Effects of depressive and anxious symptoms on norepinephrine and platelet P-selectin responses to acute psychological stress among elderly caregivers

BACKGROUND: Caring for a spouse with Alzheimer's disease is associated with increased psychological distress, impaired immunity, and heightened cardiovascular risk. Hyperreactivity of sympathetic and platelet activation responses to acute psychological stress, or the failure to recover quickly from stressful events, may constitute an important pathway linking stress and negative affect with cardiovascular disease (CVD). OBJECTIVES: (1) To evaluate associations between negative affect (i.e., depressive and anxious symptoms) with increased norepinephrine and P-selectin responses to an acute psychological stress task. (2) To establish whether these associations are augmented among elderly spousal caregivers (CG) compared to non-caregivers (NC). METHODS: Depressive (DEP) and anxious (ANX) symptoms from the Brief Symptom Inventory were assessed among 39 CG and 31 NC. Plasma norepinephrine levels (NE) and percent platelet P-selectin (PSEL) expression were assayed at three time-points: rest, immediately following a laboratory speech test (reactivity), and after 14 min of recovery. Results: Among CG, but not NC, increased symptoms of depression and anxiety were associated with delayed NE recovery (DEP: beta=.460, p=.008; ANX: beta=.361, p=.034), increased PSEL reactivity (DEP: beta=.703, p<.001; ANX: beta=.526, p=.002), and delayed PSEL recovery (DEP: beta=.372, p=.039; ANX: beta=.295, p=.092), while controlling for age, gender, aspirin use, antidepressant use, and preexisting CVD. Bivariate correlations showed delayed NE recovery was also associated with increased PSEL reactivity (r=.416) and delayed PSEL recovery (r=.372; all ps<.05) among CG but not NC. DISCUSSION: Among chronically stressed caregivers, increased levels of depressive and anxious symptoms are associated with prolonged sympathetic activation and pronounced platelet activation. These changes may represent one pathway linking caregiving stress to cardiovascular risk.

Rapid diagnostic tests for the home-based management of malaria, in a high-transmission area

Rapid diagnostic tests (RDT) are sometimes recommended to improve the home-based management of malaria. The accuracy of an RDT for the detection of clinical malaria and the presence of malarial parasites has recently been evaluated in a high-transmission area of southern Mali. During the same study, the cost-effectiveness of a 'test-and-treat' strategy for the home-based management of malaria (based on an artemisinin-combination therapy) was compared with that of a 'treat-all' strategy. Overall, 301 patients, of all ages, each of whom had been considered a presumptive case of uncomplicated malaria by a village healthworker, were checked with a commercial RDT (Paracheck-Pf). The sensitivity, specificity, and positive and negative predictive values of this test, compared with the results of microscopy and two different definitions of clinical malaria, were then determined. The RDT was found to be 82.9% sensitive (with a 95% confidence interval of 78.0%-87.1%) and 78.9% (63.9%-89.7%) specific compared with the detection of parasites by microscopy. In the detection of clinical malaria, it was 95.2% (91.3%-97.6%) sensitive and 57.4% (48.2%-66.2%) specific compared with a general practitioner's diagnosis of the disease, and 100.0% (94.5%-100.0%) sensitive but only 30.2% (24.8%-36.2%) specific when compared against the fulfillment of the World Health Organization's (2003) research criteria for uncomplicated malaria. Among children aged 0-5 years, the cost of the 'test-and-treat' strategy, per episode, was about twice that of the 'treat-all' (U.S.$1.0. v. U.S.$0.5). In older subjects, however, the two strategies were equally costly (approximately U.S.$2/episode). In conclusion, for children aged 0-5 years in a high-transmission area of sub-Saharan Africa, use of the RDT was not cost-effective compared with the presumptive treatment of malaria with an ACT. In older patients, use of the RDT did not reduce costs. The question remains whether either of the strategies investigated can be made affordable for the affected population.

