Triple and quadruple spontaneous cervical artery dissection: presenting characteristics and long-term outcome

BACKGROUND: Spontaneous cervicocephalic artery dissection (sCAD) of more than two cervical arteries is rare. PATIENTS AND METHODS: Vascular and potential sCAD risk factors, triggering events, clinical and neuroimaging findings, and outcome of patients with multiple sCAD were studied. Patients were drawn from prospective hospital-based sCAD registries. RESULTS: Of 740 consecutive patients with sCAD, 11 (1.5%) had three, and one had four (0.1%) sCAD. Eight of these 12 patients were women. One patient had additional dissections of the celiac trunk and hepatic artery. Vascular risk factors included hypertension (n = 1), hypercholesterolaemia (n = 6), current smoking (n = 5) and migraine (n = 6). No patient had a family history of sCAD, fibromuscular dysplasia (FMD) or connective tissue disease. SCAD was preceded by a minor trauma in five and infection in four patients. Clinical manifestations included ischaemic stroke (n = 8), transient ischaemic attack (n = 3), headache (n = 9), neck pain (n = 4), Horner syndrome (n = 5), pulsatile tinnitus (n = 2) and dysgeusia (n = 1). Brain MRI revealed ischaemic infarcts that affected one vessel territory in seven and two territories in two patients. The 3-month outcome was favourable (modified Rankin scale score 0-1) in 10 patients (83%). No new recurrent stroke or sCAD occurred during a mean follow-up of 50 (SD 29) months. CONCLUSION: Multiple sCAD occurred preferentially in women and caused clinical symptoms and signs mainly in one vascular territory. In none of the patients was FMD or any other underlying arteriopathy apparent. The majority of multiple sCAD was preceded by a minor trauma or infection. Clinical outcome was favourable in most patients, and long-term prognosis benign. The data suggest that transient vasculopathy may be a major mechanism for multiple sCAD.

Immunological microenvironment in prostate cancer: high mast cell densities are associated with favorable tumor characteristics and good prognosis

BACKGROUND: Number of intratumoral mast cells predicts survival in various cancers. The prognostic significance of such mast cells in surgically treated prostate cancer is unknown. METHODS: Mast cell densities were determined in prostate cancer samples of more than 2,300 hormone-naïve patients using a tissue microarray format in correlation with clinical follow-up data. Mast cells were visualized immunohistochemically (c-kit). All patients were homogeneously treated by radical prostatectomy at a single institution. RESULTS: Mast cells were present in 95.9% of the tumor samples. Median mast cell number on the tissue spot was 9 (range: 0-90; median density: 31 mast cells/mm(2)). High mast cell densities were significantly associated with more favorable tumors having lower preoperative prostate-specific antigen (P = 0.0021), Gleason score (P < 0.0001) and tumor stage (P < 0.0001) than tumors with low mast cell densities. Prostate-specific antigen recurrence-free survival significantly (P = 0.0001) decreased with decline of mast cell density showing poorest outcome for patients without intratumoral mast cells. In multivariate analysis mast cell density narrowly missed to add independent prognostic information (P = 0.0815) for prostate-specific antigen recurrence. CONCLUSION: High intratumoral mast cell density is associated with favorable tumor characteristics and good prognosis in prostate cancer. This finding is consistent with a role of mast cells in the immunological host-defense reaction on prostate cancer. Triggering mast cell activity might expand immunotherapeutic strategies in prostate cancer.

A comparison of patient characteristics and 30-day mortality outcomes after transcatheter aortic valve implantation and surgical aortic valve replacement for the treatment of aortic stenosis: a two-centre study

