Mudanças da fertilidade do solo e crescimento de um povoamento de Eucalyptus grandis fertilizado com biossólido

Antes da recomendação em larga escala de biossólido em plantações florestais, é preciso compreender seus efeitos no solo e na planta. Assim, a fertilidade do solo, o estado nutricional e o crescimento de um povoamento de Eucalyptus grandis fertilizado com biossólido foram avaliados em um experimento na Estação Experimental de Ciências Florestais de Itatinga (SP), ESALQ/USP. O delineamento experimental foi o de blocos casualizados, com quatro blocos e nove tratamentos: (1) Testemunha; (2) Adubação mineral; (3) 5 t ha-1 de bios. + K; (4) 10 t ha-1 de bios. + K; (5) 10 t ha-1 de bios.; (6) 10 t ha-1 de bios. + K + P; (7) 15 t ha-1 de bios. + K; (8) 20 t ha-1 de bios. + K, e (9) 40 t ha-1 de bios. + K. Foram analisadas quimicamente amostras de solo (camadas de 0-5, 5-10 e 10-20 cm) e de folhas. A produção de madeira foi avaliada por meio da colheita e pesagem de árvores. Até 32 meses após a aplicação do biossólido, 36 meses pós-plantio, constataram-se aumentos do pH, dos teores de C orgânico, de P-resina e de Ca trocável nas três camadas, diretamente associados às doses de biossólido aplicadas. Os teores de S-SO4(2-) e K trocável diminuíram 13 meses após a aplicação do biossólido e, 19 meses depois, os teores estavam aumentados. O Al trocável diminuiu com o aumento das doses de biossólido, nas três camadas amostradas. A aplicação de biossólido influiu positivamente na nutrição das plantas, proporcionando uma produção de madeira igual à obtida no tratamento que só recebeu adubação mineral (1,5 t ha-1 de calcário dolomítico e, em kg ha-1, 98 de N, 79,5 de P2O5, 165 de K2O, 1,3 de B e 1,2 de Zn), quando a dose de biossólido foi equivalente a 12 t ha-1.

Integrated Analysis of High-Resolution Gene Expression and Copy Number Profiling Identified Biallelic Deletion of CDKN2A/2B Tumor Suppressor Locus As the Most Frequent and Unique Genomic Abnormality in Diffuse Large B-Cell Lymphoma (DLBCL) with Strong Prognostic Value in Both GCB and ABC Subtypes and Not Overcome by a Dose-Intensive Immunochemotherapy Regimen Plus Rituximab. Results of a Prospective GELA Clinical Trial Program

