963 resultados para 6-59
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Introduction Recent reports have highlighted the prevalence of vitamin D deficiency and suggested an association with excess mortality in critically ill patients. Serum vitamin D concentrations in these studies were measured following resuscitation. It is unclear whether aggressive fluid resuscitation independently influences serum vitamin D. Methods Nineteen patients undergoing cardiopulmonary bypass were studied. Serum 25(OH)D3, 1α,25(OH)2D3, parathyroid hormone, C-reactive protein (CRP), and ionised calcium were measured at five defined timepoints: T1 - baseline, T2 - 5 minutes after onset of cardiopulmonary bypass (CPB) (time of maximal fluid effect), T3 - on return to the intensive care unit, T4 - 24 hrs after surgery and T5 - 5 days after surgery. Linear mixed models were used to compare measures at T2-T5 with baseline measures. Results Acute fluid loading resulted in a 35% reduction in 25(OH)D3 (59 ± 16 to 38 ± 14 nmol/L, P < 0.0001) and a 45% reduction in 1α,25(OH)2D3 (99 ± 40 to 54 ± 22 pmol/L P < 0.0001) and i(Ca) (P < 0.01), with elevation in parathyroid hormone (P < 0.0001). Serum 25(OH)D3 returned to baseline only at T5 while 1α,25(OH)2D3 demonstrated an overshoot above baseline at T5 (P < 0.0001). There was a delayed rise in CRP at T4 and T5; this was not associated with a reduction in vitamin D levels at these time points. Conclusions Hemodilution significantly lowers serum 25(OH)D3 and 1α,25(OH)2D3, which may take up to 24 hours to resolve. Moreover, delayed overshoot of 1α,25(OH)2D3 needs consideration. We urge caution in interpreting serum vitamin D in critically ill patients in the context of major resuscitation, and would advocate repeating the measurement once the effects of the resuscitation have abated.
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BACKGROUND Approximately 50% of patients with stage 3 Chronic Kidney Disease are 25-hydroxyvitamin D insufficient, and this prevalence increases with falling glomerular filtration rate. Vitamin D is now recognised as having pleiotropic roles beyond bone and mineral homeostasis, with the vitamin D receptor and metabolising machinery identified in multiple tissues. Worryingly, recent observational data has highlighted an association between hypovitaminosis D and increased cardiovascular mortality, possibly mediated via vitamin D effects on insulin resistance and inflammation. The main hypothesis of this study is that oral Vitamin D supplementation will ameliorate insulin resistance in patients with Chronic Kidney Disease stage 3 when compared to placebo. Secondary hypotheses will test whether this is associated with decreased inflammation and bone/adipocyte-endocrine dysregulation. METHODS/DESIGN This study is a single-centre, double-blinded, randomised, placebo-controlled trial. Inclusion criteria include; estimated glomerular filtration rate 30-59 ml/min/1.73 m(2); aged >or=18 on entry to study; and serum 25-hydroxyvitamin D levels <75 nmol/L. Patients will be randomised 1:1 to receive either oral cholecalciferol 2000IU/day or placebo for 6 months. The primary outcome will be an improvement in insulin sensitivity, measured by hyperinsulinaemic euglycaemic clamp. Secondary outcome measures will include serum parathyroid hormone, cytokines (Interleukin-1beta, Interleukin-6, Tumour Necrosis Factor alpha), adiponectin (total and High Molecular Weight), osteocalcin (carboxylated and under-carboxylated), peripheral blood mononuclear cell Nuclear Factor Kappa-B p65 binding activity, brachial artery reactivity, aortic pulse wave velocity and waveform analysis, and indirect calorimetry. All outcome measures will be performed at baseline and end of study. DISCUSSION To date, no randomised controlled trial has been performed in pre-dialysis CKD patients to study the correlation between vitamin D status with supplementation, insulin resistance and markers of adverse cardiovascular risk. We remain hopeful that cholecalciferol may be a safe intervention, with health benefits beyond those related to bone-mineral homeostasis. TRIAL REGISTRATION Australian and New Zealand Clinical Trials Registry ACTRN12609000246280.
