Viable neutrophils release mitochondrial DNA to form neutrophil extracellular traps

Neutrophil extracellular traps (NETs) represent extracellular structures able to bind and kill microorganisms. It is believed that they are generated by neutrophils undergoing cell death, allowing these dying or dead cells to kill microbes. We show that, following priming with granulocyte/macrophage colony-stimulating factor (GM-CSF) and subsequent short-term toll-like receptor 4 (TLR4) or complement factor 5a (C5a) receptor stimulation, viable neutrophils are able to generate NETs. Strikingly, NETs formed by living cells contain mitochondrial, but no nuclear, DNA. Pharmacological or genetic approaches to block reactive oxygen species (ROS) production suggested that NET formation is ROS dependent. Moreover, neutrophil populations stimulated with GM-CSF and C5a showed increased survival compared with resting neutrophils, which did not generate NETs. In conclusion, mitochondrial DNA release by neutrophils and NET formation do not require neutrophil death and do also not limit the lifespan of these cells.

Active uptake of dendritic cell-derived exovesicles by epithelial cells induces the release of inflammatory mediators through a TNF-alpha-mediated pathway

Dendritic cells (DCs) can release hundreds of membrane vesicles, called exovesicles, which are able to activate resting DCs and distribute antigen. Here, we examined the role of mature DC-derived exovesicles in innate and adaptive immunity, in particular their capacity to activate epithelial cells. Our analysis of exovesicle contents showed that exovesicles contain major histocompatibility complex-II, CD40, and CD83 molecules in addition to tumor necrosis factor (TNF) receptors, TNFRI and TNFRII, and are important carriers of TNF-alpha. These exovesicles are rapidly internalized by epithelial cells, inducing the release of cytokines and chemokines, but do not transfer an alloantigen-presenting capacity to epithelial cells. Part of this activation appears to involve the TNF-alpha-mediated pathway, highlighting the key role of DC-derived exovesicles, not only in adaptive immunity, but also in innate immunity by triggering innate immune responses and activating neighboring epithelial cells to release cytokines and chemokines, thereby amplifying the magnitude of the innate immune response.

Drug-specific in vitro release of IL-2, IL-5, IL-13 and IFN-gamma in patients with delayed-type drug hypersensitivity

BACKGROUND: The most prevalent drug hypersensitivity reactions are T-cell mediated. The only established in vitro test for detecting T-cell sensitization to drugs is the lymphocyte transformation test, which is of limited practicability. To find an alternative in vitro method to detect drug-sensitized T cells, we screened the in vitro secretion of 17 cytokines/chemokines by peripheral blood mononuclear cells (PBMC) of patients with well-documented drug allergies, in order to identify the most promising cytokines/chemokines for detection of T-cell sensitization to drugs. METHODS: Peripheral blood mononuclear cell of 10 patients, five allergic to beta-lactams and five to sulfanilamides, and of five healthy controls were incubated for 3 days with the drug antigen. Cytokine concentrations were measured in the supernatants using commercially available 17-plex bead-based immunoassay kits. RESULTS: Among the 17 cytokines/chemokines analysed, interleukin-2 (IL-2), IL-5, IL-13 and interferon-gamma (IFN-gamma) secretion in response to the drugs were significantly increased in patients when compared with healthy controls. No difference in cytokine secretion patterns between sulfonamide- and beta-lactam-reactive PBMC could be observed. The secretion of other cytokines/chemokines showed a high variability among patients. CONCLUSION: The measurement of IL-2, IL-5, IL-13 or IFN-gamma or a combination thereof might be a useful in vitro tool for detection of T-cell sensitization to drugs. Secretion of these cytokines seems independent of the type of drug antigen and the phenotype of the drug reaction. A study including a higher number of patients and controls will be needed to determine the exact sensitivity and specificity of this test.

Ctp1 and the MRN-complex are required for endonucleolytic Rec12 removal with release of a single class of oligonucleotides in fission yeast

DNA double-strand breaks (DSBs) are formed during meiosis by the action of the topoisomerase-like Spo11/Rec12 protein, which remains covalently bound to the 5' ends of the broken DNA. Spo11/Rec12 removal is required for resection and initiation of strand invasion for DSB repair. It was previously shown that budding yeast Spo11, the homolog of fission yeast Rec12, is removed from DNA by endonucleolytic cleavage. The release of two Spo11 bound oligonucleotide classes, heterogeneous in length, led to the conjecture of asymmetric cleavage. In fission yeast, we found only one class of oligonucleotides bound to Rec12 ranging in length from 17 to 27 nucleotides. Ctp1, Rad50, and the nuclease activity of Rad32, the fission yeast homolog of Mre11, are required for endonucleolytic Rec12 removal. Further, we detected no Rec12 removal in a rad50S mutant. However, strains with additional loss of components localizing to the linear elements, Hop1 or Mek1, showed some Rec12 removal, a restoration depending on Ctp1 and Rad32 nuclease activity. But, deletion of hop1 or mek1 did not suppress the phenotypes of ctp1Delta and the nuclease dead mutant (rad32-D65N). We discuss what consequences for subsequent repair a single class of Rec12-oligonucleotides may have during meiotic recombination in fission yeast in comparison to two classes of Spo11-oligonucleotides in budding yeast. Furthermore, we hypothesize on the participation of Hop1 and Mek1 in Rec12 removal.

