Absence of the calcium-binding protein calretinin, not of calbindin D-28k, causes a permanent impairment of murine adult hippocampal neurogenesis

Calretinin (CR) and calbindin D-28k (CB) are cytosolic EF-hand Ca(2+)-binding proteins and function as Ca(2+) buffers affecting the spatiotemporal aspects of Ca(2+) transients and possibly also as Ca(2+) sensors modulating signaling cascades. In the adult hippocampal circuitry, CR and CB are expressed in specific principal neurons and subsets of interneurons. In addition, CR is transiently expressed within the neurogenic dentate gyrus (DG) niche. CR and CB expression during adult neurogenesis mark critical transition stages, onset of differentiation for CR, and the switch to adult-like connectivity for CB. Absence of either protein during these stages in null-mutant mice may have functional consequences and contribute to some aspects of the identified phenotypes. We report the impact of CR- and CB-deficiency on the proliferation and differentiation of progenitor cells within the subgranular zone (SGZ) neurogenic niche of the DG. Effects were evaluated (1) two and four weeks postnatally, during the transition period of the proliferative matrix to the adult state, and (2) in adult animals (3 months) to trace possible permanent changes in adult neurogenesis. The absence of CB from differentiated DG granule cells has no retrograde effect on the proliferative activity of progenitor cells, nor affects survival or migration/differentiation of newborn neurons in the adult DG including the SGZ. On the contrary, lack of CR from immature early postmitotic granule cells causes an early loss in proliferative capacity of the SGZ that is maintained into adult age, when it has a further impact on the migration/survival of newborn granule cells. The transient CR expression at the onset of adult neurogenesis differentiation may thus have two functions: (1) to serve as a self-maintenance signal for the pool of cells at the same stage of neurogenesis contributing to their survival/differentiation, and (2) it may contribute to retrograde signaling required for maintenance of the progenitor pool.

Expression of Toll-like receptor 2 in duodenal biopsies from dogs with inflammatory bowel disease is associated with severity of disease

There is growing evidence that aberrant innate immune responses towards the bacterial flora of the gut play a role in the pathogenesis of canine inflammatory bowel disease (IBD). Toll-like receptors (TLR) play an important role as primary sensors of invading pathogens and have gained significant attention in human IBD as differential expression and polymorphisms of certain TLR have been shown to occur in ulcerative colitis (UC) and Crohn's disease (CD). The aim of the current study was to evaluate the expression of two TLR important for recognition of commensals in the gut. TLR2 and TLR4 mRNA expression in duodenal biopsies from dogs with IBD was measured and correlated with clinical and histological disease severity. Endoscopic duodenal biopsies from 20 clinical cases and 7 healthy control dogs were used to extract mRNA. TLR2 and TLR4 mRNA expression was assessed using quantitative real-time PCR. TLR2 mRNA expression was significantly increased in the IBD dogs compared to controls, whereas TLR4 mRNA expression was similar in IBD and control cases. In addition, TLR2 mRNA expression was mildly correlated with clinical severity of disease, however, there was no correlation between TLR2 expression and histological severity of disease.

Relationship of horse owner assessed respiratory signs index to characteristics of recurrent airway obstruction in two Warmblood families