Seasonal variation of VO 2 max and the VO2-work rate relationship in elite Alpine skiers

PURPOSE: Alpine ski performance relates closely to both anaerobic and aerobic capacities. During their competitive season, skiers greatly reduce endurance and weight training, and on-snow training becomes predominant. To typify this shift, we compared exhaustive ramp cycling and squat (SJ) and countermovement jumping (CMJ) performance in elite males before and after their competitive season. RESULTS: In postseason compared with preseason: 1) maximal oxygen uptake (VO 2 max) normalized to bodyweight was higher (55.2 +/- 5.2 vs 52.7 +/- 3.6 mL x kg(-1) x min(-1), P < 0.01), but corresponding work rate (W) was unchanged; 2) at ventilatory thresholds (VT), absolute and relative work rates were similar but heart rates were lower; 3) VO2/W slope was greater (9.59 +/- 0.6 vs 9.19 +/- 0.4 mL O2 x min(-1) x W(-1), P = 0.02), with similar flattening (P < 0.01) above V T1 at both time points; and 4) jump height was greater in SJ (47.4 +/- 4.4 vs 44.7 +/- 4.3 cm, P < 0.01) and CMJ (52.7 +/- 4.6 vs 50.4 +/- 5.0 cm, P < 0.01). DISCUSSION: We believe that aerobic capacity and leg power were constrained in preseason and that improvements primarily reflected an in-season recovery from a fatigued state, which was caused by incongruous preseason training. Residual adaptations to high-altitude exposure in preseason could have also affected the results. Nonetheless, modern alpine skiing seemingly provides an ample cardiovascular training stimulus for skiers to maintain their aerobic capacities during the racing season. CONCLUSIONS: We conclude that aerobic fitness and leg explosiveness can be maintained in-season but may be compromised by heavy or excessive preseason training. In addition, ramp test V O2/W slope analysis could be useful for monitoring both positive and negative responses to training.

Event-related potential P300 microstate topography during visual one- and two-dimensional tasks in chronic schizophrenics

Reports on left-lateralized abnormalities of component P300 of event-related brain potentials (ERP) in schizophrenics typically did not vary task difficulties. We collected 16-channel ERP in 13 chronic, medicated schizophrenics (25±4.9 years) and 13 matched controls in a visual P300 paradigm with targets defined by one or two stimulus dimensions (C1: color; C2: color and tilt); subjects key-pressed to targets. The mean target-ERP map landscapes were assessed numerically by the locations of the positive and negative map-area centroids. The centroids' time-space trajectories were searched for the P300 microstate landscape defined by the positive centroid posterior of the negative centroid. At P300 microstate centre latencies in C1, patients' maps tended to a right shift of the positive centroid (p<0.10); in C2 the anterior centroid was more posterior (p<0.07) and the posterior (positive) centroid more anterior (p<0.03), but without leftright difference. Duration of P300 microstate in C2 was shorter in patients (232 vs 347 ms;p<0.03) and the latency of maximal strength of P300 microstate increased significantly in patients (C1: 459 vs 376 ms; C2: 585 vs 525 ms). In summary only the one-dimensional task C1 supported left-sided abnormalities; the two-dimensional task C2 produced abnormal P300 microstate map landscapes in schizophrenics, but no abnormal lateralization. Thus, information processing involved clearly aberrant neural populations in schizophrenics, different when processing one and two stimulus dimensions. The lack of lateralization in the two-dimensional task supported the view that left-temporal abnormality in schizophrenics is only one of several task-dependent aberrations.

Application of Immunohistochemistry and ELISA for the Diagnosis of Neospora-Infected Cattle

Studies were undertaken to adapt diagnostic methods for use in our laboratory for detection of Neospora sp. infection in cattle. An immunohistochemical (IHC) test was used for detection of Neospora sp. antigen in tissues of aborted bovine fetuses. Neospora sp. antigen was detected most frequently in fetal brain tissue. Polyclonal antibodies were tested for specificity and sensitivity of the IHC. Sera were obtained from Neospora sp. infected dairy herds for use as positive and negative controls in the continuing development of an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA).

Electrocardiographic pattern as a guide for management and radiofrequency ablation of idiopathic ventricular tachycardia.

