902 resultados para label
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Treatment effects over 2 years of teriparatide vs. ibandronate in postmenopausal women with osteoporosis were compared using lumbar spine bone mineral density (BMD) and trabecular bone score (TBS). Teriparatide induced larger increases in BMD and TBS compared to ibandronate, suggesting a more pronounced effect on bone microarchitecture of the bone anabolic drug. INTRODUCTION: The trabecular bone score (TBS) is an index of bone microarchitecture, independent of bone mineral density (BMD), calculated from anteroposterior spine dual X-ray absorptiometry (DXA) scans. The potential role of TBS for monitoring treatment response with bone-active substances is not established. The aim of this study was to compare the effects of recombinant human 1-34 parathyroid hormone (teriparatide) and the bisphosphonate ibandronate (IBN), on lumbar spine (LS) BMD and TBS in postmenopausal women with osteoporosis. METHODS: Two patient groups with matched age, body mass index (BMI), and baseline LS BMD, treated with either daily subcutaneous teriparatide (N = 65) or quarterly intravenous IBN (N = 122) during 2 years and with available LS BMD measurements at baseline and 2 years after treatment initiation were compared. RESULTS: Baseline characteristics (overall mean ± SD) were similar between groups in terms of age 67.9 ± 7.4 years, body mass index 23.8 ± 3.8 kg/m(2), BMD L1-L4 0.741 ± 0.100 g/cm(2), and TBS 1.208 ± 0.100. Over 24 months, teriparatide induced a significantly larger increase in LS BMD and TBS than IBN (+7.6 % ± 6.3 vs. +2.9 % ± 3.3 and +4.3 % ± 6.6 vs. +0.3 % ± 4.1, respectively; P < 0.0001 for both). LS BMD and TBS were only weakly correlated at baseline (r (2) = 0.04) with no correlation between the changes in BMD and TBS over 24 months. CONCLUSIONS: In postmenopausal women with osteoporosis, a 2-year treatment with teriparatide led to a significantly larger increase in LS BMD and TBS than IBN, suggesting that teriparatide had more pronounced effects on bone microarchitecture than IBN.
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BACKGROUND: Concomitant chemoradiotherapy and accelerated radiotherapy independently improve outcomes for patients with locally advanced head and neck squamous-cell carcinoma (HNSCC). We aimed to assess the efficacy and safety of a combination of these approaches. METHODS: In our open-label phase 3 randomised trial, we enrolled patients with locally advanced, stage III and IV (non-metastatic) HNSCC and an Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group performance status of 0-2. We randomly allocated patients centrally with a computer program (with centre, T stage, N stage, and localisation as minimisation factors) in a 1:1:1 ratio to receive conventional chemoradiotherapy (70 Gy in 7 weeks plus three cycles of 4 days' concomitant carboplatin-fluorouracil), accelerated radiotherapy-chemotherapy (70 Gy in 6 weeks plus two cycles of 5 days' concomitant carboplatin-fluorouracil), or very accelerated radiotherapy alone (64·8 Gy [1·8 Gy twice daily] in 3·5 weeks). The primary endpoint, progression-free survival (PFS), was assessed in all enrolled patients. This trial is completed. The trial is registered with ClinicalTrials.gov, number NCT00828386. FINDINGS: Between Feb 29, 2000, and May 9, 2007, we randomly allocated 279 patients to receive conventional chemoradiotherapy, 280 to accelerated radiotherapy-chemotherapy, and 281 to very accelerated radiotherapy. Median follow-up was 5·2 years (IQR 4·9-6·2); rates of chemotherapy and radiotherapy compliance were good in all groups. Accelerated radiotherapy-chemotherapy offered no PFS benefit compared with conventional chemoradiotherapy (HR 1·02, 95% CI 0·84-1·23; p=0·88) or very accelerated radiotherapy (0·83, 0·69-1·01; p=0·060); conventional chemoradiotherapy improved PFS compared with very accelerated radiotherapy (0·82, 0·67-0·99; p=0·041). 3-year PFS was 37·6% (95% CI 32·1-43·4) after conventional chemoradiotherapy, 34·1% (28·7-39·8) after accelerated radiotherapy-chemotherapy, and 32·2% (27·0-37·9) after very accelerated radiotherapy. More patients in the very accelerated radiotherapy group had RTOG grade 3-4 acute mucosal toxicity (226 [84%] of 268 patients) compared with accelerated radiotherapy-chemotherapy (205 [76%] of 271 patients) or conventional chemoradiotherapy (180 [69%] of 262; p=0·0001). 158 (60%) of 265 patients in the conventional chemoradiotherapy group, 176 (64%) of 276 patients in the accelerated radiotherapy-chemotherapy group, and 190 (70%) of 272 patients in the very accelerated radiotherapy group were intubated with feeding tubes during treatment (p=0·045). INTERPRETATION: Chemotherapy has a substantial treatment effect given concomitantly with radiotherapy and acceleration of radiotherapy cannot compensate for the absence of chemotherapy. We noted the most favourable outcomes for conventional chemoradiotherapy, suggesting that acceleration of radiotherapy is probably not beneficial in concomitant chemoradiotherapy schedules. FUNDING: French Ministry of Health.