REASONS FOR PERFORMING STUDY: The horse owner assessed respiratory signs index (HOARSI-1-4, healthy, mildly, moderately and severely affected, respectively) is based on owner-reported clinical history and has been used for the investigation of recurrent airway obstruction (RAO) genetics utilising large sample sizes. Reliable phenotype identification is of paramount importance in genetic studies. Owner reports of respiratory signs have shown good repeatability, but the agreement of HOARSI with an in-depth examination of the lower respiratory tract has not been investigated. OBJECTIVES: To determine the correlation of HOARSI grades 3/4 with the characteristics of RAO and of HOARSI-2 with the characteristics of inflammatory airway disease. Further, to test whether there are phenotypic differences in the manifestation of lung disease between families. METHODS: Seventy-one direct offspring of 2 RAO-affected Warmblood stallions (33 from the first family, 38 from the second) were graded as HOARSI-1-4 and underwent a clinical examination of the respiratory system, arterial blood gas analysis, endoscopic mucus scoring, cytology of tracheobronchial secretion (TBS) and bronchoalveolar lavage fluid (BALF), and clinical assessment of airway reactivity to methacholine chloride. RESULTS: HOARSI-3/4 animals in clinical exacerbation showed signs consistent with RAO: coughing, nasal discharge, abnormal lung sounds and breathing pattern as well as increased numbers of neutrophils in TBS and BALF, excessive mucus accumulation and airway hyper-responsiveness to methacholine. HOARSI-3/4 horses in remission only had increased amounts of tracheal mucus and TBS neutrophil percentages. Clinical phenotypes were not significantly different between the 2 families. CONCLUSIONS AND CLINICAL RELEVANCE: HOARSI reliably identifies RAO-affected horses in our population.

Transcatheter aortic valve implantation: the procedure

Transcatheter aortic valve implantation (TAVI) for the treatment of symptomatic severe aortic stenosis has emerged as an effective treatment for high risk patients. In 2002 TAVI was performed for the first time in a human by Alain Cribier, using an antegrade access approach via the femoral vein, crossing the intra-atrial septum after puncture and passing the native aortic valve in the direction of blood flow. This technically demanding approach was subsequently replaced by retrograde transfemoral arterial access. For patients with severe peripheral vascular disease or inadequately sized femoral arteries, the transapical route provides an alternative route with antegrade access to the aortic valve via puncture of the anterolateral wall of the left ventricle. The transsubclavian access approach using most frequently the left subclavian artery and direct transaortic access have been introduced more recently and attest to the versatility of TAVI in terms of access site. This article will focus on the different access site options available to operators, provide a step-by-step guide through the procedure, and a detailed description of the technological evolution of transcatheter heart valve systems.

Multiple small "imaging" branch-duct type intraductal papillary mucinous neoplasms (IPMNs) in familial pancreatic cancer: indicator for concomitant high grade pancreatic intraepithelial neoplasia?

Most screening programs for familial pancreatic cancer are currently based on endoscopic ultrasonography and/or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). Cystic lesions, especially those suspicious for small intraductal pancreatic mucinous neoplasms (IPMNs) of the branch ducts, can be visualized in up to 40 % of individuals at risk, but their pathological importance in the setting of FPC is yet not well established. Individuals at risk from a prospective screening program for familial pancreatic cancer with small "imaging" IPMNs of the branch-duct type (BD-IPMN) who underwent pancreatic resection were analysed regarding clinico-pathological data and the locations of pancreatic lesions. Five of 125 individuals at risk who underwent screening had multiple small (size 2-10 mm) unicystic lesions and/or multicystic single lesions in the pancreatic body and tail suspicious for BD-IPMNs upon MRI imaging and decided to undergo surgical resection after interdisciplinary counselling, although none fulfilled the consensus criteria for IPMN resection. Histological examination revealed BD-IPMNs with low or moderate dysplasia of the gastric type in combination with multifocal PanIN2 and PanIN3 lesions in 4 individuals. The remaining patient had only tiny ductectasias in the pancreatic tail with multifocal PanIN 2 lesions in the entire gland and one PanIN3 lesion in the pancreatic head. Intriguingly, the location of the most dysplastic histological lesions (PanIN3) did not correspond to the preoperatively detected lesions and were not visible in preoperative imaging. In the setting of FPC, the presence of multiple small "imaging" BD-IPMNs may indicate the presence of high-grade PanIN lesions elsewhere in the pancreas.

