Evaluation of the potential use of trabecular bone score to complement bone mineral density in the diagnosis of osteoporosis: a preliminary spine BMD-matched, case-control study.

The trabecular bone score (TBS) is a new parameter that is determined from gray-level analysis of dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DXA) images. It relies on the mean thickness and volume fraction of trabecular bone microarchitecture. This was a preliminary case-control study to evaluate the potential diagnostic value of TBS as a complement to bone mineral density (BMD), by comparing postmenopausal women with and without fractures. The sample consisted of 45 women with osteoporotic fractures (5 hip fractures, 20 vertebral fractures, and 20 other types of fracture) and 155 women without a fracture. Stratification was performed, taking into account each type of fracture (except hip), and women with and without fractures were matched for age and spine BMD. BMD and TBS were measured at the total spine. TBS measured at the total spine revealed a significant difference between the fracture and age- and spine BMD-matched nonfracture group, when considering all types of fractures and vertebral fractures. In these cases, the diagnostic value of the combination of BMD and TBS likely will be higher compared with that of BMD alone. TBS, as evaluated from standard DXA scans directly, potentially complements BMD in the detection of osteoporotic fractures. Prospective studies are necessary to fully evaluate the potential role of TBS as a complementary risk factor for fracture.

CD34/QBEND10 immunostaining in bone marrow biopsies: an additional parameter for the diagnosis and classification of myelodysplastic syndromes.

CD34/QBEND10 immunostaining has been assessed in 150 bone marrow biopsies (BMB) including 91 myelodysplastic syndromes (MDS), 16 MDS-related AML, 25 reactive BMB, and 18 cases where RA could neither be established nor ruled out. All cases were reviewed and classified according to the clinical and morphological FAB criteria. The percentage of CD34-positive (CD34 +) hematopoietic cells and the number of clusters of CD34+ cells in 10 HPF were determined. In most cases the CD34+ cell count was similar to the blast percentage determined morphologically. In RA, however, not only typical blasts but also less immature hemopoietic cells lying morphologically between blasts and promyelocytes were stained with CD34. The CD34+ cell count and cluster values were significantly higher in RA than in BMB with reactive changes (p<0.0001 for both), in RAEB than in RA (p=0.0006 and p=0.0189, respectively), in RAEBt than in RAEB (p=0.0001 and p=0.0038), and in MDS-AML than in RAEBt (p<0.0001 and p=0.0007). Presence of CD34+ cell clusters in RA correlated with increased risk of progression of the disease. We conclude that CD34 immunostaining in BMB is a useful tool for distinguishing RA from other anemias, assessing blast percentage in MDS cases, classifying them according to FAB, and following their evolution.

Role of technetium-99m diphosphonate and gallium-67 citrate bone scanning in the early diagnosis of infectious spondylodiscitis: a comparative study

A comparative study of the parts played by technetium-99m diphosphonate and gallium-67 citrate bone scanning in the early diagnosis of infectious spondylodiscitis is presented. Nineteen patients were included in the study. All patients (11 men aged 19-70 years and eight women aged 18-72 years) had a history of back pain varying in duration from one to 15 weeks. A 99mTc diphosphonate bone scan was positive in 17 patients. The two patients with negative results had less than two weeks of back pain. The 67Ga citrate bone scan showed uptake in all patients.

Risperidone versus clozapine in treatment-resistant chronic schizophrenia: a randomized double-blind study. The Risperidone Study Group.

OBJECTIVE: The purpose of this study was to compare the short-term efficacy and safety of risperidone and clozapine in treatment-resistant chronic schizophrenic patients. METHOD: In a controlled double-blind, multicenter study, 86 inpatients with chronic schizophrenia (DSM-III-R), who were resistant to or intolerant of conventional neuroleptics, were randomly assigned to receive risperidone or clozapine for 8 weeks after a 7-day washout period. After a 1-week dose-titration phase, doses were fixed at 6 mg/day of risperidone and 300 mg/day of clozapine for 1 week and then adjusted according to each patient's response. The final mean doses were 6.4 mg/day of risperidone and 291.2 mg/day of clozapine. Treatment efficacy and safety were evaluated with several well-known rating scales. RESULTS: Both risperidone and clozapine significantly reduced the severity of psychotic symptoms (scores on the Positive and Negative Syndrome Scale and the Clinical Global Impression scale) from baseline, with no significant between-group differences. At endpoint, 67% of the risperidone group and 65% of the clozapine group were clinically improved (reduction of 20% or more in total Positive and Negative Syndrome Scale score). Risperidone appeared to have a faster onset of action. In both groups extrapyramidal symptoms and other adverse events were few, and their severity was generally mild. Neither group showed evidence of a relation between drug plasma concentrations and clinical effectiveness. CONCLUSIONS: Risperidone was well tolerated and as effective as medium doses of clozapine in patients with chronic schizophrenia who had been resistant to or intolerant of conventional neuroleptics.

Quality of care and survival of haemodialysed patients in western Switzerland.