Cognitive efficacy of quetiapine in early-onset first-episode psychosis: a 12-week open label trial.
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Twenty-three adolescents with psychotic disorders, aged from 13 to 18 years, participated in a 12-week open label trial (17 adolescents completed the study) in order to examine the impact of quetiapine on clinical status and cognitive functions (encompassing processing speed, attention, short-term memory, long-term memory and executive function). An improvement in Clinical Global Impression and Positive and Negative Symptom Scale (P's ≤ 0.001) was observed. In addition, after controlling for amelioration of symptoms, a significant improvement was observed on one executive function (P = 0.044; Trail Making Part B). The remaining cognitive abilities showed stability. In addition, we observed an interaction between quetiapine doses (>300 mg/day or <300 mg/day) and time, where lower doses showed more improvement in verbal short-term memory (P = 0.048), inhibition abilities (P = 0.038) and positive symptoms (P = 0.020). The neuropsychological functioning of adolescents with psychotic disorders remained mainly stable after 12 weeks of treatment with quetiapine. However, lower doses seemed to have a better impact on two components of cognition (inhibition abilities and verbal short-term memory) and on positive symptoms.
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Cardiac-resident stem/progenitor cells have been identified based on expression of stem cell-associated antigens. However, no single surface marker allows to identify a definite cardiac stem/progenitor cell entity. Hence, functional stem cell markers have been extensively searched for. In homeostatic systems, stem cells divide infrequently and therefore retain DNA labels such as 5-bromo-2'-deoxyuridine, which are diluted with division. We used this method to analyze long-term label-retaining cells in the mouse heart after 14 days of 5-bromo-2'-deoxyuridine administration. Labeled cells were detected using immunohistochemical and flow-cytometric methods after varying chasing periods up to 12 months. Using mathematical models, the observed label dilution could consistently be described in the context of a 2-population model, whereby a population of rapidly dividing cells accounted for an accelerated early decline, and a population of slowly dividing cells accounted for decelerated dilution on longer time scales. Label-retaining cells were preferentially localized in the atria and apical region and stained negative for markers of the major cell lineages present in the heart. Most cells with long-term label-retention expressed stem cell antigen-1 (Sca-1). Sca-1(+)CD31(-) cells formed cell aggregates in culture, out of which lineage-negative (Lin(-))Sca-1(+)CD31(-) cells emerged, which could be cultured for many passages. These cells formed cardiospheres and showed differentiation potential into mesenchymal cell lineages. When cultured in cardiomyogenic differentiation medium, they expressed cardiac-specific genes. In conclusion, recognition of slow-cycling cells provides functional evidence of stem/progenitor cells in the heart. Lin(-)Sca-1(+)CD31(-) cardiac-derived progenitors have a potential for differentiation into cardiomyogenic and mesenchymal cell lineages.