[Secondary malignancies in urinary diversions]

In contrast to ureterosigmoidostomy no reliable clinical data exist for tumor risk in different forms of urinary diversion using isolated intestinal segments.In 44 German urological departments, operation frequencies, indications, patient age, and operation dates of the different forms of urinary diversion, operated between 1970 and 2007, could be registered. The secondary tumors up to 2009 were registered as well and related to the numbers of the different forms of urinary diversions resulting in tumor prevalences.In 17,758 urinary diversions 32 secondary tumors occurred. The tumor risk in ureterosigmoidostomy (22-fold) and cystoplasty (13-fold) is significantly higher than in other continent forms of urinary diversion such as neobladders or pouches (p<0.0001). The difference between ureterosigmoidostomy and cystoplasty is not significant, nor is the difference between ileocecal pouches (0.14%) and ileal neobladders (0.05%) (p=0.46). The tumor risk in ileocecal (1.26%) and colonic neobladders (1.43%) is significantly higher (p=0.0001) than in ileal neobladders (0.5%). Of the 16 tumors that occurred following ureterosigmoidostomy, 16 (94%) developed directly at the ureterocolonic borderline in contrast to only 50% following urinary diversions via isolated intestinal segments.From postoperative year 5 regular endoscopic controls of ureterosigmoidostomies, cystoplasties, and orthotopic (ileo-)colonic neobladders are necessary. In ileocecal pouches, regular endoscopy is necessary at least in the presence of symptoms or should be performed routinely at greater intervals. Following neobladders or conduits, only urethroscopies for urethral recurrence are necessary.

Diagnosis and treatment of recurrent laryngeal cancer following initial nonsurgical therapy

Surgery is the preferred modality for curative treatment of recurrent laryngeal cancer after failure of nonsurgical treatments. Patients with initial early-stage cancer experiencing recurrence following radiotherapy often have more advanced-stage tumors by the time the recurrence is recognized. About one third of such recurrent cancers are suitable for conservation surgery. Endoscopic resection with the CO(2) laser or open partial laryngectomy (partial vertical, supracricoid, or supraglottic laryngectomies) have been used. The outcomes of conservation surgery appear better than those after total laryngectomy, because of selection bias. Transoral laser surgery is currently used more frequently than open partial laryngectomy for treatment of early-stage recurrence, with outcomes equivalent to open surgery but with less associated morbidity. Laser surgery has also been employed for selective cases of advanced recurrent disease, but patient selection and expertise are required for application of this modality to rT3 tumors. In general, conservation laryngeal surgery is a safe and effective treatment for localized recurrences after radiotherapy for early-stage glottic cancer. Recurrent advanced-stage cancers should generally be treated by total laryngectomy.

Spine Ca2+ signaling in spike-timing-dependent plasticity

Calcium is a second messenger, which can trigger the modification of synaptic efficacy. We investigated the question of whether a differential rise in postsynaptic Ca2+ ([Ca2+]i) alone is sufficient to account for the induction of long-term potentiation (LTP) and long-term depression (LTD) of EPSPs in the basal dendrites of layer 2/3 pyramidal neurons of the somatosensory cortex. Volume-averaged [Ca2+]i transients were measured in spines of the basal dendritic arbor for spike-timing-dependent plasticity induction protocols. The rise in [Ca2+]i was uncorrelated to the direction of the change in synaptic efficacy, because several pairing protocols evoked similar spine [Ca2+]i transients but resulted in either LTP or LTD. The sequence dependence of near-coincident presynaptic and postsynaptic activity on the direction of changes in synaptic strength suggested that LTP and LTD were induced by two processes, which were controlled separately by postsynaptic [Ca2+]i levels. Activation of voltage-dependent Ca2+ channels before metabotropic glutamate receptors (mGluRs) resulted in the phospholipase C-dependent (PLC-dependent) synthesis of endocannabinoids, which acted as a retrograde messenger to induce LTD. LTP required a large [Ca2+]i transient evoked by NMDA receptor activation. Blocking mGluRs abolished the induction of LTD and uncovered the Ca2+-dependent induction of LTP. We conclude that the volume-averaged peak elevation of [Ca2+]i in spines of layer 2/3 pyramids determines the magnitude of long-term changes in synaptic efficacy. The direction of the change is controlled, however, via a mGluR-coupled signaling cascade. mGluRs act in conjunction with PLC as sequence-sensitive coincidence detectors when postsynaptic precede presynaptic action potentials to induce LTD. Thus presumably two different Ca2+ sensors in spines control the induction of spike-timing-dependent synaptic plasticity.