AIMS: It is unclear whether transcatheter aortic valve implantation (TAVI) addresses an unmet clinical need for those currently rejected for surgical aortic valve replacement (SAVR) and whether there is a subgroup of high-risk patients benefiting more from TAVI compared to SAVR. In this two-centre, prospective cohort study, we compared baseline characteristics and 30-day mortality between TAVI and SAVR in consecutive patients undergoing invasive treatment for aortic stenosis. METHODS AND RESULTS: We pre-specified different adjustment methods to examine the effect of TAVI as compared with SAVR on overall 30-day mortality: crude univariable logistic regression analysis, multivariable analysis adjusted for baseline characteristics, analysis adjusted for propensity scores, propensity score matched analysis, and weighted analysis using the inverse probability of treatment (IPT) as weights. A total of 1,122 patients were included in the study: 114 undergoing TAVI and 1,008 patients undergoing SAVR. The crude mortality rate was greater in the TAVI group (9.6% vs. 2.3%) yielding an odds ratio [OR] of 4.57 (95%-CI 2.17-9.65). Compared to patients undergoing SAVR, patients with TAVI were older, more likely to be in NYHA class III and IV, and had a considerably higher logistic EuroSCORE and more comorbid conditions. Adjusted OR depended on the method used to control for confounding and ranged from 0.60 (0.11-3.36) to 7.57 (0.91-63.0). We examined the distribution of propensity scores and found scores to overlap sufficiently only in a narrow range. In patients with sufficient overlap of propensity scores, adjusted OR ranged from 0.35 (0.04-2.72) to 3.17 (0.31 to 31.9). In patients with insufficient overlap, we consistently found increased odds of death associated with TAVI compared with SAVR irrespective of the method used to control confounding, with adjusted OR ranging from 5.88 (0.67-51.8) to 25.7 (0.88-750). Approximately one third of patients undergoing TAVI were found to be potentially eligible for a randomised comparison of TAVI versus SAVR. CONCLUSIONS: Both measured and unmeasured confounding limit the conclusions that can be drawn from observational comparisons of TAVI versus SAVR. Our study indicates that TAVI could be associated with either substantial benefits or harms. Randomised comparisons of TAVI versus SAVR are warranted.

Paediatric antiretroviral treatment programmes in sub-Saharan Africa: a review of published clinical studies

Knowledge of the experience and outcomes of current paediatric antiretroviral treatment (ART) programmes in sub-Saharan Africa can inform new programmes in the region as well as enhance existing ones. This is urgently needed to facilitate the scale-up of treatment, which is needed to address the burden of paediatric HIV cases on the continent. We reviewed the characteristics and outcomes of programmes with clinical paediatric ART studies published prior to 1 January 2008. The outcomes of the studies were comparable to similar ones from developed countries; however, the duration of follow-up was relatively limited in almost all the studies reviewed. One-year survival probability was between 84% and 91%, and considerable improvement in the clinical, immunologic and iral status of the paediatric patients was generally recorded. Loss to follow-up was less than 10% in all but two studies. Adherence to treatment was good and few adverse events were reported. This is despite the fact that many programmes were subject to enormous constraints in terms of health services, and despite widespread use of adult fixed-dose combinations for paediatric patients, including young infants. While the majority of children commencing ART were severely ill, most children were old (median age >5 years for almost all studies) with relatively few infants and young children (age <2 years) receiving treatment. This is in contrast to knowledge of rapid disease progression in the majority of HIV-infected infants and despite the World Health Organization’s recent recommendations to commence ART in all HIV-infected infants less than one year old. There is an urgent need to address barriers to ART for infants. Studies of the outcomes of programmes treating infants as well as those with longer-term follow-up are also needed.

Effects of decontamination and implant surface characteristics on re-osseointegration following treatment of peri-implantitis

BACKGROUND: Although considerable bone fill may occur following treatment of peri-implantitis, re-osseointegration appears to be limited and unpredictable. Objectives: To evaluate the effects of various decontamination techniques and implant surface configurations on re-osseointegration of contaminated dental implants. MATERIAL AND METHODS: Three months after tooth extraction, implants consisting of a basal part and an exchangeable intraosseous implant cylinder (EIIC) were placed in the mandibles of dogs. The EIIC was machined (M), sandblasted and acid-etched (SLA), or titanium plasma sprayed (TPS). Ligature-induced peri-implantitis was initiated 8 weeks post-implantation and lasted until bone loss reached the junction of the two implant parts. Three treatment modalities were applied: (T1) the EIIC was exchanged for a pristine EIIC; (T2) the EIIC was sprayed in situ with saline; and (T3) the EIIC was removed, cleansed outside the mouth by spraying with saline, steam-sterilized, and remounted. A collagen barrier was placed over each fixture, and 3 months later, samples were processed for histology and histomorphometry. RESULTS: T2 revealed the highest bone-to-implant contact (BIC) level (significantly better than T1 and T3). T2 also yielded the highest bone crest level (significantly better than T1), followed by T3 (significantly better than T1). SLA showed the highest BIC level (significantly better than M), followed by TPS. There were no statistically significant differences in bone crest height between implant types. CONCLUSIONS: Both SLA implants and in situ cleansing resulted in the best re-osseointegration and bone fill of previously contaminated implants.

