Innate immune surveillance of spontaneous B cell lymphomas by natural killer cells and gamma delta T cells

Few studies have demonstrated that innate lymphocytes play a major role in preventing spontaneous tumor formation. We evaluated the development of spontaneous tumors in mice lacking beta-2 microglobulin (beta2m; and thus MHC class I, CD1d, and CD16) and/or perform, since these tumor cells would be expected to activate innate effector cells. Approximately half the cohort of perform gene-targeted mice succumbed to spontaneous disseminated B cell lymphomas and in mice that also lacked beta2m, the lymphomas developed earlier (by more than 100 d) and with greater incidence (84%). B cell lymphomas from perforin/beta2m gene-targeted mice effectively primed cell-mediated cytotoxicity and perform, but not IFN-gamma, IL-12, or IL-18, was absolutely essential for tumor rejection. Activated NK1.1(+) and gammadeltaTCR(+) T cells were abundant at the tumor site, and transplanted tumors were strongly rejected by either, or both, of these cell types. Blockade of a number of different known costimulatory pathways failed to prevent tumor rejection. These results reflect a critical role for NK cells and gammadeltaTCP(+) T cells in innate immune surveillance of B cell lymphomas, mediated by as yet undetermined pathway(s) of tumor recognition.

Firing properties and connectivity of neurons in the rat lateral central nucleus of the amygdala

Using whole cell recordings from acute slices of the rat amygdala, we have examined the physiological properties of and synaptic connectivity to neurons in the lateral sector of the central amygdala (CeA). Based on their response to depolarizing current injections, CeA neurons could be divided into three types. Adapting neurons fired action potentials at the start of the current injections at high frequency and then showed complete spike-frequency adaptation with only six to seven action potentials evoked with suprathreshold current injections. Late-firing neurons fired action potentials with a prolonged delay at threshold but then discharged continuously with larger current injections. Repetitive firers discharged at the start of the current injection at threshold and then discharged continuously with larger current injections. All three cells showed prolonged afterhyperpolarizations (AHPs) that followed trains of action potentials. The AHP was longer lasting with a larger slow component in adapting neurons. The AHP in all cell types contained a fast component that was inhibited by the SK channel blocker UCL1848. The slow component, not blocked by UCL1848, was blocked by isoprenaline and was significantly larger in adapting neurons. Blockade of SK channels increased the discharge frequency in late firers and regular-spiking neurons but had no effect on adapting neurons. Blockade of the slow AHP with isoprenaline had no effect on any cell type. All cells received a mixed glutamatergic and GABAergic input from a medial pathway. Electrical stimulation of the lateral (LA) and basolateral (BLA)nuclei evoked a large monosynaptic glutamatergic response followed by a disynaptic inhibitory postsynaptic potential. Activation of neurons in the LA and BLA by puffer application of glutamate evoked a small monosynaptic response in 13 of 55 CeA neurons. Local application of glutamate to the CeL evoked a GABAergic response in all cells. These results show that at least three types of neurons are present in the CeA that can be distinguished on their firing properties. The firing frequency of two of these cell types is determined by activation of SK channels. Cells receive a small input from the LA and BLA but may receive inputs that course through these nuclei en route to the CeA.

Signal Transduction, Plasma Membrane Calcium Movements, and Pigment Translocation in Freshwater Shrimp Chromatophores