[Oesophageal and fundic variceal bleeding]

Oesophageal and fundic varices belong to the most frequent complications of cirrhosis and portal hypertension. Due to their significant morbidity and mortality, bleedings from oesophageal or fundic varices represent a challenge for the emergency medical team as well as for the gastroenterologist. The patient with a variceal bleeding should be accurately monitored and his/her hemodynamic parameters should be maintained stable with the administration of plasma expanders and blood units when indicated. An antibiotic prophylaxis in this setting--norfloxacin or ceftriaxon--has been demonstrated to significantly reduce morbidity and mortality. Additionally, the early administration of vasoactive compounds, such as terlipressin, somatostatin or octreotide, is associated with beneficial effects in reducing the bleeding. An upper gastrointestinal endoscopy should be generally performed within the first twelve hours from the beginning of the bleeding in order to obtain an accurate diagnosis and to provide an adequate treatment. Endoscopic procedures to control the bleeding include the rubber band ligation, the treatment of the varix with a sclerosing agent or the injection of tissue glue into the varix. In case of recurrent bleeding, beyond the above methods, different techniques, such as the transjugular porto-caval shunt, surgical shunt procedures, as well as embolisation of splanchnic blood vessels, represent additional therapeutic options. However, they are associated with very high mortality rates and their indication has to be discussed case by case by an interdisciplinary team of experts. Future therapies include the optimisation and the improvement of the current medical and endoscopic armamentarium, as well as the application of treatments to novel targets, such as the coagulation cascade.

Perinuclear antineutrophilic cytoplasmic antibody and response to treatment in diarrheic dogs with food responsive disease or inflammatory bowel disease

The goal of this study was to investigate the correlation between perinuclear antineutrophilic cytoplasmic antibody (pANCA) and clinical scores before and after treatment in diarrheic dogs with food-responsive disease (FRD) or inflammatory bowel disease (IBD). pANCA serology was evaluated prospectively by indirect immunofluorescence in 65 dogs with signs of gastrointestinal disease, and if positive, pANCA antibody titers were determined. Thirty-nine dogs with FRD responded to a novel diet, and 26 dogs with IBD were treated with corticosteroids. The severity of clinical signs was scored by means of a canine IBD activity index (CIBDAI). At initial examination, a significantly (P = .002) higher percentage of dogs were pANCA-positive in the FRD group (62%) compared with the IBD group (23%). pANCA titers were significantly higher (P = .003) before treatment in the FRD group (median titer 100) compared with the IBD group (median titer 1). However, there was no difference in pANCA titers between the groups after respective treatments because dogs in the IBD group had a significant increase in pANCA titer after treatment. The CIBDAI score decreased significantly (P < .001) after treatment in both groups (74% moderate to severe in FRD dogs before versus 8% after treatment; 85% moderate to severe in IBD dogs before versus 32% after treatment). There was no correlation between pANCA status in FRD or IBD dogs before treatment and scores for CIBDAI, endoscopy, or histopathology before or after treatment, except for the endoscopic duodenal score in dogs with FRD after treatment (P = .03). A positive pANCA test before therapy may aid in the diagnosis of FRD.

Eosinophilic esophagitis in adults--no clinical relevance of wheat and rye sensitizations

BACKGROUND: Eosinophilic esophagitis (EE) is often associated with concomitant atopic diseases. In children with EE in whom food allergens have been identified as causative factors, elemental and elimination diets result in an improvement or resolution of symptoms. Most adult EE patients are sensitized to aeroallergens, which cross-react with plant-derived food allergens, most commonly to grass pollen and cereals. AIMS OF THE STUDY: To investigate the clinical relevance of the sensitization to wheat and rye, and the efficacy of an allergen-specific elimination diet in adult EE patients. METHODS: Six patients (five men, one women) with permanently active EE sensitized to grass pollen and the cereals wheat and rye underwent a double-blind placebo-controlled food challenge and were kept on an elimination diet avoiding wheat and rye for 6 weeks. RESULTS: The challenge tests with wheat and rye did not provoke any EE symptoms in all patients. The elimination diet failed in reducing disease activity. Although one patient noticed an improvement of symptoms, endoscopic and histopathologic findings remained unchanged. CONCLUSIONS: In adult EE patients, sensitization to wheat and rye does not seem causative for EE. Elimination diet is not a reliable and efficient therapeutic measure in EE patients sensitized to wheat and rye. Low specific immunoglobulin-E levels to wheat and rye may be a consequence of the underlying grass pollen allergy.