Severe autoimmune cytopenias in treatment-naive hepatitis C virus infection: clinical description of 16 cases

OBJECTIVE: To describe the prevalence, main characteristics, and treatment of severe autoimmune cytopenias [autoimmune hemolytic anemia (AIHA), autoimmune thrombocytopenic purpura (AITP)] in patients with chronic hepatitis C virus (HCV) infection. METHODS: Retrospective chart review of patients with chronic HCV infection seen at our institution. Two additional departments contributed eight more patients to assess therapy of HCV-related autoimmune cytopenias. RESULTS: Eight patients (seven AITP, one AIHA) fulfilled the inclusion criteria in our population of 4345 HCV-infected patients. The number of patients with AITP was much greater than would be expected by chance (P<0.0001). Patients with HCV-related AITP were older and demonstrated more immunological markers than a group of 40 controls. Eight additional patients (six AITP, two Evans syndrome) were included. We only assessed the response for AITP patients because of the single case of AIHA. Patients with AITP had a poor response to initial corticosteroids [one complete response (CR), three partial response (PR), and four failures]. Intravenous immunoglobulins led to transient efficacy in three of four patients. In second-line therapy, five of seven patients responded to splenectomy. Rituximab proved effective in increasing platelets in two patients. Of eight patients treated with antiviral therapy (IFN-alpha+/-ribavirin), five responded (three CR, two PR). CONCLUSION: AITP occurs more commonly in patients with chronic HCV infection than would be expected by chance. HCV-positive AITP requires a treatment strategy different from that used in HCV-negative AITP. On the basis of the results from our study and a literature analysis, we propose an algorithm for treatment of severe HCV-related autoimmune cytopenias.

Phenotypes and echocardiographic characteristics of a European population of domestic shorthair cats with idiopathic hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

111 Domestic Shorthair cats with idiopathic hypertrophic cardiomyopathy were reviewed retrospectively. Two-dimensional echocardiography was used to classify cases in 6 established phenotypes. Hypertrophy was diffuse in 61 % of cats and involved major portions of the ventricular septum and the left ventricular free wall (phenotype D). In the remaining cats, distribution of hypertrophy was more segmental and was identified on the papillary muscles exclusively (phenotype A, 6 %), on the anterior and basal portion of the ventricular septum (phenotype B, 12 %), on the entire septum (phenotype C, 14 %), or on the left ventricular free wall (phenotype E, 7 %). Echocardiographic characteristics and clinical findings were determined for each phenotype to study the correlation between distribution of hypertrophy and clinical implications. 31 cats demonstrated systolic anterior motion of the mitral valve, 75 % of them belonged to phenotype C of hypertrophy. Left ventricular-outflow turbulences were identified more frequently with patterns of hypertrophy involving the ventricular septum (65.5 %), while prevalence of mitral regurgitation was higher when hypertrophy included the papillary muscles (phenotypes A and E, 85 % and 87 %, respectively). Left atrial dilatation occurred more frequently when hypertrophy was diffuse or confined to the left ventricular free wall (61 % of cats with phenotype D or E) rather than to the ventricular septum (31 % of cats with phenotype B or C).

The SAKK cancer-specific geriatric assessment (C-SGA): a pilot study of a brief tool for clinical decision-making in older cancer patients

