Food Indicators and Their Relationship with 10 to 12 Year-olds' Subjective Well-Being

This study aimed to test subjective indicators designed to analyze the role food plays in children’s lives, explore children’s personal well-being, and evaluate the relationship between these two phenomena. It was conducted on 371 children aged 10 to 12 by means of a selfadministered questionnaire. Results showed a marked interest in food on the part of children, who consider taste and health the most important indicators when it comes to eating. They demonstrated a high level of personal well-being, measured using Cummins & Lau’s adapted version of the Personal Well- Being Index–School Children (PWI-SC) (2005), overall life satisfaction (OLS) and satisfaction with various life domains (friends, family, sports, food and body). Regression models were conducted to explain satisfaction with food, taking as independent variables the interest children have in food, the importance they give to different reasons for eating, scores from the PWI-SC, OLS and satisfaction with various life domains. In the final model, it was found that OLS, health indicators, satisfaction with health from the PWI-SC and satisfaction with your body contribute to explaining satisfaction with food. The results obtained suggest that satisfaction with food is a relevant indicator in the exploration of children’s subjective well-being, calling into question the widespread belief that these aspects are of exclusive interest to adults. They also seem to reinforce the importance of including food indicators in any study aimed at exploring the well-being of the 10 to 12 year-old population.

Aliskiren monotherapy does not cause paradoxical blood pressure rises: meta-analysis of data from 8 clinical trials.

Angiotensin receptor blockers, angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors, and diuretics all cause reactive rises in plasma renin concentration, but particularly high levels have been reported with aliskiren. This prompted speculation that blockade of plasma renin activity with aliskiren could be overwhelmed, leading to paradoxical increases in blood pressure. This meta-analysis of data from 4877 patients from 8 randomized, double-blind, placebo- and/or active-controlled trials examined this hypothesis. The analysis focused on the incidence of paradoxical blood pressure increases above predefined thresholds, after > or =4 weeks of treatment with 300 mg of aliskiren, angiotensin receptor blockers (300 mg of irbesartan, 100 mg of losartan, or 320 mg of valsartan), 10 mg of ramipril, 25 mg of hydrochlorothiazide, or placebo. There were no significant differences in the frequency of increases in systolic (>10 mm Hg; P=0.30) or diastolic (>5 mm Hg; P=0.65) pressure among those treated with aliskiren (3.9% and 3.1%, respectively), angiotensin receptor blockers (4.0% and 3.7%), ramipril (5.7% and 2.6%), or hydrochlorothiazide (4.4% and 2.7%). Increases in blood pressure were considerably more frequent in the placebo group (12.6% and 11.4%; P<0.001). None of the 536 patients with plasma renin activity data who received 300 mg of aliskiren exhibited an increase in systolic pressure >10 mm Hg that was associated with an increase in plasma renin activity >0.1 ng/mL per hour. In conclusion, the incidence of blood pressure increases with aliskiren was similar to that during treatment with other antihypertensive drugs. Blood pressure rises on aliskiren treatment were not associated with increases in plasma renin activity. This meta-analysis found no evidence that aliskiren uniquely causes paradoxical rises in blood pressure.

Combined endoscopic-laparoscopic resection of colon polyps.

Aims: To analyze the current literature on combined endoscopic-laparoscopic resection of colon polyps and to compare this new approach to standard laparoscopic colonic resection for polyps not suitable for endoscopic resection. Results: Several studies demonstrated that with a combined endoscopic-laparoscopic approach, polyps were successfully resected in 82-91% with a low morbidity of 3-10% and a short hospital stay of 1-2 days. Segmental laparoscopic resection was necessary in only 9-12%, but had a conversion rate to open surgery of 15% with an average hospital stay of 6-11 days. A cancerous polyp was found in 6-13% after a combined approach, with lymph node metastasis in 6%. Recurrent polyps after a combined endoscopic-laparoscopic resection seem to be rare, but follow-up of most studies is short and incomplete. Conclusion: Combined endoscopic-laparoscopic resection of colon polyps is feasible, safe, and has a high success rate. Malignant lesions can be treated laparoscopically during the same operation, avoiding the need for a second procedure, and with good long-term oncologic outcome.

Electrical conductivity testing of corn seeds as influenced by temperature and period of storage

The objective of this work was to evaluate the effects of temperature (10, 20, 30, 20/10 and 30/10ºC) and period of storage on electrical conductivity (EC) in four seed lots of corn (Zea mays L.), as well as the mineral composition of the soaking solution. EC test determines indirectly the integrity of seed membrane systems, and is used for the assessment of seed vigor, because this test detects the seed deterioration process since its early phase. The research comprised determinations of water content, germination, accelerated aging (AA), cold (CT) and EC vigor tests, and determinations of Ca2+, Mg2+ and K+ release to the solution, after seed soaking of four corn seed lots. The evaluations were performed each four months during a period of 16 months. For statistical analysis, a completely randomized split plot design was used with eight replications. Except for seed lots stored at 10ºC, all vigor evaluations revealed a decline in vigor, but AA and CT showed more sensitiveness to declines of seed physiological quality than EC. Potassium was the main leached ion regardless of the storage temperature.