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Plants are rooted to their growth place; therefore it is important that they react adequately to changes in environmental conditions. Stomatal pores, which are formed of a pair of guard cells in leaf epidermis, regulate plant gas-exchange. Importantly, guard cells protect the plant from desiccation in drought conditions by reducing the aperture of the stomatal pore. They serve also as the first barrier against the major air pollutant ozone, but the behaviour of guard cells during ozone exposure has not been sufficiently addressed. Aperture of the stomatal pore is regulated by the influx and efflux of osmotically active ions via ion channels and transporters across the guard cell membrane, however the molecular identity of guard cell plasma membrane anion channel has remained unknown. In the frame of this study, guard cell behaviour during ozone exposure was studied using the newly constructed Arabidopsis whole-rosette gas-exchange system. Ozone induced a Rapid Transient Decrease (RTD) in stomatal conductance within 10 min from the start of exposure, which was followed by a recovery in the conductance within the next 40 min. The decrease in stomatal conductance was dependent on the applied ozone concentration. Three minutes of ozone exposure was sufficient to induce RTD and further ozone application during the closure-recovery process had no effect on RTD, demonstrating that the whole process is programmed within the first three minutes. To address the molecular components responsible for RTD, the ozone response was measured in 59 different Arabidopsis mutants involved in guard cell signalling. Four of the tested mutants slac1 (originally rcd3), ost1, abi1-1 and abi2-1 lacked RTD completely. As the ozone sensitive mutant slac1 lacked RTD, the next aim of this study was to identify and characterize SLAC1. SLAC1 was shown to be a central regulator in response to all major factors regulating guard cell aperture: CO2, light/darkness transitions, ozone, relative air humidity, ABA, NO, H2O2, and extracellular Ca2+. It encodes the first guard cell plasma membrane slow type anion channel to be identified at the molecular level. Interestingly, the rapid type anion conductance was intact in slac1 mutant plants. For activation, SLAC1 needs to be phosphorylated. Protein kinase OST1 was shown to phosphorylate several amino acids in the N-terminal tail of SLAC1, Ser120 was one of its main targets, which led to SLAC1 activation. The lack of RTD in type 2C protein phosphatase mutants abi1-1 and abi2-1, suggests that these proteins have a regulatory role in ozoneinduced activation of the slow type anion channel.
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A new tripodal flexible ligand (L) containing pyrazolyl functionality has been prepared and successfully used to obtain a pd(6) (1) molecular double-square and a cu(3) trigonalbipyramidal cage (2), where complex 1 represents the first example of a double-square obtained using a flexible tripodal ligand.
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Two new neutral copper-azido polymers [Cu-3(N-3)(6)(tmen)(2)](n)(1)and [Cu-6(N-3)(12)(deen)(2)](n) (2) [tmen = N,N,N, N-tetramethylethylenediamine and deen = N,N-diethylethylenediamine] have been synthesized by using lower molar equivalents of the chelating diamine ligands with Cu(NO3)(2)center dot 3H(2)O and an excess of NaN3. The single crystal X-ray structure shows that in the basic unit of the 1D complex 1, the three Cu-II ions are linked by double end-on azido bridges with Cu-N-EO-Cu angles on both sides of the magnetic exchange critical angle of 108 degrees. Complex 2 is a 3D framework of a basic u-6 cluster. Cryomagnetic susceptibility measurements over a wide range of temperature exhibit dominant ferromagnetic behavior in both the complexes. Density functional theory calculations (B3LYP functional) have been performed on the trinuclear unit to provide a qualitative theoretical interpretation of the overall ferromagnetic behavior shown by the complex 1.
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In the molecular structure of the title compound, C21H25NO4, the dihydropyridine ring adopts a flattened boat conformation while the cyclohexenone ring is in an envelope conformation. In the crystal structure, molecules are linked into a two-dimensional network parallel to (10 (1) over bar) by N-H center dot center dot center dot O and O-H center dot center dot center dot O hydrogen bonds. The network is generated by R-4(4)(30) and R-4(4)(34) graph-set motifs.
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The quinoline fused-ring system of the title compound, C11H8ClNO2, is planar (r.m.s. deviation = 0.0095 angstrom); the formyl group is slightly bent out of this plane [C-C-C-O torsion angles = -2.4 (3) and 175.9 (2)degrees].
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In the title compound, C18H21NO3, the 1,4-dihydropyridine ring exhibits a flattened boat conformation. The methoxyphenyl ring is nearly planar [r.m.s. deviation = 0.0723 (1) angstrom] and is perpendicular to the base of the boat [dihedral angle = 88.98 (4)degrees]. Intermolecular N-H center dot center dot center dot O and C-H center dot center dot center dot O hydrogen bonds exist in the crystal structure.