Crustacean color change results from the differential translocation of chromatophore pigments, regulated by neurosecretory peptides like red pigment concentrating hormone (RPCH) that, in the red ovarian chromatophores of the freshwater shrimp Macrobrachium olfersi, triggers pigment aggregation via increased cytosolic cGMP and Ca(2+) of both smooth endoplasmatic reticulum (SER) and extracellular origin. However, Ca(2+) movements during RPCH signaling and the mechanisms that regulate intracellular [Ca(2+)] are enigmatic. We investigate Ca(2+) transporters in the chromatophore plasma membrane and Ca(2+) movements that occur during RPCH signal transduction. Inhibition of the plasma membrane Ca(2+)-ATPase by La(3+) and indirect inhibition of the Na(+)/Ca(2+) exchanger by ouabain induce pigment aggregation, revealing a role for both in Ca(2+) extrusion. Ca(2+) channel blockade by La(3+) or Cd(2+) strongly inhibits slow-phase RPCH-triggered aggregation during which pigments disperse spontaneously. L-type Ca(2+) channel blockade by gabapentin markedly reduces rapid-phase translocation velocity; N- or P/Q-type blockade by omega-conotoxin MVIIC strongly inhibits RPCH-triggered aggregation and reduces velocity, effects revealing RPCH-signaled influx of extracellular Ca(2+). Plasma membrane depolarization, induced by increasing external K(+) from 5 to 50 mM, produces Ca(2+)-dependent pigment aggregation, whereas removal of K(+) from the perfusate causes pigment hyperdispersion, disclosing a clear correlation between membrane depolarization and pigment aggregation; K(+) channel blockade by Ba(2+) also partially inhibits RPCH action. We suggest that, during RPCH signal transduction, Ca(2+) released from the SER, together with K(+) channel closure, causes chromatophore membrane depolarization, leading to the opening of predominantly N- and/or P/Q-type voltage-gated Ca(2+) channels, and a Ca(2+)/cGMP cascade, resulting in pigment aggregation. J. Exp. Zool. 313A:605-617, 2010. (C) 2010 Wiley-Liss, Inc.

Gestational diabetes mellitus: From consensus to action on screening and treatment

The 1998 consensus guidelines on the management of gestational diabetes mellitus from the Australasian Diabetes in Pregnancy Society emphasised that, “due to a lack of good quality randomised controlled clinical trials in the area of [gestational diabetes mellitus], these guidelines are based on what is a reasonable consensus of informed opinion in Australasia”.1 The clear benefits of treating women with gestational diabetes according to these guidelines have now been demonstrated by the Australian Carbohydrate Intolerance Study in Pregnant Women (ACHOIS).2 This study randomised 1000 women with gestational diabetes to either routine antenatal care or to an intervention that comprised home glucose monitoring, review by a diabetes educator, dietitian and physician, and insulin therapy if glycaemic targets were not met. Serious adverse perinatal outcomes occurred in 1% of the intervention group versus 4% of the routine-care group (adjusted relative risk, 0.33 [95% CI, 0.14–0.75]). The percentage of infants who were large for gestational age was lower in the intervention group (13% v 22%), with no increase in those who were small for gestational age. Although induction of labour was more common in the intervention group (39% v 29%), rates of caesarean delivery were similar (around 31%). Measures of maternal quality of life were more favourable in the intervention group. To prevent one serious perinatal outcome, 34 women needed to be treated. The 1998 guidelines were equivocal in regard to screening for gestational diabetes, allowing either for universal screening or for selective screening based on clinical risk factors in relatively lowrisk populations. In the light of the findings of ACHOIS, we believe that universal screening should now be accepted and implemented.

Inhibition of NF kappa B leads to an intracellular reducing environment in human monocyte-derived immature dendritic cells

Inhibition of NFkB by the compound Bay 11–7082 (Bay) induces tolerogenic properties in dendritic cells (DC). While activation of NFkB can be induced by reactive oxygen species (ROS) and thiol/disulfide redox states, the consequences of NFkB blockade on ROS/redox state is not known. To generate immature DC, monocytes were cultured in GM-CSF and IL-4 (with or without Bay) for 48 h. Genes potentially involved in redox regulation were determined using microarray technology and validated using FACS, real-time PCR or western blotting. ROS were measured using two fluorescent dyes DHR-123 and DHE (to detect H2O2 or O2 respectively). We found increased expression of genes associated with reductants such as thioredoxin reductase (TrxR1) and glutathione (GSH), although those associated with the breakdown of H2O2 such as glutathione peroxidase, peroxiredoxins and catalase were decreased. Interestingly, Bay-treated DC produced less ROS in comparison to control DC under basal conditions and following stimulation with various pro-oxidants. In conclusion, Bay-treated DC display not only tolerogenic properties but also an intracellular reducing environment and an impaired ability to produce ROS. We are currently investigating whether exogenous ROS can interfere with the tolerogenic properties of Bay-treated DC.