BACKGROUND: Many factors affect survival in haemodialysis (HD) patients. Our aim was to study whether quality of clinical care may affect survival in this population, when adjusted for demographic characteristics and co-morbidities. METHODS: We studied survival in 553 patients treated by chronic HD during March 2001 in 21 dialysis facilities in western Switzerland. Indicators of quality of care were established for anaemia control, calcium and phosphate product, serum albumin, pre-dialysis blood pressure (BP), type of vascular access and dialysis adequacy (spKt/V) and their baseline values were related to 3-year survival. The modified Charlson co-morbidity index (including age) and transplantation status were also considered as a predictor of survival. RESULTS: Three-year survival was obtained for 96% of the patients; 39% (211/541) of these patients had died. The 3-year survival was 50, 62 and 69%, respectively, in patients who had 0-2, 3 and >or=4 fulfilled indicators of quality of care (test for linear trend, P < 0.001). In a Cox multivariate analysis model, the absence of transplantation, a higher modified Charlson's score, decreased fulfilment of indicators of good clinical care and low pre-dialysis systolic BP were independent predictors of death. CONCLUSION: Good clinical care improves survival in HD patients, even after adjustment for availability of transplantation and co-morbidities.

Congenital diaphragmatic hernia: evaluation of prenatal diagnosis in 20 European regions.

OBJECTIVE: To evaluate prenatal diagnosis of congenital diaphragmatic hernia by ultrasound in well-defined European populations. DESIGN: Data from 20 registries of congenital malformations in 12 European countries were included. The prenatal ultrasound screening programs in the countries ranged from no routine screening to three ultrasound investigations per patient being routinely performed. RESULTS: There were 187 cases with congenital diaphragmatic hernia, with an overall prenatal detection rate of 59% (110/187). There was considerable variation in prenatal detection rate between regions. There was a significant difference in the detection rate of isolated congenital diaphragmatic hernia (59/116, 51%) compared with congenital diaphragmatic hernia associated with multiple malformations, karyotype anomalies or syndromes (51/71, 72%) (P = 0.01). Termination of pregnancy was performed in 39 cases (21%) of which 14 cases were isolated congenital diaphragmatic hernia. Mean gestational age at discovery was 24.2 weeks (range, 11-38 weeks). CONCLUSIONS: The overall prenatal detection rate of congenital diaphragmatic hernia is high (59%) but varies significantly between European regions. The gestational age at discovery was greater than 24 weeks in half of the prenatally diagnosed cases.

Increased body fat is independently and negatively related with cardiorespiratory fitness levels in children and adolescents with normal weight.

Body mass index (BMI) is related with cardiorespiratory fitness (CRF), but less is known regarding the combined relationships between BMI and body fat (BF) on CRF. Cross-sectional study included 2361 girls and 2328 boys aged 10–18 years living in the area of Lisbon, Portugal. BMI was calculated by measuring height and weight, and obesity was assessed by international criteria. BF was assessed by bioimpedance. CRF was assessed by the 20-m shuttle run and the participants were classified as normal-to-high or low-CRF level according to Fitness gram criterion-referenced standards. The prevalence of low CRF was 47 and 39% in girls and boys, respectively. The corresponding values for the prevalence of obesity were 4.8 and 5.6% (not significant) and of excess BF of 12.1 and 25.1% (P <0.001), respectively. In both sexes, BMI and BF were inversely related with CRF: r = – 0.53 and – 0.45 for BMI and % BF, respectively, in boys and the corresponding values in girls were – 0.50 and – 0.33 (all P <0.01). When compared with a participant with normal BMI and BF, the odds ratios (95% confidence interval) for low CRF were 1.94 (1.46–2.58) for a participant with normal BMI and high BF, and 6.19 (5.02–7.63) for a participant with high BMI and high BF. The prevalence of low-CRF levels is high in Portuguese youths. BF negatively influences CRF levels among children/adolescents with normal BMI.

Evaluation of prenatal diagnosis of congenital heart diseases by ultrasound: experience from 20 European registries.

OBJECTIVES: To evaluate prenatal diagnosis of congenital heart diseases by ultrasound investigation in well-defined European populations. DESIGN: Data from 20 registries of congenital malformations in 12 European countries were included. The prenatal ultrasound screening programs in the countries ranged from no routine screening to three ultrasound investigations per patient routinely performed. RESULTS: There were 2454 cases with congenital heart disease with an overall prenatal detection rate of 25%. Termination of pregnancy was performed in 293 cases (12%). There was considerable variation in prenatal detection rate between regions, with the lowest detection rates being in countries without ultrasound screening (11%) and in Eastern European countries (Croatia, Lithuania and Ukraine; 8%). In Western European countries with ultrasound screening, detection rate ranged from 19-48%. There was a significant difference in prenatal detection rate and proportion of induced abortions between isolated congenital heart disease and congenital heart disease associated with chromosome anomalies, multiple malformations and syndromes (P < 0.0001). There were 1694 cases with isolated congenital heart disease of which 16% were diagnosed prenatally. Malformations affecting the size of the ventricles were detected prenatally in half of the cases. CONCLUSIONS: Prenatal detection rate of congenital heart disease varies significantly between countries even with the same screening recommendations. The presence of associated malformations significantly increases the prenatal detection rate.