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Viral infections caused by herpesviruses are common complications after organ transplantation and they are associated with substantial morbidity and even mortality. Herpesviruses remain in a latent state in a host after primary infection and may reactivate later. CMV infection is the most important viral infection after liver transplantation. Less is known about the significance of human herpesvirus-6 (HHV-6). EBV is believed to play a major role in the development of post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorders (PTLD). The aim of this study was to investigate the CMV-, EBV- and HHV-6 DNAemia after liver transplantation by frequent monitoring of adult liver transplant patients. The presence of CMV, EBV and HHV-6 DNA were demonstrated by in situ hybridization assays and by real-time PCR methods from peripheral blood specimens. CMV and HHV-6 antigens were demonstrated by antigenemia assays and compared to the viral DNAemia. The response to antiviral therapy was also investigated. CMV-DNAemia appeared earlier than CMV pp65-antigenemia after liver transplantation. CMV infections were treated with ganciclovir. However, most of the treated patients demonstrated persistence of CMV-DNA for up to several months. Continuous CMV-DNA expression of peripheral blood leukocytes showed that the virus is not eliminated by ganciclovir and recurrences can be expected during several months after liver transplantation. HHV-6 DNAemia / antigenemia was common and occurred usually within the first three months after liver transplantation together with CMV. The HHV-6 DNA expression in peripheral blood mononuclear cells correlated well with HHV-6 antigenemia. Antiviral treatment significantly decreased the number of HHV-6 DNA positive cells, demonstrating the response to ganciclovir treatment. Clinically silent EBV reactivations with low viral loads were relatively common after liver transplantation. These EBV-DNAemias usually appeared within the first three months after liver transplantation together with betaherpesviruses (CMV, HHV-6, HHV-7). One patient developed high EBV viral loads and developed PTLD. These results indicate that frequent monitoring of EBV-DNA levels can be useful to detect liver transplant patients at risk of developing PTLD.
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We provide a taxonomic redescription of the dasyurid marsupial Swamp Antechinus, Antechinus minimus (Geoffroy, 1803). In the past, A. minimus has been classified as two subspecies: the nominate A. minimus minimus (Geoffroy, 1803), which is found throughout much of Tasmania (including southern Bass Strait islands) and A. minimus maritimus (Finlayson, 1958), which is found on mainland Australia (as well as some near-coastal islands) and is patchily distributed in mostly coastal areas between South Gippsland (Victoria) and Robe (South Australia). Based on an assessment of morphology and DNA, we conclude that A. minimus is both distinctly different from all extant congeners and that the two existing subspecies of Swamp Antechinus are appropriately taxonomically characterised. In our genetic phylogenies, the Swamp Antechinus was monophyletic with respect to all 14 known extant congeners; moreover, A. minimus was well-positioned in a large clade, together with all four species in the Dusky Antechinus complex, to the exclusion of all other antechinus. Within A. minimus, between subspecies there were subtle morphological differences (A. m. maritimus skulls tend to be broader, with larger molar teeth, than A. m. minimus, but these differences were not significant); there was distinct, but only moderately deep genetic differences (3.9–4.5% at mtDNA) between A. minimus subspecies. Comparatively, across Bass Strait, the two subspecies of A. minimus are morphologically and genetically markedly less divergent than recently recognised species pairs within the Dusky Antechinus complex, found in Victoria (A. mimetes) and Tasmania (A. swainsonii) (9.4–11.6% divergent at mtDNA)
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The asymmetric unit of the title compound, C20H20ClNO2, contains two crystallographically independent molecules of similar geometry. The piperidine ring adopts a distorted boat conformation in both molecules, in which the N atom assumes an almost planar configuration.
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In the title compound,C18H14ClNO3,the dihydroquinolin-2-one ring system is almost planar (r.m.s.deviation = 0.033 angstrom).The carboxylate plane and the phenyl group are twisted away from the dihydroquinolin-2-one ring system by 50.3(1) and 64.9(1)degrees,respectively.In the crystal structure, inversion-related molecules form R-2(2)(8)dimers via pairs of N-H center dot center dot center dot O hydrogen bonds.