Background and aim of the study: Genomic gains and losses play a crucial role in the development and progression of DLBCL and are closely related to gene expression profiles (GEP), including the germinal center B-cell like (GCB) and activated B-cell like (ABC) cell of origin (COO) molecular signatures. To identify new oncogenes or tumor suppressor genes (TSG) involved in DLBCL pathogenesis and to determine their prognostic values, an integrated analysis of high-resolution gene expression and copy number profiling was performed. Patients and methods: Two hundred and eight adult patients with de novo CD20+ DLBCL enrolled in the prospective multicentric randomized LNH-03 GELA trials (LNH03-1B, -2B, -3B, 39B, -5B, -6B, -7B) with available frozen tumour samples, centralized reviewing and adequate DNA/RNA quality were selected. 116 patients were treated by Rituximab(R)-CHOP/R-miniCHOP and 92 patients were treated by the high dose (R)-ACVBP regimen dedicated to patients younger than 60 years (y) in frontline. Tumour samples were simultaneously analysed by high resolution comparative genomic hybridization (CGH, Agilent, 144K) and gene expression arrays (Affymetrix, U133+2). Minimal common regions (MCR), as defined by segments that affect the same chromosomal region in different cases, were delineated. Gene expression and MCR data sets were merged using Gene expression and dosage integrator algorithm (GEDI, Lenz et al. PNAS 2008) to identify new potential driver genes. Results: A total of 1363 recurrent (defined by a penetrance > 5%) MCRs within the DLBCL data set, ranging in size from 386 bp, affecting a single gene, to more than 24 Mb were identified by CGH. Of these MCRs, 756 (55%) showed a significant association with gene expression: 396 (59%) gains, 354 (52%) single-copy deletions, and 6 (67%) homozygous deletions. By this integrated approach, in addition to previously reported genes (CDKN2A/2B, PTEN, DLEU2, TNFAIP3, B2M, CD58, TNFRSF14, FOXP1, REL...), several genes targeted by gene copy abnormalities with a dosage effect and potential physiopathological impact were identified, including genes with TSG activity involved in cell cycle (HACE1, CDKN2C) immune response (CD68, CD177, CD70, TNFSF9, IRAK2), DNA integrity (XRCC2, BRCA1, NCOR1, NF1, FHIT) or oncogenic functions (CD79b, PTPRT, MALT1, AUTS2, MCL1, PTTG1...) with distinct distribution according to COO signature. The CDKN2A/2B tumor suppressor locus (9p21) was deleted homozygously in 27% of cases and hemizygously in 9% of cases. Biallelic loss was observed in 49% of ABC DLBCL and in 10% of GCB DLBCL. This deletion was strongly correlated to age and associated to a limited number of additional genetic abnormalities including trisomy 3, 18 and short gains/losses of Chr. 1, 2, 19 regions (FDR < 0.01), allowing to identify genes that may have synergistic effects with CDKN2A/2B inactivation. With a median follow-up of 42.9 months, only CDKN2A/2B biallelic deletion strongly correlates (FDR p.value < 0.01) to a poor outcome in the entire cohort (4y PFS = 44% [32-61] respectively vs. 74% [66-82] for patients in germline configuration; 4y OS = 53% [39-72] vs 83% [76-90]). In a Cox proportional hazard prediction of the PFS, CDKN2A/2B deletion remains predictive (HR = 1.9 [1.1-3.2], p = 0.02) when combined with IPI (HR = 2.4 [1.4-4.1], p = 0.001) and GCB status (HR = 1.3 [0.8-2.3], p = 0.31). This difference remains predictive in the subgroup of patients treated by R-CHOP (4y PFS = 43% [29-63] vs. 66% [55-78], p=0.02), in patients treated by R-ACVBP (4y PFS = 49% [28-84] vs. 83% [74-92], p=0.003), and in GCB (4y PFS = 50% [27-93] vs. 81% [73-90], p=0.02), or ABC/unclassified (5y PFS = 42% [28-61] vs. 67% [55-82] p = 0.009) molecular subtypes (Figure 1). Conclusion: We report for the first time an integrated genetic analysis of a large cohort of DLBCL patients included in a prospective multicentric clinical trial program allowing identifying new potential driver genes with pathogenic impact. However CDKN2A/2B deletion constitutes the strongest and unique prognostic factor of chemoresistance to R-CHOP, regardless the COO signature, which is not overcome by a more intensified immunochemotherapy. Patients displaying this frequent genomic abnormality warrant new and dedicated therapeutic approaches.

Human Resource Information System Time Reporting System Guide for Individual Users, August 2009

Instructions for using the Human Resource Information System, for the State of Iowa.

The biochemistry of drug metabolism : an introduction : part 6, Inter-individual factors affecting drug metabolism.

This review is part of a series of review articles on the metabolism of drugs and other xenobiotics published in Chemistry & Biodiversity. After a thorough discussion of metabolic reactions and their enzymes, this article focuses on genetically determined differences in drug and xenobiotic metabolism. After a short introduction on the causes for genetic differences, the first focus is on species differences in drug and xenobiotic metabolism. A major chapter is then dedicated to clinically relevant genetic polymorphisms in human drug metabolism and resultant ethnic differences. The last two chapters deal with sex-dependent differences in drug metabolism and personalized pharmacotherapy related to inter-individual differences in drug metabolism.