BACKGROUND Idiopathic ventricular tachycardia (VT) often originates from the right ventricular outflow tract (RVOT), but foci deep to the endocardium, in the epicardium, or in the left ventricle are not uncommon. Although these extra-RVOT foci can be targeted with ablation, risks involved are higher and success rates lower. Simple electrocardiographic (ECG) criteria allowing (1) discrimination of RVOT foci from extra-RVOT foci and (2) assessment of the chance of success of a right heart ablation procedure are desirable. METHODS Twenty-five consecutive patients referred for radiofrequency (RF) ablation of idiopathic VT or severely symptomatic idiopathic ventricular premature contractions were included. Localization of VT origin and success rates of VT ablation in the RVOT were analyzed according to the ECG pattern. RESULTS The analysis of the R wave in V2 was the strongest single predictor of whether the VT had an RVOT or an extra-RVOT origin. An R wave amplitude < or =30% of the QRS amplitude designated the VT focus in the RVOT with positive and negative predictive values of 95 and 100%, respectively. Analysis of R wave duration in V2 had similar predictive values, whereas the R/S transition zone in precordial leads had slightly lower predictive values. Seventeen of 20 arrhythmias (85%) with an R wave amplitude < or =30% of the QRS amplitude in V2 could be successfully abolished by an exclusively right heart procedure. CONCLUSIONS The analysis of ECG pattern makes it possible to guide the management of patients with idiopathic VT in predicting the arrhythmias that can be safely targeted with RF ablation from the RVOT with high success rates.

Who stays, who benefits? Predicting dropout and change in cognitive behaviour therapy for psychosis

This study investigates predictors of outcome in a secondary analysis of dropout and completer data from a randomized controlled effectiveness trial comparing CBTp to a wait-list group (Lincoln et al., 2012). Eighty patients with DSM-IV psychotic disorders seeking outpatient treatment were included. Predictors were assessed at baseline. Symptom outcome was assessed at post-treatment and at one-year follow-up. The predictor x group interactions indicate that a longer duration of disorder predicted less improvement in negative symptoms in the CBTp but not in the wait-list group whereas jumping-to-conclusions was associated with poorer outcome only in the wait-list group. There were no CBTp specific predictors of improvement in positive symptoms. However, in the combined sample (immediate CBTp+the delayed CBTp group) baseline variables predicted significant amounts of positive and negative symptom variance at post-therapy and one-year follow-up after controlling for pre-treatment symptoms. Lack of insight and low social functioning were the main predictors of drop-out, contributing to a prediction accuracy of 87%. The findings indicate that higher baseline symptom severity, poorer functioning, neurocognitive deficits, reasoning biases and comorbidity pose no barrier to improvement during CBTp. However, in line with previous predictor-research, the findings imply that patients need to receive treatment earlier.

Social control and smoking: Examining the moderating effects of different dimensions of relationship quality

A common form of social regulation of an individual’s health behavior is social control. The contextual model of social control assumes that higher relationship quality goes along with more beneficial effects of social control on health behavior. This study examined potential differential moderating effects of different dimensions of relationship quality on the associations between positive and negative social control and smoking behavior and hiding smoking. The sample consisted of 144 smokers (n = 72 women; mean age = 31.78, SD = 10.04) with a nonsmoking partner. Positive and negative social control, dimensions of relationship quality consensus, cohesion and satisfaction, numbers of cigarettes smoked (NCS), hiding smoking (HS), and control variables were assessed at baseline. Four weeks later NCS and HS were assessed again. Only for smokers with high consensus, but not cohesion and satisfaction, a negative association between positive control and NCS emerged. Moreover, smokers with high consensus tended to report more HS when being positively and negatively socially controlled. This also emerged for cohesion and positive control. Satisfaction with the relationship did not display any interaction effects. This study’s results emphasize the importance of differentiating not only between positive and negative social control but also between different dimensions of relationship quality in order to gain a comprehensive understanding of the dynamics in romantic dyads with regard to social regulation of behavioral change.

Educational Technology-Benefits and Barriers

Statement of Problem: The second background paper for the Medical School Objective Project (MSOP), defined Educational Technology (ET) as the use of information technology to facilitate student’s learning.1 Medical schools as a group have made limited progress in accomplishing the recommended educational technology goals and there had been much greater use of such technology in basic sciences courses than in clinical clerkships. We will explore the positive and negative implications of incorporating ET into the educational experience of TMC schools. [See PDF for complete abstract]