Prevalence of Epilepsy in Children From a Brazilian Area of High Deprivation

This study assessed the prevalence rate of epilepsy and its causes in children and adolescents in one area of high deprivation in Sao Paulo, Sao Paulo, in Southeast Brazil. Between July 2005 and June 2006, 4947 families from a population of 22,013 inhabitants (including 10,405 children and adolescents between the ages of 0 and 16 years) living in the shantytown of Paraisopolis, were interviewed. In the first phase, a validated questionnaire was administered, to identify the occurrence of seizures. In the second phase, clinical history, neurologic examination, electroencephalography, and structural neuroimaging were performed. The diagnosis of epilepsy, including etiology, seizure types, and epileptic syndrome classification, was according to criteria of the International League Against Epilepsy. The screening phase identified 353 presumptive cases. In the second phase, 101 of these cases (33.8%) received the diagnosis of epilepsy. Crude prevalence of epilepsy was 9.7/1000 and prevalence of active epilepsy was 8.7/1000. Partial seizures were the most frequent seizure type (62/101). Symptomatic focal epilepsy was the most common form, and hypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy the most common etiology, reflecting the socioeconomic conditions of this specific population. Adequate public policies regarding perinatal assistance could help reduce the prevalence of epilepsy. (C) 2010 by Elsevier Inc. All rights reserved.

Could the Leukocyte X Chromosome Inactivation Pattern Be Extrapolated to Hair Bulbs?

Background: The androgen receptor gene is located on the X chromosome with a polymorphic tract of CAG repeats that is inversely correlated to the receptor`s transactivation activity. A short CAG tract is associated with hyperandrogenic disorders. In women, one of the X chromosomes is inactivated and the X chromosome inactivation (XCI) pattern varies among tissues. Previous studies of hyperandrogenic disorders only evaluated XCI in leukocytes. Objective: To evaluate whether the XCI pattern in leukocytes could be extrapolated to those in hair bulbs. Material: A total of 58 healthy women were used for this study. DNA was extracted from leukocytes (n = 58 women) and pubic (n = 53 women) and scalp hair (n = 21 women). Methods: Hpa II digested and undigested DNA samples underwent fluorescence PCR GeneScan (R) analysis. Results: A significant and positive correlation of XCI was found between leukocytes and hair bulbs. However, individual comparisons showed that 13 and 19% of the women presented a different leukocyte XCI pattern in pubic hair and similar in leukocytes and hair bulbs of normal women indicating that leukocyte DNA is useful for XCI analysis. However, the XCI pattern could vary among tissues from the same subject, indicating that care should be taken when extrapolating individual leukocyte XCI patterns to other tissue. Copyright (C) 2010 S. Karger AG, Basel

46,XY disorders of sex development (DSD)

The term disorders of sex development (DSD) includes congenital conditions in which development of chromosomal, gonadal or anatomical sex is atypical. Mutations in genes present in X, Y or autosomal chromosomes can cause abnormalities of testis determination or disorders of sex differentiation leading to 46,XY DSD. Detailed clinical phenotypes allow the identification of new factors that can alter the expression or function of mutated proteins helping to understand new undisclosed biochemical pathways. In this review we present an update on 46,XY DSD aetiology, diagnosis and treatment based on extensive review of the literature and our three decades of experience with these patients.

Antinociception induced by epidural motor cortex stimulation in naive conscious rats is mediated by the opioid system

Epidural motor cortex stimulation (MCS) has been used for treating patients with neuropathic pain resistant to other therapeutic approaches. Experimental evidence suggests that the motor cortex is also involved in the modulation of normal nociceptive response, but the underlying mechanisms of pain control have not been clarified yet. The aim of this study was to investigate the effects of epidural electrical MCS on the nociceptive threshold of naive rats. Electrodes were placed on epidural motor cortex, over the hind paw area, according to the functional mapping accomplished in this study. Nociceptive threshold and general activity were evaluated under 15-min electrical stimulating sessions. When rats were evaluated by the paw pressure test, MCS induced selective antinociception in the paw contralateral to the stimulated cortex, but no changes were noticed in the ipsilateral paw. When the nociceptive test was repeated 15 min after cessation of electrical stimulation, the nociceptive threshold returned to basal levels. On the other hand, no changes in the nociceptive threshold were observed in rats evaluated by the tail-flick test. Additionally, no behavioral or motor impairment were noticed in the course of stimulation session at the open-field test. Stimulation of posterior parietal or somatosensory cortices did not elicit any changes in the general activity or nociceptive response. Opioid receptors blockade by naloxone abolished the increase in nociceptive threshold induced by MCS. Data shown herein demonstrate that epidural electrical MCS elicits a substantial and selective antinociceptive effect, which is mediated by opioids. (C) 2008 Elsevier B.V. All rights reserved.