Is Less Chemotherapy Detrimental in Adults with Philadelphia Chromosome (Ph)-Positive Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL) Treated with High-Dose Imatinib? Results of the Prospective Randomized Graaph-2005 Study

Aim: To compare a less intensive regimen based on high-dose imatinib (IM) to an intensive IM/HyperCVAD regimen in adults with Ph+ ALL, in terms of early response and outcome after stem cell transplantation (SCT). Methods: Patients aged 18-60 years with previously untreated Ph+ ALL not evolving from chronic myeloid leukemia were eligible if no contra-indication to chemotherapy and SCT (ClinicalTrials.gov ID, NCT00327678). After a steroid prephase allowing Ph and/or BCR-ABL diagnosis, cycle 1 differed between randomization arms. In arm A (IM-based), IM was given at 800 mg on day 1-28, combined with vincristine (2 mg, day 1, 8, 15, 22) and dexamethasone (40 mg, day 1-2, 8-9, 15-16, and 22-23) only. In arm B (IM/HyperCVAD), IM was given at 800 mg on day 1-14, combined with adriamycin (50 mg/m2, day 4), cyclophosphamide (300 mg/m2/12h, day 1, 2, 3), vincristine (2 mg, day 4 and 11), and dexamethasone (40 mg, day 1-4 and 11-14). All patients received a cycle 2 combining high-dose methotrexate (1 g/m2, day 1) and AraC (3 g/m2/12h, day 2 and 3) with IM at 800 mg on day 1-14, whatever their response. Four intrathecal infusions were given during this induction/consolidation period. Minimal residual disease (MRD) was centrally evaluated by quantitative RQ-PCR after cycle 1 (MRD1) and cycle 2 (MRD2). Major MRD response was defined as BCR-ABL/ABL ratio <0.1%. Then, all patients were to receive allogeneic SCT using related or unrelated matched donor stem cells or autologous SCT if no donor and a major MRD2 response. IM/chemotherapy maintenance was planned after autologous SCT. In the absence of SCT, patients received alternating cycles 1 (as in arm B) and cycles 2 followed by maintenance, like in the published IM/HyperCVAD regimen. The primary objective was non-inferiority of arm A in term of major MRD2 response. Secondary objectives were CR rate, SCT rate, treatment- and transplant-related mortality, relapse-free (RFS), event-free (EFS) and overall (OS) survival. Results: Among the 270 patients randomized between May 2006 and August 2011, 265 patients were evaluable for this analysis (133 arm A, 132 arm B; median age, 47 years; median follow-up, 40 months). Main patient characteristics were well-balanced between both arms. Due to higher induction mortality in arm B (9 versus 1 deaths; P=0.01), CR rate was higher in the less intensive arm A (98% versus 89% after cycle 1 and 98% versus 91% after cycle 2; P= 0.003 and 0.006, respectively). A total of 213 and 205 patients were evaluated for bone marrow MRD1 and MRD2. The rates of patients reaching major MRD response and undetectable MRD were 45% (44% arm A, 46% arm B; P=0.79) and 10% (in both arms) at MRD1 and 66% (68% arm A, 63.5% arm B; P=0.56) and 25% (28% arm A, 22% arm B; P=0.33) at MRD2, respectively. The non-inferiority primary endpoint was thus demonstrated (P= 0.002). Overall, EFS was estimated at 42% (95% CI, 35-49) and OS at 51% (95% CI, 44-57) at 3 years, with no difference between arm A and B (46% versus 38% and 53% versus 49%; P=0.25 and 0.61, respectively). Of the 251 CR patients, 157 (80 arm A, 77 arm B) and 34 (17 in both arms) received allogeneic and autologous SCT in first CR, respectively. Allogeneic transplant-related mortality was similar in both arms (31.5% versus 22% at 3 years; P=0.51). Of the 157 allografted patients, 133 had MRD2 evaluation and 89 had MRD2 <0.1%. In these patients, MRD2 did not significantly influence post-transplant RFS and OS, either when tested with the 0.1% cutoff or as a continuous log covariate. Of the 34 autografted patients, 31 had MRD2 evaluation and, according to the protocol, 28 had MRD2 <0.1%. When restricting the comparison to patients achieving major MRD2 response and with the current follow-up, a trend for better results was observed after autologous as compared to allogeneic SCT (RFS, 63% versus 49.5% and OS, 69% versus 58% at 3 years; P=0.35 and P=0.08, respectively). Conclusions: In adults, the use of TK inhibitors (TKI) has markedly improved the results of Ph+ ALL therapy, now close to those observed in Ph-negative ALL. We demonstrated here that chemotherapy intensity may be safely reduced when associated with high-dose IM. We will further explore this TKI-based strategy using nilotinib prior to SCT in our next GRAAPH-2013 trial. The trend towards a better outcome after autologous compared to allogeneic SCT observed in MRD responders validates MRD as an important early surrogate endpoint for treatment stratification and new drug investigation in this disease.