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BACKGROUND: Cilengitide is a selective αvβ3 and αvβ5 integrin inhibitor. Data from phase 2 trials suggest that it has antitumour activity as a single agent in recurrent glioblastoma and in combination with standard temozolomide chemoradiotherapy in newly diagnosed glioblastoma (particularly in tumours with methylated MGMT promoter). We aimed to assess cilengitide combined with temozolomide chemoradiotherapy in patients with newly diagnosed glioblastoma with methylated MGMT promoter. METHODS: In this multicentre, open-label, phase 3 study, we investigated the efficacy of cilengitide in patients from 146 study sites in 25 countries. Eligible patients (newly diagnosed, histologically proven supratentorial glioblastoma, methylated MGMT promoter, and age ≥18 years) were stratified for prognostic Radiation Therapy Oncology Group recursive partitioning analysis class and geographic region and centrally randomised in a 1:1 ratio with interactive voice response system to receive temozolomide chemoradiotherapy with cilengitide 2000 mg intravenously twice weekly (cilengitide group) or temozolomide chemoradiotherapy alone (control group). Patients and investigators were unmasked to treatment allocation. Maintenance temozolomide was given for up to six cycles, and cilengitide was given for up to 18 months or until disease progression or unacceptable toxic effects. The primary endpoint was overall survival. We analysed survival outcomes by intention to treat. This study is registered with ClinicalTrials.gov, number NCT00689221. FINDINGS: Overall, 3471 patients were screened. Of these patients, 3060 had tumour MGMT status tested; 926 patients had a methylated MGMT promoter, and 545 were randomly assigned to the cilengitide (n=272) or control groups (n=273) between Oct 31, 2008, and May 12, 2011. Median overall survival was 26·3 months (95% CI 23·8-28·8) in the cilengitide group and 26·3 months (23·9-34·7) in the control group (hazard ratio 1·02, 95% CI 0·81-1·29, p=0·86). None of the predefined clinical subgroups showed a benefit from cilengitide. We noted no overall additional toxic effects with cilengitide treatment. The most commonly reported adverse events of grade 3 or worse in the safety population were lymphopenia (31 [12%] in the cilengitide group vs 26 [10%] in the control group), thrombocytopenia (28 [11%] vs 46 [18%]), neutropenia (19 [7%] vs 24 [9%]), leucopenia (18 [7%] vs 20 [8%]), and convulsion (14 [5%] vs 15 [6%]). INTERPRETATION: The addition of cilengitide to temozolomide chemoradiotherapy did not improve outcomes; cilengitide will not be further developed as an anticancer drug. Nevertheless, integrins remain a potential treatment target for glioblastoma. FUNDING: Merck KGaA, Darmstadt, Germany.
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Bone marrow hematopoietic stem cells (HSCs) are responsible for both lifelong daily maintenance of all blood cells and for repair after cell loss. Until recently the cellular mechanisms by which HSCs accomplish these two very different tasks remained an open question. Biological evidence has now been found for the existence of two related mouse HSC populations. First, a dormant HSC (d-HSC) population which harbors the highest self-renewal potential of all blood cells but is only induced into active self-renewal in response to hematopoietic stress. And second, an active HSC (a-HSC) subset that by and large produces the progenitors and mature cells required for maintenance of day-to-day hematopoiesis. Here we present computational analyses further supporting the d-HSC concept through extensive modeling of experimental DNA label-retaining cell (LRC) data. Our conclusion that the presence of a slowly dividing subpopulation of HSCs is the most likely explanation (amongst the various possible causes including stochastic cellular variation) of the observed long term Bromodeoxyuridine (BrdU) retention, is confirmed by the deterministic and stochastic models presented here. Moreover, modeling both HSC BrdU uptake and dilution in three stages and careful treatment of the BrdU detection sensitivity permitted improved estimates of HSC turnover rates. This analysis predicts that d-HSCs cycle about once every 149-193 days and a-HSCs about once every 28-36 days. We further predict that, using LRC assays, a 75%-92.5% purification of d-HSCs can be achieved after 59-130 days of chase. Interestingly, the d-HSC proportion is now estimated to be around 30-45% of total HSCs - more than twice that of our previous estimate.
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Ultraviolet (UV) radiation potentially damages the skin, the immune system, and structures of the eye. A useful UV sun protection for the skin has been established. Since a remarkable body of evidence shows an association between UV radiation and damage to structures of the eye, eye protection is important, but a reliable and practical tool to assess and compare the UV-protective properties of lenses has been lacking. Among the general lay public, misconceptions on eye-sun protection have been identified. For example, sun protection is mainly ascribed to sunglasses, but less so to clear lenses. Skin malignancies in the periorbital region are frequent, but usual topical skin protection does not include the lids. Recent research utilized exact dosimetry and demonstrated relevant differences in UV burden to the eye and skin at a given ambient irradiation. Chronic UV effects on the cornea and lens are cumulative, so effective UV protection of the eyes is important for all age groups and should be used systematically. Protection of children's eyes is especially important, because UV transmittance is higher at a very young age, allowing higher levels of UV radiation to reach the crystalline lens and even the retina. Sunglasses as well as clear lenses (plano and prescription) effectively reduce transmittance of UV radiation. However, an important share of the UV burden to the eye is explained by back reflection of radiation from lenses to the eye. UV radiation incident from an angle of 135°-150° behind a lens wearer is reflected from the back side of lenses. The usual antireflective coatings considerably increase reflection of UV radiation. To provide reliable labeling of the protective potential of lenses, an eye-sun protection factor (E-SPF®) has been developed. It integrates UV transmission as well as UV reflectance of lenses. The E-SPF® compares well with established skin-sun protection factors and provides clear messages to eye health care providers and to lay consumers.