Invasive sphenoidal aspergillosis: successful treatment with sphenoidotomy and voriconazole

Treatment of invasive sphenoidal aspergillosis is surgical, followed by antifungal therapy, mostly amphotericin B. To optimize the adjuvant antifungal treatment, which is often limited by severe side effects, the new triazole antifungal agent voriconazole with broad coverage of fungal pathogens including Aspergillus was investigated in a study of 4 patients with clinical, radiological and histological signs of invasive sphenoidal aspergillosis. They first underwent endoscopic sphenoidotomy with drainage and extraction of the fungal mass. Postoperatively, 2 patients were immediately treated with voriconazole. Two patients initially received amphotericin B; but this treatment had to be stopped because of acute renal toxicity. Finally, all patients were treated orally with 200 mg voriconazole twice a day for 12-14 weeks. After this combined treatment all patients were asymptomatic and there were no endoscopic or radiological signs of residual fungal disease. The only side effects were nausea in one and transient visual disturbances in 2 other patients. In the 4 patients presented and treated, voriconazole was shown to be effective and less toxic than amphotericin B in adjuvant treatment of invasive sphenoidal aspergillosis. Copyright (c) 2007 S. Karger AG, Basel.

Nerve sparing open radical retropubic prostatectomy--does it have an impact on urinary continence?

PURPOSE: We prospectively assessed the role of nerve sparing surgery on urinary continence after open radical retropubic prostatectomy. MATERIALS AND METHODS: We evaluated a consecutive series of 536 patients who underwent open radical retropubic prostatectomy with attempted bilateral, unilateral or no nerve sparing, as defined by the surgeon, without prior radiotherapy at a minimum followup of 1 year with documented assessment of urinary continence status. Because outlet obstruction may influence continence rates, its incidence and management was also evaluated. RESULTS: One year after surgery 505 of 536 patients (94.2%) were continent, 27 (5%) had grade I stress incontinence and 4 (0.8%) had grade II stress incontinence. Incontinence was found in 1 of 75 (1.3%), 11 of 322 (3.4%) and 19 of 139 patients (13.7%) with attempted bilateral, attempted unilateral and without attempted nerve sparing, respectively. The proportional differences were highly significant, favoring a nerve sparing technique (p <0.0001). On multiple logistic regression analysis attempted nerve sparing was the only statistically significant factor influencing urinary continence after open radical retropubic prostatectomy (OR 4.77, 95% CI 2.18 to 10.44, p = 0.0001). Outlet obstruction at the anastomotic site in 33 of the 536 men (6.2%) developed at a median of 8 weeks (IQR 4 to 12) and was managed by dilation or an endoscopic procedure. CONCLUSIONS: The incidence of incontinence after open radical retropubic prostatectomy is low and continence is highly associated with a nerve sparing technique. Therefore, nerve sparing should be attempted in all patients if the principles of oncological surgery are not compromised.