A Dose-Response Strategy Reveals Differences between Normal-Weight and Obese Men in Their Metabolic and Inflammatory Responses to a High-Fat Meal.

A dose-response strategy may not only allow investigation of the impact of foods and nutrients on human health but may also reveal differences in the response of individuals to food ingestion based on their metabolic health status. In a randomized crossover study, we challenged 19 normal-weight (BMI: 20-25 kg/m(2)) and 18 obese (BMI: >30 kg/m(2)) men with 500, 1000, and 1500 kcal of a high-fat (HF) meal (60.5% energy from fat). Blood was taken at baseline and up to 6 h postprandially and analyzed for a range of metabolic, inflammatory, and hormonal variables, including plasma glucose, lipids, and C-reactive protein and serum insulin, glucagon-like peptide-1, interleukin-6 (IL-6), and endotoxin. Insulin was the only variable that could differentiate the postprandial response of normal-weight and obese participants at each of the 3 caloric doses. A significant response of the inflammatory marker IL-6 was only observed in the obese group after ingestion of the HF meal containing 1500 kcal [net incremental AUC (iAUC) = 22.9 ± 6.8 pg/mL × 6 h, P = 0.002]. Furthermore, the net iAUC for triglycerides significantly increased from the 1000 to the 1500 kcal meal in the obese group (5.0 ± 0.5 mmol/L × 6 h vs. 6.0 ± 0.5 mmol/L × 6 h; P = 0.015) but not in the normal-weight group (4.3 ± 0.5 mmol/L × 6 h vs. 4.8 ± 0.5 mmol/L × 6 h; P = 0.31). We propose that caloric dose-response studies may contribute to a better understanding of the metabolic impact of food on the human organism. This study was registered at clinicaltrials.gov as NCT01446068.

Iowa Individual Income Tax Statistical Report 2008

Iowa Individual Income Tax Statistical Report 2008

Lixiviação de potássio no solo de acordo com suas doses aplicadas sobre palha de milheto

A presença de palha na superfície do solo influi na ciclagem do K do sistema de produção e pode alterar as propriedades químicas do solo, com possíveis reflexos na lixiviação do nutriente. No presente trabalho, foi avaliada a lixiviação de K no perfil de um solo submetido a 30 mm de chuva simulada, de acordo com doses de K aplicadas a lanço, na presença e ausência de palha de milheto na superfície do solo. O milheto foi cultivado por 55 dias em condições controladas. A seguir, foi cortado à altura do colo, em pedaços de 3 a 5 cm e colocado sobre o solo, em vasos de PVC com 20 cm de diâmetro, em quantidade equivalente a 8 t ha-1 do material seco. Sobre a palha foi aplicado cloreto de K, correspondente às doses de 0, 40, 80, 120 e 160 kg ha-1. A seguir, os vasos foram submetidos à chuva simulada equivalente a 30 mm. A palha foi coletada e analisada quanto aos teores de K, assim como o solo foi amostrado nas profundidades de 0-2, 2-4, 4-8, 8-12 e 12-20 cm de profundidade para análise de K trocável. A chuva de 30 mm foi necessária e suficiente para carrear para o solo o fertilizante potássico aplicado sobre a palha. A intensidade de lixiviação do K no perfil do solo foi proporcional à dose aplicada, de modo que uma chuva de 30 mm lixiviou o nutriente até a camada de 8-12 cm de profundidade, quando o solo estava descoberto. A presença de palha de milheto na superfície do solo aumentou a quantidade de K levada até à superfície do solo pela chuva, mas diminuiu a intensidade de lixiviação do nutriente.