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Rapport de synthèse : De nombreuses études sont effectuées sur les antidépresseurs avant leur mise sur le marché, puis des règles précises sont établies pour leur prescription dans des indications délimitées. Leur utilisation dans des indications «off-label » (hors indication officiellement admise) manque souvent de validation par des bases de données scientifiques et leur prescription se base le plus souvent sur un consensus proposé par des experts. Le but du présent travail a été d'étudier les habitudes de prescription de psychiatres d'hôpitaux en ce qui concerne les antidépresseurs, en comparant des patients traités pour une dépression et des troubles anxieux avec des patients recevant un traitement «off-label ». Pour cette étude, les données d'utilisation de médicaments sont celles recueillies lors de 6 jours de référence, entre avril 1999 et novembre 2001, à l'hôpital psychiatrique de Lausanne (Suisse) comprenant 98 lits. La prescription de médicaments chez 174 patients a été prise en compte. Tandis que le diagnostic n'influençait pas le choix entre des nouveaux et anciens antidépresseurs, les patients présentant un trouble anxieux avaient un risque 4.5 fois (p < 0.05) plus élevé et les patients présentant un autre diagnostic 8 fois plus élevé de recevoir une comédication antipsychotique, en comparaison avec des patients dont le diagnostic primaire était un trouble dépressif. De plus, les patients recevant comme comédication un hypnotique non-benzodiazépine avaient moins de risque que l'on prescrive un ancien antidépresseur (p < 0.05). Alors que les patients avec un trouble anxieux et ceux souffrant d'une dépression majeure recevaient un antidépresseur à des doses comparables, les patients répondant à une indication off-label étaient de préférence traités avec des doses plus faibles. Les résultats de cette étude suggèrent que les psychiatres d'hôpitaux développent des préférences en ce qui concerne le choix de la classe d'antidépresseurs, et qu'ils les utilisent alors aussi bien dans des indications reconnues que non-reconnues. Puis ils semblent adapter la dose et la comédication en tenant compte du diagnostic, ce qui confirme l'hypothèse initiale de l'étude,
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Abstract We introduce a label-free technology based on digital holographic microscopy (DHM) with applicability for screening by imaging, and we demonstrate its capability for cytotoxicity assessment using mammalian living cells. For this first high content screening compatible application, we automatized a digital holographic microscope for image acquisition of cells using commercially available 96-well plates. Data generated through both label-free DHM imaging and fluorescence-based methods were in good agreement for cell viability identification and a Z'-factor close to 0.9 was determined, validating the robustness of DHM assay for phenotypic screening. Further, an excellent correlation was obtained between experimental cytotoxicity dose-response curves and known IC values for different toxic compounds. For comparable results, DHM has the major advantages of being label free and close to an order of magnitude faster than automated standard fluorescence microscopy.
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BACKGROUND: Many medicines used in newborns, infants, children and adolescents are not licensed ("unlicensed") or are prescribed outside the terms of the marketing authorization ("off-label"). Several studies have shown that this is a common practice in various healthcare settings in the USA, Europe and Australia, but data are scarce in Switzerland. OBJECTIVES: The aim of our prospective study was to determine the proportion of unlicensed or off-label prescriptions in paediatric patients. METHODS: This pilot study was conducted prospectively over a six month period in the department of paediatrics of a university hospital. RESULTS: Sixty patients aged from three days to 14 years were included in the study. A total of 483 prescriptions were written for the patients. More than half of all prescriptions (247; 51%) followed the terms of the marketing authorization. 114 (24%) were unlicensed and 122 (25%) off-label. All patients received at least one unlicensed or offlabel medicine. CONCLUSION: The use of unlicensed or off-label medicines to treat children was found to be common. Co-operation between the pharmaceutical industry, national regulatory authorities, clinical researchers, healthcare professionals and parents is required in order to ensure that children do not remain "therapeutic orphans".
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The aim of the present work was to study how the information on product labels influences consumer expectations and their acceptance and purchase intention of dark chocolate. Six samples of dark choco- late, varying in brand (premium and store brand) and in type of product (regular dark chocolate, single cocoa origin dark chocolate and high percentage of cocoa dark chocolate), were evaluated by 109 con- sumers who scored their liking and purchase intention under three conditions: blind (only tasting the products), expected (observing product label information) and informed (tasting the products together with provision of the label information). In the expected condition, consumer liking was mainly affected by the brand. In the blind condition, differences in liking were due to the type of product; the samples with a high percentage of cocoa were those less preferred by consumers. Under the informed condition, liking of dark chocolates varied depending on both brand and type of product. Premium brand chocolates generated high consumer expectations of chocolate acceptability, which were fulfilled by the sensory characteristics of the products. Store brand chocolates created lower expectations, but when they were tasted they were as acceptable as premium chocolates. Claims of a high percentage of cocoa and single cocoa origin on labels did not generate higher expectations than regular dark chocolates.