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Overview This report, published in conjunction with a summary overview of results of rounds 1–6, is the sixth in a series of laboratory-based evaluations of rapid diagnostic tests (RDTs) for malaria. It provides a comparative measure of their performance in a standardized way to distinguish between well and poorly performing tests. It can be used by malaria control programmes and guide WHO procurement recommendations for these diagnostic tools. The evaluation reported here was a joint project of the WHO Global Malaria Programme, the Foundation for Innovative New Diagnostics (FIND) and the United States Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) within the WHO-FIND Malaria RDT Evaluation Programme. The project was financed by FIND through a grant from UNITAID.
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Lidocaine is a widely used local anaesthetic agent that also has anti-arrhythmic effects. It is classified as a type Ib anti-arrhythmic agent and is used to treat ventricular tachycardia or ventricular fibrillation. Lidocaine is eliminated mainly by metabolism, and less than 5% is excreted unchanged in urine. Lidocaine is a drug with a medium to high extraction ratio, and its bioavailability is about 30%. Based on in vitro studies, the earlier understanding was that CYP3A4 is the major cytochrome P450 (CYP) enzyme involved in the metabolism of lidocaine. When this work was initiated, there was little human data on the effect of inhibitors of CYP enzymes on the pharmacokinetics of lidocaine. Because lidocaine has a low therapeutic index, medications that significantly inhibit lidocaine clearance (CL) could increase the risk of toxicity. These studies investigated the effects of some clinically important CYP1A2 and CYP3A4 inhibitors on the pharmacokinetics of lidocaine administered by different routes. All of the studies were randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled cross-over studies in two or three phases in healthy volunteers. Pretreatment with clinically relevant doses of CYP3A4 inhibitors erythromycin and itraconazole or CYP1A2 inhibitors fluvoxamine and ciprofloxacin was followed by a single dose of lidocaine. Blood samples were collected to determine the pharmacokinetic parameters of lidocaine and its main metabolites monoethylglycinexylidide (MEGX) and 3-hydroxylidocaine (3-OH-lidocaine). Itraconazole and erythromycin had virtually no effect on the pharmacokinetics of intravenous lidocaine, but erythromycin slightly prolonged the elimination half-life (t½) of lidocaine (Study I). When lidocaine was taken orally, both erythromycin and itraconazole increased the peak concentration (Cmax) and the area under the concentration-time curve (AUC) of lidocaine by 40-70% (Study II). Compared with placebo and itraconazole, erythromycin increased the Cmax and the AUC of MEGX by 40-70% when lidocaine was given intravenously or orally (Studies I and II). The pharmacokinetics of inhaled lidocaine was unaffected by concomitant administration of itraconazole (Study III). Fluvoxamine reduced the CL of intravenous lidocaine by 41% and prolonged the t½ of lidocaine by 35%. The mean AUC of lidocaine increased 1.7-fold (Study IV). After oral administration of lidocaine, the mean AUC of lidocaine in-creased 3-fold and the Cmax 2.2-fold by fluvoxamine (Study V). During the pretreatment with fluvoxamine combined with erythromycin, the CL of intravenous lidocaine was 53% smaller than during placebo and 21% smaller than during fluvoxamine alone. The t½ of lidocaine was significantly longer during the combination phase than during the placebo or fluvoxamine phase. The mean AUC of intravenous lidocaine increased 2.3-fold and the Cmax 1.4-fold (Study IV). After oral administration of lidocaine, the mean AUC of lidocaine increased 3.6-fold and the Cmax 2.5-fold by concomitant fluvoxamine and erythromycin. The t½ of oral lidocaine was significantly longer during the combination phase than during the placebo (Study V). When lidocaine was given intravenously, the combination of fluvoxamine and erythromycin prolonged the t½ of MEGX by 59% (Study IV). Compared with placebo, ciprofloxacin increased the mean Cmax and AUC of intravenous lidocaine by 12% and 26%, respectively. The mean plasma CL of lidocaine was reduced by 22% and its t½ prolonged by 7% (Study VI). These studies clarify the principal role of CYP1A2 and suggest only a modest role of CYP3A4 in the elimination of lidocaine in vivo. The inhibition of CYP1A2 by fluvoxamine considerably reduces the elimination of lidocaine. Concomitant use of fluvoxamine and the CYP3A4 inhibitor erythromycin further increases lidocaine concentrations. The clinical implication of this work is that clinicians should be aware of the potentially increased toxicity of lidocaine when used together with inhibitors of CYP1A2 and particularly with the combination of drugs inhibiting both CYP1A2 and CYP3A4 enzymes.