Época de aplicação da primeira dose de nitrogênio em cobertura em milho e espécies antecessoras de cobertura de inverno

Atualmente, os critérios utilizados no Sul do Brasil para definição da dose de nitrogênio (N) a ser aplicada no milho são o teor de matéria orgânica no solo, a expectativa de rendimento da cultura e as características da cultura antecessora. Embora apresente alta relação carbono:nitrogênio (C/N), a aveia preta é a espécie de cobertura de solo de inverno mais utilizada como antecessora às culturas comerciais de verão. Essa característica pode resultar em imobilização do N do solo, deficiência de N na planta de milho e redução no rendimento de grãos. Embora na determinação da dose a ser aplicada sejam consideradas as espécies antecessoras, os avanços quanto à melhor época para aplicar N em cobertura em milho foram pequenos. Com o objetivo de avaliar a época mais adequada para aplicação da primeira dose de N em cobertura no milho cultivado em sucessão a espécies de inverno com distintas relações C/N, um experimento foi realizado em vasos em casa de vegetação em Porto Alegre-RS. Utilizaram-se colunas de solo não deformado, classificado como Argissolo Vermelho distrófico típico. Os tratamentos constaram de quatro sistemas de coberturas de solo de inverno (aveia preta, ervilhaca comum, nabo forrageiro e pousio) e três formas de manejo de N em cobertura (com aplicação de N nos estádios V3 ou V5 e sem aplicação de N em cobertura). O delineamento experimental foi o completamente casualizado, em esquema fatorial 4 x 3, com três repetições. Procedeu-se à análise de variância pelo teste F e à comparação de médias pelo teste de Tukey (p < 0,05). A aveia, que tem alta relação C/N, apresentou baixa taxa de mineralização e de liberação de N de seus resíduos, enquanto as culturas de ervilhaca comum e nabo forrageiro mostraram relação C/N mais estreita, estimulando esses processos. Com o uso de aveia como cultura antecessora ao milho, verificou-se diminuição dos teores de N mineral no solo e de N total na planta de milho, independentemente da época de aplicação de N em cobertura, diminuindo o desenvolvimento inicial da planta. Em sucessão à ervilhaca comum e ao nabo forrageiro, o teor relativo de clorofila na folha e a produção de massa seca de milho, avaliados no estádio V7, foram maiores em relação aos obtidos em sucessão à aveia preta, independentemente da época de aplicação da primeira dose de N em cobertura. Os dados obtidos evidenciaram ser possível retardar a época de aplicação da primeira dose de N em cobertura em milho do estádio V3 para V5, quando o milho for cultivado em sucessão a espécies de inverno com baixa relação C/N.

Fluxo difusivo de micronutrientes catiônicos afetado pelo tipo, dose e época de incorporação de adubos verdes ao solo