BACKGROUND Recommendations from international task forces on geriatric assessment emphasize the need for research including validation of cancer-specific geriatric assessment (C-SGA) tools in oncological settings. The objective of this study was to evaluate the feasibility of the SAKK Cancer-Specific Geriatric Assessment (C-SGA) in clinical practice. METHODS A cross sectional study of cancer patients >=65 years old (N = 51) with pathologically confirmed cancer presenting for initiation of chemotherapy treatment (07/01/2009-03/31/2011) at two oncology departments in Swiss canton hospitals: Kantonsspital Graubunden (KSGR N = 25), Kantonsspital St. Gallen (KSSG N = 26). Data was collected using three instruments, the SAKK C-SGA plus physician and patient evaluation forms. The SAKK C-SGA includes six measures covering five geriatric assessment domains (comorbidity, function, psychosocial, nutrition, cognition) using a mix of medical record abstraction (MRA) and patient interview. Five individual domains and one overall SAKK C-SGA score were calculated and dichotomized as below/above literature-based cut-offs. The SAKK C-SGA was evaluated by: patient and physician estimated time to complete, ease of completing, and difficult or unanswered questions. RESULTS Time to complete the patient questionnaire was considered acceptable by almost all (>=96%) patients and physicians. Patients reported slightly shorter times to complete the questionnaire than physicians (17.33 +/- 7.34 vs. 20.59 +/- 6.53 minutes, p = 0.02). Both groups rated the patient questionnaire as easy/fairly easy to complete (91% vs. 84% respectively, p = 0.14) with few difficult or unanswered questions. The MRA took on average 8.32 +/- 4.72 minutes to complete. Physicians (100%) considered time to complete MRA acceptable, 96% rated it as easy/fairly easy to complete. Individual study site populations differed on health-related characteristics (excellent/good physician-rated general health KSGR 71% vs. KSSG 32%, p = 0.007). The overall mean C-SGA score was 2.4 +/- 1.12. Patients at KSGR had lower C-SGA scores (2.00 +/- 1.19 vs. 2.81 +/- 0.90, p = 0.009) and a smaller proportion (28% vs.65%, p = 0.008) was above the C-SGA cut-off score compared to KSSG. CONCLUSIONS These results suggest the SAKK C-SGA is a feasible practical tool for use in clinical practice. It demonstrated discriminative ability based on objective geriatric assessment measures, but additional investigations on use for clinical decision-making are warranted. The SAKK C-SGA also provides important usable domain information for intervention to optimize outcomes in older cancer patients.

Survival of bonded lingual retainers with chemical or photo polymerization over a 2-year period: a single-center, randomized controlled clinical trial

INTRODUCTION The objective of this trial was to compare the survival rates of mandibular lingual retainers bonded with either chemically cured or light-cured adhesive after orthodontic treatment. METHODS Patients having undergone orthodontic treatment at a private orthodontic office were randomly allocated to fixed retainers placed with chemically cured composite or light-cured composite. Eligibility criteria included no active caries, restorations, or fractures on the mandibular anterior teeth, and adequate oral hygiene. The main outcome was any type of first-time lingual retainer breakage; pattern of failure (adapted adhesive remnant index scores) was a secondary outcome. Randomization was accomplished with random permuted blocks of 20 patients with allocation concealed in sequentially numbered, opaque, sealed envelopes. Blinding was applicable for outcome assessment only. Patients were reviewed at 1, 3, and 6 months and then every 6 months after placement of the retainer until completion of the study. Data were analyzed using survival analysis including Cox regression; sensitivity analysis was carried out after data imputation for subjects lost to follow-up. RESULTS Two hundred twenty patients (median age, 16 years; interquartile range, 2; range, 12-47 years) were randomized in a 1:1 ratio to either chemical or light curing. Baseline characteristics were similar between groups, the median follow-up period was 2.19 years (range, 0.003-3.64 years), and 16 patients were lost to follow-up. At a minimum follow-up of 2 years, 47 of 110 (42.7%) and 55 of 110 (50.0%) retainers had some type of failure with chemically cured and light-cured adhesive, respectively (log-rank test, P = 0.35). Data were analyzed on an intention-to-treat basis, and the hazard ratio (HR) was 1.15 (95% confidence interval [CI], 0.88-1.70; P = 0.47). There was weak evidence that age is a significant predictor for lingual retainer failures (HR, 0.96; 95% CI, 0.93-1.00; P = 0.08). Adhesive remnant index scoring was possible for only 66 of the 102 (64.7%) failures and did not differ between composites (Fisher exact test, P = 0.16). No serious harm was observed other than gingivitis associated with plaque accumulation. CONCLUSIONS The results of this study indicated no evidence that survival of mandibular lingual retainers differs between chemically and light-cured adhesives. The overall failure rate was 46.4%; however, this included any type of failure, which may have exaggerated the overall failure rate.

