Prevalence and levels of IgG and IgM antibodies against Plasmodium falciparum and P. vivax in blood donors from Rondônia, Brazilian Amazon

Antibodies of IgG and IgM isotopes reacting with Plasmodium falciparum and P. vivax thick-smear antigens were searched for by the indirect fluorescent antibody test (IFAT) in a random sample of 230 blood donors at the transfusion centre of Porto Velho (HEMERON), Rondônia State, western Brazilian Amazon. A high prevalence of IgG seropositivity (32% against P. falciparum, 24% against P. vivax and 37% against either P. falciparum or P. vivax antigens) was detected among them, despite the fact that candidates reporting recent (<12 months) malaria attacks were not elegible. Only a small proportion of them had also detectable IgM antibodies to these antigens. These data suggest an intense, relatively recent exposure to malaria in such an urban population sample. However, parasitaemia (as detected by microscopical examination of Giemsa-stained thick smears) was patent in only one prospective donor. The antibody profile of blood donors was compared with that of healthy subjects of all age groups, living in a close endemic area (Candeias village, 21 km east of Porto Velho). The villagers were classified into two groups according to their history of a recent (<12 months) or a remote (>12 months) past malaria attack due to either P. falciparum or P. vivax. Extensive overlapping was observed when the distribution of antibody titres of healthy subjects from Candeias village with a recent and remote malaria history was compared. In conclusion, subjects with a recent or a remote malaria history could not be distinguished by sorological criteria alone.

Evidence for multiple B- and T-cell epitopes in Plasmodium falciparum liver-stage antigen 3.

Liver-stage antigen 3 (LSA-3) is a new vaccine candidate that can induce protection against Plasmodium falciparum sporozoite challenge. Using a series of long synthetic peptides (LSP) encompassing most of the 210-kDa LSA-3 protein, a study of the antigenicity of this protein was carried out in 203 inhabitants from the villages of Dielmo (n = 143) and Ndiop (n = 60) in Senegal (the level of malaria transmission differs in these two villages). Lymphocyte responses to each individual LSA-3 peptide were recorded, some at high prevalences (up to 43%). Antibodies were also detected to each of the 20 peptides, many at high prevalence (up to 84% of responders), and were directed to both nonrepeat and repeat regions. Immune responses to LSA-3 were detectable even in individuals of less than 5 years of age and increased with age and hence exposure to malaria, although they were not directly related to the level of malaria transmission. Thus, several valuable T- and B-cell epitopes were characterized all along the LSA-3 protein, supporting the antigenicity of this P. falciparum vaccine candidate. Finally, antibodies specific for peptide LSP10 located in a nonrepeat region of LSA-3 were found significantly associated with a lower risk of malaria attack over 1 year of daily clinical follow-up in children between the ages of 7 and 15 years, but not in older individuals.

Capillaria hepatica: a cause of septal fibrosis of the liver

Fine, long, fibrous septa were observed as a late change developing in the acinar zone III of the liver of rats experimentally infected with the helminth Capillaria hepatica. Hepatic septal fibrosis begun 30 days after inoculation of embryonated eggs into the stomach of rats and became clearly evident from the 40th day onwards. Experimental observation was undertaken for 170 days. Septal fibrosis increased progressively with time and was most marked when the parasitic nodules formed around larvae, disintegrating worms and eggs were involving. Septal fibrosis of the liver has not been previously recognized as a manifestation of hepatic capillariasis. The presence of sequestered parasite antigens, probably being slowly released within the liver, appears to be a major factor in the pathogenesis of hepatic septal fibrosis observed in rats with C. hepatica infection.

Rapid bacterial genome sequencing: methods and applications in clinical microbiology.

The recent advances in sequencing technologies have given all microbiology laboratories access to whole genome sequencing. Providing that tools for the automated analysis of sequence data and databases for associated meta-data are developed, whole genome sequencing will become a routine tool for large clinical microbiology laboratories. Indeed, the continuing reduction in sequencing costs and the shortening of the 'time to result' makes it an attractive strategy in both research and diagnostics. Here, we review how high-throughput sequencing is revolutionizing clinical microbiology and the promise that it still holds. We discuss major applications, which include: (i) identification of target DNA sequences and antigens to rapidly develop diagnostic tools; (ii) precise strain identification for epidemiological typing and pathogen monitoring during outbreaks; and (iii) investigation of strain properties, such as the presence of antibiotic resistance or virulence factors. In addition, recent developments in comparative metagenomics and single-cell sequencing offer the prospect of a better understanding of complex microbial communities at the global and individual levels, providing a new perspective for understanding host-pathogen interactions. Being a high-resolution tool, high-throughput sequencing will increasingly influence diagnostics, epidemiology, risk management, and patient care.