Morphometric Study on the Anatomy of the Fetal Cricoid Cartilage and Comparison Between Its Inner Diameter and Endotracheal Tube Sizes

Objectives: The high incidence of respiratory disorders is one of the main problems in perinatal medical care. With the increased use of intubation, the incidence of laryngeal injury causing stenosis has also increased. The principal constriction point in the infant`s larynx is the midcricoid area. We sought to provide detailed morphometric data on the anatomy of the cricoid cartilage and its relationship with growth and body characteristics of fetuses at 5 to 9 months of gestational age. Methods: Nineteen larynges obtained from 17 stillborn infants and 2 newborn infants ranging in gestational age from 5 to 9 months were studied. Measurements of the cricoid cartilage were made with a millimeter-graded caliper. Results: Weight was the variable most correlated with cricoid measurements. The cricoid lumen configuration showed an almost elliptic shape and did not change with gestational age. The mean inner subglottic cricoid area was 19.27 +/- 9.62 mm(2) and was related to weight and body surface area. Cricoid growth was more pronounced at the outer portion of the cartilage. Conclusions: The cricoid lumen configuration was elliptic, and its mean area was smaller than that of available endotracheal tubes. This lumen area was most influenced by weight and height.

Effects of antenatal corticosteroid treatment on pulmonary ventilation and circulation in neonatal lambs with hypoplastic lungs

Our aim was to determine whether antenatal corticosteroids improve perinatal adaptation of the pulmonary circulation in lambs with lung hypoplasia (LH). LH was induced in 12 ovine fetuses between 105 and 140 days gestation (term similar to 147 days); in 6 of these the ewe was given a single dose of betamethasone (11.4 mg im) 24 hr before delivery (LH + B). All lambs, including a control group (n = 6), were delivered at similar to 140 days and ventilated for 2 hr during which arterial pressures, pulmonary blood flow (PBF), and ventilating pressure and flow were recorded. During ventilation, respiratory system compliance was lower in both LH + B and LH groups than in controls. Pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR) was lower in LH + B lambs than in LH lambs and similar to controls; PBF was reduced in LH lambs but was restored to control levels by betamethasone. The mean density of small arteries of LH + B lambs was similar to that of LH lambs (P = 0.06) and lower than in controls; the thickness of the media of small pulmonary arteries from LH + B lambs was similar to that in LH lambs and thicker than in controls. VEGF mRNA levels were not different between groups. PDGF mRNA levels in LH + B lambs were higher than in LH lambs; a similar trend (P = 0.06) was seen for PECAM-1. SP-C mRNA levels were greater in both LH and LH + B lambs than in controls. Effects of betamethasone were greater on indices of pulmonary circulation than ventilation. We conclude that a single dose of maternal betamethasone 24 hr prior to birth has significant favorable effects on the postnatal adaptation of the pulmonary circulation in lambs with LH.

Viral Load Predicts New World Health Organization Stage 3 and 4 Events in HIV-Infected Children Receiving Highly Active Antiretroviral Therapy, Independent of CD4 T Lymphocyte Value

Background. Many resource-limited countries rely on clinical and immunological monitoring without routine virological monitoring for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-infected children receiving highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART). We assessed whether HIV load had independent predictive value in the presence of immunological and clinical data for the occurrence of new World Health Organization (WHO) stage 3 or 4 events (hereafter, WHO events) among HIV-infected children receiving HAART in Latin America. Methods. The NISDI (Eunice Kennedy Shriver National Institute of Child Health and Human Development International Site Development Initiative) Pediatric Protocol is an observational cohort study designed to describe HIV-related outcomes among infected children. Eligibility criteria for this analysis included perinatal infection, age ! 15 years, and continuous HAART for >= 6 months. Cox proportional hazards modeling was used to assess time to new WHO events as a function of immunological status, viral load, hemoglobin level, and potential confounding variables; laboratory tests repeated during the study were treated as time-varying predictors. Results. The mean duration of follow-up was 2.5 years; new WHO events occurred in 92 (15.8%) of 584 children. In proportional hazards modeling, most recent viral load 15000 copies/mL was associated with a nearly doubled risk of developing a WHO event (adjusted hazard ratio, 1.81; 95% confidence interval, 1.05-3.11; P = 033), even after adjustment for immunological status defined on the basis of CD4 T lymphocyte value, hemoglobin level, age, and body mass index. Conclusions. Routine virological monitoring using the WHO virological failure threshold of 5000 copies/mL adds independent predictive value to immunological and clinical assessments for identification of children receiving HAART who are at risk for significant HIV-related illness. To provide optimal care, periodic virological monitoring should be considered for all settings that provide HAART to children.