Cluster randomized clinical trials in orthodontics: design, analysis and reporting issues

Cluster randomized trials (CRTs) use as the unit of randomization clusters, which are usually defined as a collection of individuals sharing some common characteristics. Common examples of clusters include entire dental practices, hospitals, schools, school classes, villages, and towns. Additionally, several measurements (repeated measurements) taken on the same individual at different time points are also considered to be clusters. In dentistry, CRTs are applicable as patients may be treated as clusters containing several individual teeth. CRTs require certain methodological procedures during sample calculation, randomization, data analysis, and reporting, which are often ignored in dental research publications. In general, due to similarity of the observations within clusters, each individual within a cluster provides less information compared with an individual in a non-clustered trial. Therefore, clustered designs require larger sample sizes compared with non-clustered randomized designs, and special statistical analyses that account for the fact that observations within clusters are correlated. It is the purpose of this article to highlight with relevant examples the important methodological characteristics of cluster randomized designs as they may be applied in orthodontics and to explain the problems that may arise if clustered observations are erroneously treated and analysed as independent (non-clustered).

Characteristics of visual hallucinations in Parkinson disease dementia and dementia with Lewy bodies

OBJECTIVE Parkinson disease dementia (PDD) and dementia with Lewy bodies (DLB) have overlapping clinical and pathologic features. Recurrent visual hallucinations (RVH) are common in both disorders. The authors have compared details of hallucination characteristics and associated neuropsychiatric features in DLB and PDD. METHODS This is a descriptive, cross-sectional study using the Institute of Psychiatry Visual Hallucinations Interview (IP-VHI) to explore self-reported frequency, duration, and phenomenology of RVH in PDD and DLB. The caregivers' ratings of hallucinations and other neuropsychiatric features were elicited with the Neuropsychiatric Inventory (NPI). RESULTS Fifty-six patients (35 PDD; 21 DLB) with RVH were assessed. Hallucination characteristics were similar in both disorders. Simple hallucinations were rare. Most patients experienced complex hallucinations daily, normally lasting minutes. They commonly saw people or animals and the experiences were usually perceived as unpleasant. NPI anxiety scores were higher in PDD. Neuropsychiatric symptoms coexisting with hallucinations were apathy, sleep disturbance, and anxiety. CONCLUSIONS Patients with mild to moderate dementia can provide detailed information about their hallucinations. Characteristics of RVH were similar in PDD and DLB, and phenomenology suggests the involvement of dorsal and ventral visual pathways in their generation. The coexistence of RVH with anxiety, apathy, and sleep disturbance is likely to impair patients' quality of life and may have treatment implications.

Adjudication-related processes are underreported and lack standardization in clinical trials of venous thromboembolism: a systematic review

OBJECTIVES Although the use of an adjudication committee (AC) for outcomes is recommended in randomized controlled trials, there are limited data on the process of adjudication. We therefore aimed to assess whether the reporting of the adjudication process in venous thromboembolism (VTE) trials meets existing quality standards and which characteristics of trials influence the use of an AC. STUDY DESIGN AND SETTING We systematically searched MEDLINE and the Cochrane Library from January 1, 2003, to June 1, 2012, for randomized controlled trials on VTE. We abstracted information about characteristics and quality of trials and reporting of adjudication processes. We used stepwise backward logistic regression model to identify trial characteristics independently associated with the use of an AC. RESULTS We included 161 trials. Of these, 68.9% (111 of 161) reported the use of an AC. Overall, 99.1% (110 of 111) of trials with an AC used independent or blinded ACs, 14.4% (16 of 111) reported how the adjudication decision was reached within the AC, and 4.5% (5 of 111) reported on whether the reliability of adjudication was assessed. In multivariate analyses, multicenter trials [odds ratio (OR), 8.6; 95% confidence interval (CI): 2.7, 27.8], use of a data safety-monitoring board (OR, 3.7; 95% CI: 1.2, 11.6), and VTE as the primary outcome (OR, 5.7; 95% CI: 1.7, 19.4) were associated with the use of an AC. Trials without random allocation concealment (OR, 0.3; 95% CI: 0.1, 0.8) and open-label trials (OR, 0.3; 95% CI: 0.1, 1.0) were less likely to report an AC. CONCLUSION Recommended processes of adjudication are underreported and lack standardization in VTE-related clinical trials. The use of an AC varies substantially by trial characteristics.