A simple and economic slide micro-immunoenzymatic (Micro-SIA) test for epidemiological studies of toxoplasmosis

A slide micro-immunoenzymatic assay (micro-SIA) to detectantibodies to non-particulate Toxoplasma gondii antigens is described. This assay allows the diagnosis of toxoplasmosis infection in about 1 hr. Twenty-four determinations can be performed per slide. Five hundred ng of antigen and 5 or 10 µl drop of each reactive are necessary per well. The clear contrast of colours obtained for negative and positive sera after the test is finished, allows direct discrimination of the results. However, it is possible to quantify the results of the reaction using a minireader. Sera dilution cutoff value, determined as themost frequent titre for the general population, is 1:100. The toxoplasma micro-SIA correlates well with indirect immunofluorescence (IIF), its sensitivity is atleast three times as much as IIF. The test has an intra and inter assay variation coefficient of 5.46 per cent and of 6.24 per cent respectively. Sera obtained at random from argentinian people were analyzed and a 56 per cent of infection was found. The main features of the Toxoplasma micro-SIA are its simplicity, sensitivity, reproducibility, and the virtual absence of background making it very suitable for screening tests.

Altered expression of CD44 and DKK1 in the progression of Barrett's esophagus to esophageal adenocarcinoma.

Barrett's esophagus (BE) is an acquired condition in which the normal lining of the esophagus is replaced by intestinal metaplastic epithelium. BE can evolve to esophageal adenocarcinoma (EAC) through low-grade dysplasia (LGD) and high-grade dysplasia (HGD). The only generally accepted marker for increased risk of EAC is the presence of HGD, diagnosed on endoscopic biopsies. More specific markers for the prediction of EAC risk are needed. A tissue microarray was constructed comprising tissue samples from BE, LGD, HGD, and EAC. Marker expression was studied by immunohistochemistry using antibodies against CD44, DKK1, CDX2, COX2, SOX9, OCT1, E-cadherin, and beta-catenin. Immunostaining was evaluated semi-quantitatively. CD44 expression decreased in HGD and EAC relative to BE and LGD. DKK1 expression increased in HGD and EAC relative to BE and LDG. CDX2 expression increased in HGD but decreased in EAC. COX2 expression decreased in EAC, and SOX9 expression increased only in the upper crypt epithelial cells in HGD. E-cadherin expression decreased in EAC. Nuclear beta-catenin was not significantly different between BE, LGD, and HGD. Loss of CD44 and gain of DKK1 expression characterizes progression from BE and LGD to HGD and EAC, and their altered expression might indicate an increased risk for developing an EAC. This observation warrants inclusion of these immunohistochemically detectable markers in a study with a long patient follow-up.

The antibody response in mice to carrier-free synthetic polymers of Plasmodium falciparum circumsporozoite repetitive epitope is I-Ab-restricted: possible implications for malaria vaccines.

The immunogenicity of a novel synthetic peptide consisting of an average of 40 (Asn-Ala-Asn-Pro) repeats of the circumsporozoite protein of Plasmodium falciparum, (NANP)40, was studied in mice without using any carrier proteins. First, high titers of anti-(NANP)40 antibodies could be obtained after immunization of C57BL/6 mice. These antibodies also reacted with an extract of mosquitoes infected with P. falciparum sporozoites. C57BL/6 nu/nu mice did not produce antibodies against (NANP)40. Secondly, when 14 strains of mice with nine different H-2 haplotypes were immunized with (NANP)40 without carrier, only H-2b mice were found to produce anti-(NANP)40 antibodies, whereas all non-H-2b mice were consistently unresponsive. This response was demonstrated to be I-A-linked by using recombinant and mutant mice. I-Ab [B10.A(5R)] mice produced anti-(NANP)40 antibodies as well as H-2b inbred mice. B6CH-2bm12 I-Ab-mutant mice showed only a very low response. Third, the antibody response against (NANP)40 could be induced in nonresponder mice by immunization with the peptide coupled to a carrier protein. In view of the existence of such an exceptional H-2b restriction in the response to sporozoite synthetic peptides in mice, the triggering of peptide-specific T cell responses in humans receiving sporozoite malaria vaccines might be difficult to achieve.

IL-13 induces expression of CD36 in human monocytes through PPARgamma activation.

The class B scavenger receptor CD36 is a component of the pattern recognition receptors on monocytes that recognizes a variety of molecules. CD36 expression in monocytes depends on exposure to soluble mediators. We demonstrate here that CD36 expression is induced in human monocytes following exposure to IL-13, a Th2 cytokine, via the peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor (PPAR)gamma pathway. Induction of CD36 protein was paralleled by an increase in CD36 mRNA. The PPARgamma pathway was demonstrated using transfection of a PPARgamma expression plasmid into the murine macrophage cell line RAW264.7, expressing very low levels of PPARgamma, and in peritoneal macrophages from PPARgamma-conditional null mice. We also show that CD36 induction by IL-13 via PPARgamma is dependent on phospholipase A2 activation and that IL-13 induces the production of endogenous 15-deoxy-Delta12,14-prostaglandin J2, an endogenous PPARgamma ligand, and its nuclear localization in human monocytes. Finally, we demonstrate that CD36 and PPARgamma are involved in IL-13-mediated phagocytosis of Plasmodium falciparum-parasitized erythrocytes. These results reveal a novel role for PPARgamma in the alternative activation of monocytes by IL-13, suggesting that endogenous PPARgamma ligands, produced by phospholipase A2 activation, could contribute to the biochemical and cellular functions of CD36.