Os solos brasileiros, principalmente os do cerrado, são bastante intemperizados e pobres em alguns micronutrientes catiônicos na solução do solo. A utilização de técnicas de manejo, como a adubação verde, pode favorecer o fluxo difusivo (FD) e a disponibilidade desses nutrientes para as plantas. O presente trabalho visou avaliar se a incorporação de adubos verdes ao solo, em diferentes doses e épocas, modifica o FD e a forma iônica de transporte dos micronutrientes Zn, Cu, Fe e Mn no solo. Para tanto, foram incorporados dois resíduos vegetais largamente cultivados como adubo verde: o feijão guandu (Cajanus cajan) ou o milheto (Pennisetum americanum) por diferentes períodos (0, 15, 25, 35, 45 e 55 dias) e doses (0, 9, 18 e 36 t ha-1) num Latossolo Vermelho, argiloso, em condições de laboratório. Para avaliar o FD, utilizaram-se resinas de troca aniônica (positivamente carregada) e de troca catiônica (negativamente carregada) na forma de lâmina, incubadas junto ao solo em câmaras de difusão durante 15 dias. Os resultados obtidos demonstraram que houve aumento do FD do Cu e do Fe com o aumento das doses de material vegetal, principalmente no início do período de incubação, e maior fluxo desses dois micronutrientes para a resina aniônica em relação à catiônica, possivelmente por ser o seu transporte no solo mais dependente da formação de complexos organometálicos com carga líquida negativa. Já para Zn e Mn, o fluxo difusivo foi maior para a resina catiônica. O aumento do tempo de incubação favoreceu o fluxo difusivo de Mn e Zn e reduziu o do Cu e Fe.

Advantages and disadvantages of combination treatment with antipsychotics ECNP Consensus Meeting, March 2008, Nice.

TERMINOLOGY AND PRINCIPLES OF COMBINING ANTIPSYCHOTICS WITH A SECOND MEDICATION: The term "combination" includes virtually all the ways in which one medication may be added to another. The other commonly used terms are "augmentation" which implies an additive effect from adding a second medicine to that obtained from prescribing a first, an "add on" which implies adding on to existing, possibly effective treatment which, for one reason or another, cannot or should not be stopped. The issues that arise in all potential indications are: a) how long it is reasonable to wait to prove insufficiency of response to monotherapy; b) by what criteria that response should be defined; c) how optimal is the dose of the first monotherapy and, therefore, how confident can one be that its lack of effect is due to a truly inadequate response? Before one considers combination treatment, one or more of the following criteria should be met; a) monotherapy has been only partially effective on core symptoms; b) monotherapy has been effective on some concurrent symptoms but not others, for which a further medicine is believed to be required; c) a particular combination might be indicated de novo in some indications; d) The combination could improve tolerability because two compounds may be employed below their individual dose thresholds for side effects. Regulators have been concerned primarily with a and, in principle at least, c above. In clinical practice, the use of combination treatment reflects the often unsatisfactory outcome of treatment with single agents. ANTIPSYCHOTICS IN MANIA: There is good evidence that most antipsychotics tested show efficacy in acute mania when added to lithium or valproate for patients showing no or a partial response to lithium or valproate alone. Conventional 2-armed trial designs could benefit from a third antipsychotic monotherapy arm. In the long term treatment of bipolar disorder, in patients responding acutely to the addition of quetiapine to lithium or valproate, this combination reduces the subsequent risk of relapse to depression, mania or mixed states compared to monotherapy with lithium or valproate. Comparable data is not available for combination with other antipsychotics. ANTIPSYCHOTICS IN MAJOR DEPRESSION: Some atypical antipsychotics have been shown to induce remission when added to an antidepressant (usually a SSRI or SNRI) in unipolar patients in a major depressive episode unresponsive to the antidepressant monotherapy. Refractoriness is defined as at least 6 weeks without meeting an adequate pre-defined treatment response. Long term data is not yet available to support continuing efficacy. SCHIZOPHRENIA: There is only limited evidence to support the combination of two or more antipsychotics in schizophrenia. Any monotherapy should be given at the maximal tolerated dose and at least two antipsychotics of different action/tolerability and clozapine should be given as a monotherapy before a combination is considered. The addition of a high potency D2/3 antagonist to a low potency antagonist like clozapine or quetiapine is the logical combination to treat positive symptoms, although further evidence from well conducted clinical trials is needed. Other mechanisms of action than D2/3 blockade, and hence other combinations might be more relevant for negative, cognitive or affective symptoms. OBSESSIVE-COMPULSIVE DISORDER: SSRI monotherapy has moderate overall average benefit in OCD and can take as long as 3 months for benefit to be decided. Antipsychotic addition may be considered in OCD with tic disorder and in refractory OCD. For OCD with poor insight (OCD with "psychotic features"), treatment of choice should be medium to high dose of SSRI, and only in refractory cases, augmentation with antipsychotics might be considered. Augmentation with haloperidol and risperidone was found to be effective (symptom reduction of more than 35%) for patients with tics. For refractory OCD, there is data suggesting a specific role for haloperidol and risperidone as well, and some data with regard to potential therapeutic benefit with olanzapine and quetiapine. ANTIPSYCHOTICS AND ADVERSE EFFECTS IN SEVERE MENTAL ILLNESS: Cardio-metabolic risk in patients with severe mental illness and especially when treated with antipsychotic agents are now much better recognized and efforts to ensure improved physical health screening and prevention are becoming established.