First Trimester Screening and its Impact on Uptake of Diagnostic Testing

Introduction: First Trimester Screening (FTS) combines maternal age with fetal nuchal translucency (NT) and maternal analytes to identify pregnancies at an increased risk for Down syndrome and trisomy 18. Though the accuracy of this screening is high, it cannot replace the conclusive accuracy of prenatal diagnostic testing (PDT). Since FTS has been available, a decrease in the number of women who pursue PDT has been observed. This study sought to determine if there has been a significant change in the amount of PDT performed in our clinics, if the type of FTS result affects the patient’s decision regarding PDT, and what the patient’s intentions are regarding PDT. Material and Methods: A database review was performed for the two years prior and the two years after the January 2007 American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists (ACOG) guidelines regarding FTS were issued. We compared the number of women who were AMA and the number of women who were AMA and had PDT between those time periods. We also determined the number of positive and negative FTS results, and determined how many of those patients had PDT. Finally, we surveyed our patients and referring physicians to determine: what the patient understands about FTS, what the patient’s intentions are regarding FTS, and how physicians present the option of FTS to their patients. Results: We determined that there was a 19.6% decrease in the amount of PDT performed when we compared the two time periods at our three specified clinics. Many of our patients were against having PDT prior to their genetic counseling session, but after they received genetic counseling, 76% of our population became open to the possibility of having PDT. Conclusion: Similar to previous studies, we determined that there has been a significant decrease in the number of PDT procedures performed at our clinics, which coincides with the release of the January 2007 ACOG statement regarding FTS. While our patients regarded FTS as a way to gain early information about their pregnancy in a non-invasive manner, they also stated they would use their results as a way to aid in their decision regarding PDT.

The performance of human papillomavirus high-risk DNA testing in the screening and diagnostic settings.

OBJECTIVE: We sought to evaluate the performance of the human papillomavirus high-risk DNA test in patients 30 years and older. MATERIALS AND METHODS: Screening (n=835) and diagnosis (n=518) groups were defined based on prior Papanicolaou smear results as part of a clinical trial for cervical cancer detection. We compared the Hybrid Capture II (HCII) test result with the worst histologic report. We used cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) 2/3 or worse as the reference of disease. We calculated sensitivities, specificities, positive and negative likelihood ratios (LR+ and LR-), receiver operating characteristic (ROC) curves, and areas under the ROC curves for the HCII test. We also considered alternative strategies, including Papanicolaou smear, a combination of Papanicolaou smear and the HCII test, a sequence of Papanicolaou smear followed by the HCII test, and a sequence of the HCII test followed by Papanicolaou smear. RESULTS: For the screening group, the sensitivity was 0.69 and the specificity was 0.93; the area under the ROC curve was 0.81. The LR+ and LR- were 10.24 and 0.34, respectively. For the diagnosis group, the sensitivity was 0.88 and the specificity was 0.78; the area under the ROC curve was 0.83. The LR+ and LR- were 4.06 and 0.14, respectively. Sequential testing showed little or no improvement over the combination testing. CONCLUSIONS: The HCII test in the screening group had a greater LR+ for the detection of CIN 2/3 or worse. HCII testing may be an additional screening tool for cervical cancer in women 30 years and older.

Comparison of OG1RF and an isogenic fsrB deletion mutant by transcriptional analysis: the Fsr system of Enterococcus faecalis is more than the activator of gelatinase and serine protease.

The FsrABC system of Enterococcus faecalis controls the expression of gelatinase and a serine protease via a quorum-sensing mechanism, and recent studies suggest that the Fsr system may also regulate other genes important for virulence. To investigate the possibility that Fsr influences the expression of additional genes, we used transcriptional profiling, with microarrays based on the E. faecalis strain V583 sequence, to compare the E. faecalis strain OG1RF with its isogenic mutant, TX5266, an fsrB deletion mutant. We found that the presence of an intact fsrB influences expression of numerous genes throughout the growth phases tested, namely, late log to early stationary phase. In addition, the Fsr regulon is independent of the activity of the proteases, GelE and SprE, whose expression was confirmed to be activated at all three time points tested. While expression of some genes (i.e., ef1097 and ef0750 to -757, encoding hypothetical proteins) was activated in late log phase in OG1RF versus the fsrB deletion mutant, expression of ef1617 to -1634 (eut-pdu orthologues) was highly repressed by the presence of an intact Fsr at entry into stationary phase. This is the first time that Fsr has been characterized as a negative regulator. The newly recognized Fsr-regulated targets include other factors, besides gelatinase, described as important for biofilms (BopD), and genes predicted to encode the surface proteins EF0750 to -0757 and EF1097, along with proteins implicated in several metabolic pathways, indicating that the FsrABC system may be an important regulator in strain OG1RF, with both positive and negative effects.