Mono-allelic Ly49 NK cell receptor expression.

Each cell is equipped with two copies (alleles) of each autosomal gene. While the vast majority use both alleles, occasional genes are expressed from a single allele. The reason for mono-allelic expression is not always evident and can serve distinct purposes. First, it may facilitate the tight control over the dosage of certain gene products such as some growth factors and their receptors or X-linked genes. Second, the differential usage of the two parental alleles may reflect the mechanisms that ensure mono-specificity, e.g. olfactory receptors, T and B cell receptors. The context of allele-specific expression of the murine Ly49 natural killer (NK) cell receptor genes suggests that their allele-specific expression reflects a process that generates clonal variability.

Development and selection of NKT cells.

NKT cells utilize a restricted alphabeta TCR repertoire that recognizes glycolipids in association with CD1d. The recent development of fluorescent CD1d tetramers loaded with the synthetic glycolipid alpha-galactosyl-ceramide has led to a clearer definition of NKT-cell subsets as well as important insights into their developmental origin. As many as four subsets may exist, differing in NK1.1 expression, TCR repertoire and dependence on CD1d and various glycolipids for development. Two different lineage-commitment models have been proposed, with most evidence favoring a byproduct of conventional-T-cell development.

Amino acid identity and/or position determines the proteasomal cleavage of the HLA-A*0201-restricted peptide tumor antigen MAGE-3271-279.

The proteasome plays a crucial role in the proteolytic processing of antigens presented to T cells in the context of major histocompatibility complex class I molecules. However, the rules governing the specificity of cleavage sites are still largely unknown. We have previously shown that a cytolytic T lymphocyte-defined antigenic peptide derived from the MAGE-3 tumor-associated antigen (MAGE-3(271-279), FLWGPRALV in one-letter code) is not presented at the surface of melanoma cell lines expressing the MAGE-3 protein. By using purified proteasome and MAGE-3(271-279) peptides extended at the C terminus by 6 amino acids, we identified predominant cleavages after residues 278 and 280 but no detectable cleavage after residue Val(279), the C terminus of the antigenic peptide. In the present study, we have investigated the influence of Pro(275), Leu(278), and Glu(280) on the proteasomal digestion of MAGE-3(271-285) substituted at these positions. We show that positions 278 and 280 are major proteasomal cleavage sites because they tolerate most amino acid substitutions. In contrast, the peptide bond after Val(279) is a minor cleavage site, influenced by both distal and proximal amino acid residues.

Antibody-conjugated MHC class I tetramers can target tumor cells for specific lysis by T lymphocytes.

To demonstrate that antibody-guided targeting of antigenic MHC class I-peptide tetramer on tumor cells can render them susceptible to lysis by relevant cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTL), biotinylated HLA-A*0201/Flu matrix peptide complexes were tetramerized on streptavidin molecules previously coupled to Fab' fragments from monoclonal antibodies (mAb) specific for cell surface markers such as carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA), ErbB-2 or CD20. Flow cytometry analysis showed that coating of the HLA-A2-peptide complexes on the four HLA-A2-negative human cancer lines tested (including a CEA-positive colon carcinoma, an ErbB-2(+) breast carcinoma and two CD20(+) B lymphomas) was entirely dependent upon the specificity of the conjugated antibody fragments. More importantly, HLA-A2-restricted Flu matrix peptide-specific CTL were then found to lyse specifically and efficiently the MHC-coated target cells. These results open the way to the development of new immunotherapy strategies based on antibody targeting of MHC class I-peptide complexes.

Selective induction of NK cell proliferation and cytotoxicity by activated NKT cells.

NK T cells produce cytokines when their semi-invariant TCR engages glycolipids associated with CD1d. The physiological consequences of NKT cell activation remain controversial, although they have been implicated in control of autoimmunity, parasites and tumors. We show here that specific activation of NKT cells in liver and spleen leads to a rapid induction of extensive NK cell proliferation and cytotoxicity. This NK cell activation is dependent, at least in part, on IFN-gamma production by NKT cells and IL-12 production by antigen-presenting cells. Remarkably, activation of NK cells by NKT cells is highly selective, since bystander T and B lymphocytes show transient expression of activation markers but almost no proliferation. Collectively our data suggest that CD1d-dependent NKT cells regulate innate immunity by sampling blood-borne glycolipid antigens and rapidly activating NK cells.