Comportamento sortivo, individual e competitivo, de metais pesados em Latossolos com mineralogia contrastante

O efeito poluente de elementos-traço no ambiente depende, principalmente, da capacidade dos colóides do solo em sorvê-los e mantê-los retidos com alta energia. Neste trabalho, avaliou-se a adsorção e dessorção de Cd, Cu e Pb em amostras do horizonte A de Latossolo Vermelho e Latossolo Vermelho-Amarelo com textura semelhante e mineralogia contrastante. Para isso, foram construídas isotermas de adsorção desses três metais, individual e simultaneamente, por meio da reação das amostras de solo suspensas em Ca(NO3)2 5 mmol L-1 (pH ajustado para 5,5), com soluções dos metais nas concentrações de 0; 0,01; 0,05; 0,10; 0,15; e 0,75 mmol L-1. Posteriormente, procedeu-se aos ensaios de dessorção dos elementos previamente adsorvidos em solução de Ca(NO3)2 5 mmol L-1. O modelo de isoterma de Langmuir (P < 0,01) se ajustou aos dados obtidos e ambos os solos apresentaram maior capacidade máxima de adsorção para Cu e Pb, comparados ao Cd. A adsorção simultânea reduziu a adsorção dos três metais, sendo as maiores reduções observadas para o Cd. Houve baixa dessorção dos metais adsorvidos, indicando a ocorrência de histerese. O menor poder competitivo de Cd, evidenciado pela redução da sua capacidade máxima de adsorção na presença dos outros metais, torna esse elemento altamente preocupante em solos tropicais mais intemperizados, como os Latossolos.

Mobilidade de cátions e correção da acidez de um Cambissolo em função da aplicação superficial de calcário combinado com sais de potássio

A menor reatividade do calcário abaixo dos locais de aplicação deve-se principalmente à sua baixa solubilidade, ao aumento das cargas negativas nas camadas aplicadas devido ao aumento do pH e à pequena permanência dos ânions adicionados na solução do solo. O presente trabalho teve por objetivo avaliar o efeito da adição de ânions a partir de sais de K sobre a superfície do solo, no incremento da reatividade do calcário e na mobilidade de seus cátions em um Cambissolo Húmico. O experimento foi realizado em 2005, em solo com 360 g kg-1 de argila, 60 g kg-1 de matéria orgânica e pH 4,1. Foram utilizadas três doses de calcário dolomítico (0, 0,74 e 1,48 kg m-2), combinadas com 40 g m-2 de K, na forma de KCl ou de KNO3, e com uma testemunha sem K, todos incorporados no primeiro centímetro da coluna do solo. As unidades experimentais (colunas de PVC com 10 x 30 cm, contendo 1,5 kg de solo) foram percoladas 21 vezes, a cada sete dias, com 300 mL de água destilada por semana, totalizando o equivalente a 800 mm de chuva. Os sais potássicos lixiviaram muito mais Ca e Mg do que o calcário. Na média dos três tratamentos de calagem, a adição dos sais aumentou a lixiviação total de Ca, Mg e K, respectivamente de 36 para 132 mg, de 5,8 para 26 mg e de 25 para 51 mg/coluna, relativamente ao tratamento sem adição de sal. Na ausência dos sais, a aplicação da maior dose de calcário dolomítico lixiviou apenas 5 mg de Ca e 1,2 mg/coluna de Mg, em relação ao tratamento sem calcário. A calagem superficial afetou o pH do solo e a concentração de Ca, Mg e Al trocável até a profundidade máxima de 5,0 cm, cujas alterações foram quase sempre proporcionais à dose aplicada, porém não foram influenciadas pela adição dos sais. A aplicação dos fertilizantes potássicos não influenciou a capacidade reativa do calcário aplicado na superfície do solo.