Analysis of clonality and antibiotic resistance among early clinical isolates of Enterococcus faecium in the United States.

BACKGROUND: The Enterococcus faecium genogroup, referred to as clonal complex 17 (CC17), seems to possess multiple determinants that increase its ability to survive and cause disease in nosocomial environments. METHODS: Using 53 clinical and geographically diverse US E. faecium isolates dating from 1971 to 1994, we determined the multilocus sequence type; the presence of 16 putative virulence genes (hyl(Efm), esp(Efm), and fms genes); resistance to ampicillin (AMP) and vancomycin (VAN); and high-level resistance to gentamicin and streptomycin. RESULTS: Overall, 16 different sequence types (STs), mostly CC17 isolates, were identified in 9 different regions of the United States. The earliest CC17 isolates were part of an outbreak that occurred in 1982 in Richmond, Virginia. The characteristics of CC17 isolates included increases in resistance to AMP, the presence of hyl(Efm) and esp(Efm), emergence of resistance to VAN, and the presence of at least 13 of 14 fms genes. Eight of 41 of the early isolates with resistance to AMP, however, were not in CC17. CONCLUSIONS: Although not all early US AMP isolates were clonally related, E. faecium CC17 isolates have been circulating in the United States since at least 1982 and appear to have progressively acquired additional virulence and antibiotic resistance determinants, perhaps explaining the recent success of this species in the hospital environment.

Distribution of genes encoding MSCRAMMs and Pili in clinical and natural populations of Enterococcus faecium.

Enterococcus faecium has recently emerged as an important cause of nosocomial infections. We previously identified 15 predicted surface proteins with characteristics of MSCRAMMs and/or pili and demonstrated that their genes were frequently present in 30 clinical E. faecium isolates studied; one of these, acm, has been studied in further detail. To determine the prevalence of the other 14 genes among various E. faecium populations, we have now assessed 433 E. faecium isolates, including 264 isolates from human clinical infections, 69 isolates from stools of hospitalized patients, 70 isolates from stools of community volunteers, and 30 isolates from animal-related sources. A variable distribution of the 14 genes was detected, with their presence ranging from 51% to 98% of isolates. While 81% of clinical isolates carried 13 or 14 of the 14 genes tested, none of the community group isolates and only 13% of animal isolates carried 13 or 14 genes. The presence of these genes was most frequent in endocarditis isolates, with 11 genes present in all isolates, followed by isolates from other clinical sources. The number of genes significantly associated with clinical versus fecal or animal origin (P = 0.04 to <0.0001) varied from 10 to 13, depending on whether comparisons were made against individual clinical subgroups (endocarditis, blood, and other clinical isolates) or against all clinical isolates combined as one group. The strong association of these genes with clinical isolates raises the possibility that their preservation/acquisition has favored the adaptation of E. faecium to nosocomial environments and/or patients.

Clinical and microbiological aspects of linezolid resistance mediated by the cfr gene encoding a 23S rRNA methyltransferase.

The cfr (chloramphenicol-florfenicol resistance) gene encodes a 23S rRNA methyltransferase that confers resistance to linezolid. Detection of linezolid resistance was evaluated in the first cfr-carrying human hospital isolate of linezolid and methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (designated MRSA CM-05) by dilution and diffusion methods (including Etest). The presence of cfr was investigated in isolates of staphylococci colonizing the patient's household contacts and clinical isolates recovered from patients in the same unit where MRSA CM-05 was isolated. Additionally, 68 chloramphenicol-resistant Colombian MRSA isolates recovered from hospitals between 2001 and 2004 were screened for the presence of the cfr gene. In addition to erm(B), the erm(A) gene was also detected in CM-05. The isolate belonged to sequence type 5 and carried staphylococcal chromosomal cassette mec type I. We were unable to detect the cfr gene in any of the human staphylococci screened (either clinical or colonizing isolates). Agar and broth dilution methods detected linezolid resistance in CM-05. However, the Etest and disk diffusion methods failed to detect resistance after 24 h of incubation. Oxazolidinone resistance mediated by the cfr gene is rare, and acquisition by a human isolate appears to be a recent event in Colombia. The detection of cfr-mediated linezolid resistance might be compromised by the use of the disk diffusion or Etest method.