years, LS BMD 0.863 g/cm(2), and TBS 1.195. LS BMD and LS TBS were moderately correlated (r (2) = 0.25). After a mean of 2.7 ± 0.8 years of follow-up, the incidence of fragility fractures was 9.4 %. Age- and BMI-adjusted hazard ratios per standard deviation decrease (95 % confidence intervals) were 1.58 (1.16-2.16), 1.77 (1.31-2.39), and 1.59 (1.21-2.09) for LS, FN, and TH BMD, respectively, and 2.01 (1.54-2.63) for TBS. Whereas 58 and 60 % of fragility fractures occurred in women with BMD T score ≤-2.5 and a TBS <1.150, respectively, combining these two thresholds identified 77 % of all women with an osteoporotic fracture. CONCLUSIONS Lumbar spine TBS alone or in combination with BMD predicted incident clinical fracture risk in a representative population-based sample of elderly post-menopausal women.