Individual patient data systematic review and meta-analysis of optic nerve sheath diameter ultrasonography for detecting raised intracranial pressure: protocol of the ONSD research group.

BACKGROUND: The purpose of the optic nerve sheath diameter (ONSD) research group project is to establish an individual patient-level database from high quality studies of ONSD ultrasonography for the detection of raised intracranial pressure (ICP), and to perform a systematic review and an individual patient data meta-analysis (IPDMA), which will provide a cutoff value to help physicians making decisions and encourage further research. Previous meta-analyses were able to assess the diagnostic accuracy of ONSD ultrasonography in detecting raised ICP but failed to determine a precise cutoff value. Thus, the ONSD research group was founded to synthesize data from several recent studies on the subject and to provide evidence on the diagnostic accuracy of ONSD ultrasonography in detecting raised ICP. METHODS: This IPDMA will be conducted in different phases. First, we will systematically search for eligible studies. To be eligible, studies must have compared ONSD ultrasonography to invasive intracranial devices, the current reference standard for diagnosing raised ICP. Subsequently, we will assess the quality of studies included based on the QUADAS-2 tool, and then collect and validate individual patient data. The objectives of the primary analyses will be to assess the diagnostic accuracy of ONSD ultrasonography and to determine a precise cutoff value for detecting raised ICP. Secondly, we will construct a logistic regression model to assess whether patient and study characteristics influence diagnostic accuracy. DISCUSSION: We believe that this IPD MA will provide the most reliable basis for the assessment of diagnostic accuracy of ONSD ultrasonography for detecting raised ICP and to provide a cutoff value. We also hope that the creation of the ONSD research group will encourage further study. TRIAL REGISTRATION: PROSPERO registration number: CRD42012003072.

Oral administration of a low dose of midazolam (75 microg) as an in vivo probe for CYP3A activity.

OBJECTIVE: We investigated whether the oral administration of a low dose (75 micro g) of midazolam, a CYP3A probe, can be used to measure the in vivo CYP3A activity. METHODS: Plasma concentrations of midazolam, 1'OH-midazolam and 4'OH-midazolam were measured after the oral administration of 7.5 mg and 75 micro g midazolam in 13 healthy subjects without medication, in four subjects pretreated for 2 days with ketoconazole (200 mg b.i.d.), a CYP3A inhibitor, and in four subjects pretreated for 4 days with rifampicin (450 mg q.d.), a CYP3A inducer. RESULTS: After oral administration of 75 micro g midazolam, the 30-min total (unconjugated + conjugated) 1'OH-midazolam/midazolam ratios measured in the groups without co-medication, with ketoconazole and with rifampicin were (mean+/-SD): 6.23+/-2.61, 0.79+/-0.39 and 56.1+/-12.4, respectively. No side effects were reported by the subjects taking this low dose of midazolam. Good correlations were observed between the 30-min total 1'OH-midazolam/midazolam ratio and midazolam clearance in the group without co-medication (r(2)=0.64, P<0.001) and in the three groups taken together (r(2)=0.91, P<0.0001). Good correlations were also observed between midazolam plasma levels and midazolam clearance, measured between 1.5 h and 4 h. CONCLUSION: A low oral dose of midazolam can be used to phenotype CYP3A, either by the determination of total 1'OH-midazolam/midazolam ratios at 30 min or by the determination of midazolam plasma levels between 1.5 h and 4 h after its administration.