Galectin-3 modulates T cell activity and is reduced in the inflamed intestinal epithelium in IBD

BACKGROUND: Galectins are involved at different stages in inflammation. Galectin-3, although mostly described as proinflammatory, can also act as an immunomodulator by inducing apoptosis in T cells. The present study aims to determine galectin-3 expression in the normal and inflamed intestinal mucosa and to define its role in T cell activity. MATERIALS AND METHODS: Galectin-3 was detected by quantitative polymerase chain reaction with total RNA from endoscopic biopsies and by immunohistochemistry. Biopsies and peripheral blood mononuclear cells (PBMC) were stimulated in vitro and were used to assess the functional consequences of inhibition or exogenous addition of galectin-3. RESULTS: Galectin-3 is expressed at comparable levels in controls and inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) patients in remission. In the normal mucosa, galectin-3 protein was mainly observed in differentiated enterocytes, preferentially at the basolateral side. However, galectin-3 was significantly downregulated in inflamed biopsies from IBD patients. Ex vivo stimulation of uninflamed biopsies with tumor necrosis factor led to similar galectin-3 messenger RNA downregulation as in vivo. When peripheral blood mononuclear cells (PBMC) were analyzed, galectin-3 was mainly produced by monocytes. Upon mitogen stimulation, we observed increased proliferation and decreased activation-induced cell death of peripheral blood T cells in the presence of galectin-3-specific small interfering RNA. In contrast, exogenous addition of recombinant galectin-3 led to reduced proliferation of mitogen-stimulated peripheral blood T cells. CONCLUSIONS: Our results suggest that downregulation of epithelial galectin-3 in the inflamed mucosa reflects a normal immunological consequence, whereas under noninflammatory conditions, its constitutive expression may help to prevent inappropriate immune responses against commensal bacteria or food compounds. Therefore, galectin-3 may prove valuable for manipulating disease activity.

Autofluorescence endoscopy in surveillance of Barrett's esophagus: a multicenter randomized trial on diagnostic efficacy

BACKGROUND AND STUDY AIMS: The reference surveillance method in patients with Barrett's esophagus is careful endoscopic observation, with targeted as well as random four-quadrant biopsies. Autofluorescence endoscopy (AFE) may make it easier to locate neoplasia. The aim of this study was to elucidate the diagnostic accuracy of surveillance with AFE-guided plus four-quadrant biopsies in comparison with the conventional approach. PATIENTS AND METHODS: A total of 187 of 200 consecutive Barrett's esophagus patients who were initially enrolled (73 % male, mean age 67 years, mean Barrett's segment length 4.6 cm), who underwent endoscopy for Barrett's esophagus in four study centers, were randomly assigned to undergo either AFE-targeted biopsy followed by four-quadrant biopsies or conventional endoscopic surveillance, also including four-quadrant biopsies (study phase 1). After exclusion of patients with early cancer or high-grade dysplasia, who underwent endoscopic or surgical treatment, as well as those who declined to participate in phase 2 of the study, 130 patients remained. These patients were examined again with the alternative method after a mean of 10 weeks, using the same methods described. The main study parameter was the detection of early cancer/adenocarcinoma or high-grade dysplasia (HGD), comparing both approaches in study phase 1; the secondary study aim in phase 2 was to assess the additional value of the AFE-guided approach after conventional surveillance, and vice versa. Test accuracy measures were derived from study phase 1. RESULTS: In study phase 1, the AFE and conventional approaches yielded adenocarcinoma/HGD rates of 12 % and 5.3 %, respectively, on a per-patient basis. With AFE, four previously unrecognized adenocarcinoma/HGD lesions were identified (4.3 % of the patients); with the conventional approach, one new lesion (1.1 %) was identified. Of the 19 adenocarcinoma/HGD lesions detected during AFE endoscopy in study phase 1, eight were visualized, while 11 were only detected using untargeted four-quadrant biopsies (sensitivity 42 %). Of the 766 biopsies classified at histology as being nonneoplastic, 58 appeared suspicious (specificity 92 %, positive predictive value 12 %, negative predictive value 98.5 %). In study phase 2, AFE detected two further lesions in addition to the initial alternative approach in 3.2 % of cases, in comparison with one lesion with conventional endoscopy (1.7 %). CONCLUSIONS: In this referral Barrett's esophagus population with a higher prevalence of neoplastic lesions, the AFE-guided approach improved the diagnostic yield for neoplasia in comparison with the conventional approach using four-quadrant biopsies. However, AFE alone was not suitable for replacing the standard four-quadrant biopsy protocol.