Effects of (-)-RO363 at human atrial beta-adrenoceptor subtypes, the human cloned beta(3)-adrenoceptor and rodent intestinal beta(3)-adrenoceptors

1 Chronic treatment of patients with beta-blockers causes atrial inotropic hyperresponsiveness through beta(2)-adrenoceptors, 5-HT4 receptors and H-2-receptors but apparently not through beta(1)-adrenoceptors despite data claiming an increased beta(1)-adrenoceptor density from homogenate binding studies. We have addressed the question of beta(1)-adrenoceptor sensitivity by determining the inotropic potency and intrinsic activity of the beta(1)-adrenoceptor selective partial agonist (-)-RO363 and by carrying out both homogenate binding and quantitative beta-adrenoceptor autoradiography in atria obtained from patients treated or not treated with beta-blockers. In the course of the experiments it became apparent that (-)-RO363 also may cause agonistic effects through the third atrial beta-adrenoceptor. To assess whether (-)-RO363 also caused agonistic effects through beta(3)-adrenoceptors we studied its relaxant effects in rat colon and guinea-pig ileum, as well as receptor binding and adenylyl cyclase stimulation of chinese hamster ovary (CHO) cells expressing human beta(3)-adrenoceptors. 2 beta-Adrenoceptors were labelled with (-)-[I-125]-cyanopindolol. The density of both beta(1)- and beta(2)-adrenoceptors was unchanged in the 2 groups, as assessed with both quantitative receptor autoradiography and homogenate binding. The affinities of (-)-RO363 for beta(1)-adrenoceptors (pK(i) = 8.0-7.7) and beta(2)-adrenoceptors (pK(i) = 6.1-5.8) were not significantly different in the two groups. 3 (-)-RO363 increased atrial force with a pEC(50) of 8.2 (beta-blocker treated) and 8.0 (non-beta-blocker treated) and intrinsic activity with respect to (-)-isoprenaline of 0.80 (beta-blocker treated) and 0.54 (non-beta-blocker treated) (P<0.001) and with respect to Ca2+ (7 mM) of 0.65 (beta-blocker treated) and 0.45 (non-beta-blocker treated) (P<0.01). The effects of (-)-RO363 were resistant to antagonism by the beta(2)-adrenoceptor antagonist, ICI 118,551 (50 nM). The effects of 0.3-10 nM (-)-RO363 were antagonized by 3-10 nM of the beta(1)-adrenoceptor selective antagonist CGP 20712A. The effects of 20-1000 nM (-)-RO363 were partially resistant to antagonism by 30-300 nM CGP 20712A. 4 (-)-RO363 relaxed the rat colon, partially precontracted by 30 mM KCl, with an intrinsic activity of 0.97 compared to (-)-isoprenaline. The concentration-effect curve to (-)-RO363 revealed 2 components, one antagonized by (-)-propranolol (200 nM) with pEC(50)=8.5 and fraction 0.66, the other resistant to (-)-propranolol (200 nM) with pEC(50)=5.6 and fraction 0.34 of maximal relaxation. 5 (-)-RO363 relaxed the longitudinal muscle of guinea-pig ileum, precontracted by 0.5 mu M histamine, with intrinsic activity of 1.0 compared to (-)-isoprenaline and through 2 components, one antagonized by (-)-propranolol (200 nM) with pEC(50)=8.7 and fraction 0.67, the other resistant to (-)-propranolol with pEC(50)=4.9 and fraction 0.33 of maximal relaxation. 6 (-)-RO363 stimulated the adenylyl cyclase of CHO cells expressing human beta(3)-adrenoceptors with pEC(50)=5.5 and intrinsic activity 0.74 with respect to (-)-isoprenaline (pEC(50)=5.9). (-)-RO363 competed for binding with [I-125]cyanopindolol at human beta(3)-adrenoceptors transfected into CHO cells with pK(i)=4.5. (-)-Isoprenaline (pk(i)=5.2) and (-)-CGP 12177A (pK(i)=6.1) also competed for binding at human beta(2)-adrenoceptors. 7 We conclude that under conditions used in this study, (-)-RO363 is a potent partial agonist for human beta(1)- and beta(3)-adrenoceptors and appears also to activate the third human atrial beta-adrenoceptor. (-)-RO363 relaxes mammalian gut through both beta(1)- and beta(3)-adrenoceptors. (-)-RO363, used as a beta(1)-adrenoceptor selective tool, confirms previous findings with (-)-noradrenaline that beta(1)-adrenoceptor mediated atrial effects are only slightly enhanced by chronic treatment of patients with beta-blockers. Chronic treatment with beta(1)-adrenoceptor-selective blockers does not significantly increase the density of human atrial beta(1)- and beta(2)-adrenoceptors.