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Placental abruption, one of the most significant causes of perinatal mortality and maternal morbidity, occurs in 0.5-1% of pregnancies. Its etiology is unknown, but defective trophoblastic invasion of the spiral arteries and consequent poor vascularization may play a role. The aim of this study was to define the prepregnancy risk factors of placental abruption, to define the risk factors during the index pregnancy, and to describe the clinical presentation of placental abruption. We also wanted to find a biochemical marker for predicting placental abruption early in pregnancy. Among women delivering at the University Hospital of Helsinki in 1997-2001 (n=46,742), 198 women with placental abruption and 396 control women were identified. The overall incidence of placental abruption was 0.42%. The prepregnancy risk factors were smoking (OR 1.7; 95% CI 1.1, 2.7), uterine malformation (OR 8.1; 1.7, 40), previous cesarean section (OR 1.7; 1.1, 2.8), and history of placental abruption (OR 4.5; 1.1, 18). The risk factors during the index pregnancy were maternal (adjusted OR 1.8; 95% CI 1.1, 2.9) and paternal smoking (2.2; 1.3, 3.6), use of alcohol (2.2; 1.1, 4.4), placenta previa (5.7; 1.4, 23.1), preeclampsia (2.7; 1.3, 5.6) and chorioamnionitis (3.3; 1.0, 10.0). Vaginal bleeding (70%), abdominal pain (51%), bloody amniotic fluid (50%) and fetal heart rate abnormalities (69%) were the most common clinical manifestations of placental abruption. Retroplacental blood clot was seen by ultrasound in 15% of the cases. Neither bleeding nor pain was present in 19% of the cases. Overall, 59% went into preterm labor (OR 12.9; 95% CI 8.3, 19.8), and 91% were delivered by cesarean section (34.7; 20.0, 60.1). Of the newborns, 25% were growth restricted. The perinatal mortality rate was 9.2% (OR 10.1; 95% CI 3.4, 30.1). We then tested selected biochemical markers for prediction of placental abruption. The median of the maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) multiples of median (MoM) (1.21) was significantly higher in the abruption group (n=57) than in the control group (n=108) (1.07) (p=0.004) at 15-16 gestational weeks. In multivariate analysis, elevated MSAFP remained as an independent risk factor for placental abruption, adjusting for parity ≥ 3, smoking, previous placental abruption, preeclampsia, bleeding in II or III trimester, and placenta previa. MSAFP ≥ 1.5 MoM had a sensitivity of 29% and a false positive rate of 10%. The levels of the maternal serum free beta human chorionic gonadotrophin MoM did not differ between the cases and the controls. None of the angiogenic factors (soluble endoglin, soluble fms-like tyrosine kinase 1, or placental growth factor) showed any difference between the cases (n=42) and the controls (n=50) in the second trimester. The levels of C-reactive protein (CRP) showed no difference between the cases (n=181) and the controls (n=261) (median 2.35 mg/l [interquartile range {IQR} 1.09-5.93] versus 2.28 mg/l [IQR 0.92-5.01], not significant) when tested in the first trimester (mean 10.4 gestational weeks). Chlamydia pneumoniae specific immunoglobulin G (IgG) and immunoglobulin A (IgA) as well as C. trachomatis specific IgG, IgA and chlamydial heat-shock protein 60 antibody rates were similar between the groups. In conclusion, although univariate analysis identified many prepregnancy risk factors for placental abruption, only smoking, uterine malformation, previous cesarean section and history of placental abruption remained significant by multivariate analysis. During the index pregnancy maternal alcohol consumption and smoking and smoking by the partner turned out to be the major independent risk factors for placental abruption. Smoking by both partners multiplied the risk. The liberal use of ultrasound examination contributed little to the management of women with placental abruption. Although second-trimester MSAFP levels were higher in women with subsequent placental abruption, clinical usefulness of this test is limited due to low sensitivity and high false positive rate. Similarly, angiogenic factors in early second trimester, or CRP levels, or chlamydial antibodies in the first trimester failed to predict placental abruption.