In vivo bisphenol-a release from dental pit and fissure sealants: a systematic review

OBJECTIVE To search the literature and assess the short- and long-term release of bisphenol-A (BPA) in human tissues after treatment with dental sealants. DATA Two review authors performed data extraction independently and in duplicate using data collection forms. Disagreements were resolved by discussion with an arbiter. SOURCES Electronic database searches of published and unpublished literature were performed. The following electronic databases with no language and publication date restrictions were searched: MEDLINE (via Ovid and Pubmed), EMBASE (via ovid), Cochrane Trials Register and CENTRAL. The reference lists of all eligible studies were hand-searched. STUDY SELECTION In the absence of RCTs, six interventional and two observational studies, examining in vivo BPA release in human salivary, blood and urinary samples, were included. Due to the heterogeneity in methodology and reporting, the main synthesis of the results was qualitative. The quantitative synthesis based on the weighted Z-test could only include two studies. BPA levels identified in saliva ranged from traces below the method's detection limit to 30 μg/ml. In urine, BPA quantities spanned from 0.17 mg/g to 45.4 mg/g. BPA was not traced in any blood sample at any point of time in the relevant studies. The quantitative analysis showed evidence of BPA release one hour after sealant placement compared to the amount traced before restoration (Stouffer's z trend: <0.001). CONCLUSIONS The available evidence on this topic derived from studies that represent a moderate level of evidence. Nevertheless, the available evidence supports that BPA is released in saliva after sealant placement. CLINICAL SIGNIFICANCE From the qualititative and quantitative synthesis of studies, it is reasonable to conclude that BPA is released after placement of some dental pit and fissure sealants in the oral cavity. The biggest quantities are detected in saliva immediately after or one hour after their placement.

The RYR2-encoded ryanodine receptor/calcium release channel in patients diagnosed previously with either catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachycardia or genotype negative, exercise-induced long QT syndrome: a comprehensive open reading frame mutational analysis.

OBJECTIVES This study was undertaken to determine the spectrum and prevalence of mutations in the RYR2-encoded cardiac ryanodine receptor in cases with exertional syncope and normal corrected QT interval (QTc). BACKGROUND Mutations in RYR2 cause type 1 catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (CPVT1), a cardiac channelopathy with increased propensity for lethal ventricular dysrhythmias. Most RYR2 mutational analyses target 3 canonical domains encoded by <40% of the translated exons. The extent of CPVT1-associated mutations localizing outside of these domains remains unknown as RYR2 has not been examined comprehensively in most patient cohorts. METHODS Mutational analysis of all RYR2 exons was performed using polymerase chain reaction, high-performance liquid chromatography, and deoxyribonucleic acid sequencing on 155 unrelated patients (49% females, 96% Caucasian, age at diagnosis 20 +/- 15 years, mean QTc 428 +/- 29 ms), with either clinical diagnosis of CPVT (n = 110) or an initial diagnosis of exercise-induced long QT syndrome but with QTc <480 ms and a subsequent negative long QT syndrome genetic test (n = 45). RESULTS Sixty-three (34 novel) possible CPVT1-associated mutations, absent in 400 reference alleles, were detected in 73 unrelated patients (47%). Thirteen new mutation-containing exons were identified. Two-thirds of the CPVT1-positive patients had mutations that localized to 1 of 16 exons. CONCLUSIONS Possible CPVT1 mutations in RYR2 were identified in nearly one-half of this cohort; 45 of the 105 translated exons are now known to host possible mutations. Considering that approximately 65% of CPVT1-positive cases would be discovered by selective analysis of 16 exons, a tiered targeting strategy for CPVT genetic testing should be considered.

Phosphate release kinetics in calcareous grassland and forest soils in response to H+ addition

Phosphate release kinetics in soils are of global interest because sustainable plant nutrition with phosphate will be a major concern in the future. Dissolution of phosphate-containing minerals induced by a changing rhizosphere equilibrium through proton input is one important mechanism that releases phosphate into bioavailable forms. Our objectives were (i) to determine phosphate release kinetics during H+ addition in calcareous soils of the Schwäbische Alb, Germany, and to assess the influence of (ii) land-use type (grassland vs. forest) and (iii) management intensity on reactive phosphate pools and phosphate release rate constants during H+ addition. Phosphate release kinetics were characterized by a large fast-reacting phosphatepool, which could be attributed to poorly-crystalline calcium phosphates, and a small slow-reacting phosphate pool probably originating from carbonate-bearing hydroxylapatite. Both reactive phosphate pools—as well as total phosphate concentrations (TP) in soil—were greater in grassland than in forest soils. In organically fertilized grassland soils, concentrations of released phosphate were higher than in unfertilized soils, likely because organic fertilizers contain poorly-crystalline phosphate compounds which are further converted into sparingly soluble phosphate forms. Because of an enriched slow-reacting phosphate pool, mown pastures were characterized by a more continuous slow phosphate release reaction in contrast to clear biphasic phosphate release patterns in meadows. Consequently, managing phosphate release kinetics via management measures is a valuable tool to evaluate longer-term P availability in soil in the context of finite rock phosphate reserves on earth.