Functional CD40-ligand is expressed by T cells in rheumatoid arthritis

CD40-1igand (CD40-L), a member of the tumour necrosis family of transmembrane glycoproteins, is rapidly and transiently expressed on the surface of recently activated CD4+ T cells. CD40 is expressed by B cells, monocytes and dendritic cells. Interactions between CD40-L and CD40 induce B cell proliferation, differentiation, immunoglobulin production and isotype switching as well as monocyte activation and dendritic cell differentiation. Since the rheumatoid synovium is characterized by T cell activation, B cell immunoglobulin production, monocyte cytokine production and dendritic cell differentiation, the expression and function of CD40-L in RA was examined. RA synovial fluid (SF) T ceils expressed CD40-L mRNA, as well as low level cell surface CD40-L. A subset of CD4+ RA synovial fluid T cells could express cell surface CD40-L within 15 rain of in vitro activation even in the presence of cycloheximide. CD40-L expressed by RA SF T cells was functional, since RA SF T cells, but not normal PB T cells, stimulated CD40-L dependent B cell immunoglobulin production in the absence of in vitro T cell activation. These data indicate that SF T cells express functionally significant levels of surface CD40-L, and have the potential for rapid upregulation of surface expression from preformed CD40-L stores. Thus, CD40-L is likely to play a central role in the perpetuation of RA by induction of Ig synthesis, cytokine production and dendritic cell differentiation. Moreover, the data provide important evidence of recent activation of RA synovial T cells. Of importance, blockade of CD40-L may prove highly effective as a disease modifying therapy for RA.

The Role of Prostate Specific Membrane Antigen and Pepsinogen C Tissue Expression as an Adjunctive Method to Prostate Cancer Diagnosis

Purpose: The diagnosis of prostate cancer in men with persistently increased prostate specific antigen after a negative prostate biopsy has become a great challenge for urologists and pathologists. We analyzed the diagnostic value of 6 genes in the tissue of patients with prostate cancer. Materials and Methods: The study was comprised of 50 patients with localized disease who underwent radical prostatectomy. Gene selection was based on a previous microarray analysis. Among 4,147 genes with different expressions between 2 pools of patients 6 genes (PSMA, TMEFF2, GREB1, TH1L, IgH3 and PGC) were selected. These genes were tested for diagnostic value using the quantitative reverse transcription polymerase chain reaction method. Initially malignant tissue samples from 33 patients were analyzed and in the second part of the study we analyzed benign tissue samples from the other 17 patients with prostate cancer. The control group was comprised of tissue samples of patients with benign prostatic hyperplasia. Results: Analysis of malignant prostatic tissue demonstrated that prostate specific membrane antigen was over expressed (mean 9 times) and pepsinogen C was under expressed (mean 1.3 X 10(-4) times) in all cases compared to benign prostatic hyperplasia. The other 4 tested genes showed a variable expression pattern not allowing for differentiation between benign and malignant cases. When we tested these results in the benign prostate tissues from patients with cancer, pepsinogen C maintained the expression pattern. In terms of prostate specific membrane antigen, despite over expression in most cases (mean 12 times), 2 cases (12%) presented with under expression. Conclusions: Pepsinogen C tissue expression may constitute a powerful adjunctive method to prostate biopsy in the diagnosis of prostate cancer cases.