The Patientʼs Perception of Eosinophilic Esophagitis Related Symptoms: a Qualitative Content Analysis

Background and Aims: The international EEsAI study group is currently developing an activity index for Eosinophilic Esophagitis (EoE). A potential discrepancy between patient and physician reported EoE symptoms has not been assessed yet. Therefore, we aimed to evaluate patient reported items describing their EoE activity and to compare these with the physicianʼs perception. Methods: A questionnaire was sent to 100 EoE patients in Switzerland. EoE-related symptoms dependent and independent of food intake were reported by patients. Results were analyzed using a qualitative content analysis and compared with symptoms reported by international EoE experts in Delphi rounds. Results: The questionnaire response rate was 64/100. The following items were developed by combining categories based on patients answers: food-consistency related dysphagia, frequency and severity of dysphagia, food impaction, strategies to avoid food impaction, food allergy, drinking-related retrosternal pain. The following food categories associated with dysphagia were identified: meat, rice, dry bread, French fries, raw, fibrous foods, others. Sports and psychological stress were identified as triggers for non-food intake related EoE symptoms. A good correlation was found between patient and physicianʼs reported EoE related symptoms. Conclusions: There is a good correlation between patient reported symptoms and the physicianʼs perception of clinical items as reported by international EoE experts. These patient reported outcomes will now be incorporated into the EEsAI questionnaire that measures EoE activity.

Nouvelles méthodes pour le diagnostic des infections liées aux implants [New methods for the diagnosis of implant-associated infections]

For successful treatment of prosthetic joint infection, the identification of the infecting microorganism is crucial. Cultures of synovial fluid and intraoperative periprosthetic tissue represent the standard method for diagnosing prosthetic joint infection. Rapid and accurate diagnostic tools which can detect a broad range of causing microorganisms and their antimicrobial resistance are increasingly needed. With newer diagnostic techniques, such as sonication of removed implants, microcalorimetry, molecular methods and mass spectrometry, the sensitivity has been significantly increased. In this article, we describe the conventional and newer diagnostic techniques with their advantages and potential future applications.

Clinical and molecular characterization of Diastrophic Dysplasia in the Portuguese population.

SLC26A2-related dysplasias encompass a spectrum of diseases: from lethal achondrogenesis type 1B (ACG1B; MIM #600972) and atelosteogenesis type 2 (AO2; MIM #256050) to classical diastrophic dysplasia (cDTD; MIM #222600) and recessive multiple epiphyseal dysplasia (rMED; MIM #226900). This study aimed at characterizing clinically, radiologically and molecularly 14 patients affected by non-lethal SLC26A2-related dysplasias and at evaluating genotype-phenotype correlation. Phenotypically, eight patients were classified as cDTD, four patients as rMED and two patients had an intermediate phenotype (mild DTD - mDTD, previously 'DTD variant'). The Arg279Trp mutation was present in all patients, either in homozygosity (resulting in rMED) or in compound heterozygosity with the known severe alleles Arg178Ter or Asn425Asp (resulting in DTD) or with the mutation c.727-1G>C (causing mDTD). The 'Finnish mutation', c.-26+2T>C, and the p.Cys653Ser, both frequent mutations in non-Portuguese populations, were not identified in any of the patients of our cohort and are probably very rare in the Portuguese population. A targeted mutation analysis for p.Arg279Trp and p.Arg178Ter in the Portuguese population allows the identification of approximately 90% of the pathogenic alleles.

ESCMID* guideline for the diagnosis and management of Candida diseases 2012: non-neutropenic adult patients.

This part of the EFISG guidelines focuses on non-neutropenic adult patients. Only a few of the numerous recommendations can be summarized in the abstract. Prophylactic usage of fluconazole is supported in patients with recent abdominal surgery and recurrent gastrointestinal perforations or anastomotic leakages. Candida isolation from respiratory secretions alone should never prompt treatment. For the targeted initial treatment of candidaemia, echinocandins are strongly recommended while liposomal amphotericin B and voriconazole are supported with moderate, and fluconazole with marginal strength. Treatment duration for candidaemia should be a minimum of 14 days after the end of candidaemia, which can be determined by one blood culture per day until negativity. Switching to oral treatment after 10 days of intravenous therapy has been safe in stable patients with susceptible Candida species. In candidaemia, removal of indwelling catheters is strongly recommended. If catheters cannot be removed, lipid-based amphotericin B or echinocandins should be preferred over azoles. Transoesophageal echocardiography and fundoscopy should be performed to detect organ involvement. Native valve endocarditis requires surgery within a week, while in prosthetic valve endocarditis, earlier surgery may be beneficial. The antifungal regimen of choice is liposomal amphotericin B +/- flucytosine. In ocular candidiasis, liposomal amphotericin B +/- flucytosine is recommended when the susceptibility of the isolate is unknown, and in susceptible isolates, fluconazole and voriconazole are alternatives. Amphotericin B deoxycholate is not recommended for any indication due to severe side effects.