Evaluation of the Iowa Department of Transportation's Compensatory Wetland Mitigation Program, TR-500, 2004

The purpose of this investigation was to evaluate the Compensatory Wetland Mitigation Program at the Iowa Department of Transportation (DOT) in terms of regulatory compliance. Specific objectives included: 1) Determining if study sites meet the definition of a jurisdictional wetland. 2) Determining the degree of compliance with requirements specified in Clean Water Act Section 404 permits. A total of 24 study sites, in four age classes were randomly selected from over 80 sites currently managed by the Iowa DOT. Wetland boundaries were delineated in the field and mitigation compliance was determined by comparing the delineated wetland acreage at each study site to the total wetland acreage requirements specified in individual CWA Section 404 permits. Of the 24 sites evaluated in this study, 58 percent meet or exceed Section 404 permit requirements. Net gain ranged from 0.19 acre to 27.2 acres. Net loss ranged from 0.2 acre to 14.6 acres. The Denver Bypass 1 site was the worst performer, with zero acres of wetland present on the site and the Akron Wetland Mitigation Site was the best performer with slightly more than 27 acres over the permit requirement. Five of the 10 under-performing sites are more than five years post construction, two are five years post construction, one is three years post construction and the remaining two are one year post construction. Of the sites that meet or exceed permit requirements, approximately 93 percent are five years or less post construction and approximately 43 percent are only one year old. Only one of the 14 successful sites is more than five years old. Using Section 404 permit acreage requirements as the criteria for measuring success, 58 percent of the wetland mitigation sites investigated as part of this study are successful. Using net gain/loss as the measure of success, the Compensatory Wetland Mitigation Program has been successful in creating/restoring nearly 44 acres of wetland over what was required by permits.

Microbial communities in a porphyry copper tailings impoundment and their impact on the geochemical dynamics of the mine waste

The distribution and diversity of acidophilic bacteria of a tailings impoundment at the La Andina copper mine, Chile, was examined. The tailings have low sulfide (1.7% pyrite equivalent) and carbonate (1.4% calcite equivalent) contents and are stratified into three distinct zones: a surface (0-70-80 cm) `oxidation zone' characterized by low-pH (2.5-4), a `neutralization zone' (70-80 to 300-400 cm) and an unaltered `primary zone' below 400 cm. A combined cultivation-dependent and biomolecular approach (terminal restriction enzyme fragment length polymorphism and 16S rRNA clone library analysis) was used to characterize the indigenous prokaryotic communities in the mine tailings. Total cell counts showed that the microbial biomass was greatest in the top 125 cm of the tailings. The largest numbers of bacteria (10(9) g(-1) dry weight of tailings) were found at the oxidation front (the junction between the oxidation and neutralization zones), where sulfide minerals and oxygen were both present. The dominant iron-/sulfur-oxidizing bacteria identified at the oxidation front included bacteria of the genus Leptospirillum (detected by molecular methods), and Gram-positive iron-oxidizing acidophiles related to Sulfobacillus (identified both by molecular and cultivation methods). Acidithiobacillus ferrooxidans was also detected, albeit in relatively small numbers. Heterotrophic acidophiles related to Acidobacterium capsulatum were found by molecular methods, while another Acidobacterium-like bacterium and an Acidiphilium sp. were isolated from oxidation zone samples. A conceptual model was developed, based on microbiological and geochemical data derived from the tailings, to account for the biogeochemical evolution of the Piuquenes tailings impoundment.

Quantification of magmatic and hydrothermal processes in a peralkaline syenite-alkali granite complex based on textures, phase equilibria, and stable and radiogenic isotopes

The Puklen complex of the Mid-Proterozoic Gardar Province, South Greenland, consists of various silica-saturated to quartz-bearing syenites, which are intruded by a peralkaline granite. The primary mafic minerals in the syenites are augite +/- olivine + Fe-Ti oxide + amphibole. Ternary feldspar thermometry and phase equilibria among mafic silicates yield T = 950-750degreesC, a(SiO2) = 0.7-1 and an f(O2) of 1-3 log units below the fayalite-magnetite-quartz (FMQ) buffer at 1 kbar. In the granites, the primary mafic minerals are ilmenite and Li-bearing arfvedsonite, which crystallized at temperatures below 750degreesC and at f(O2) values around the FMQ buffer. In both rock types, a secondary post-magmatic assemblage overprints the primary magmatic phases. In syenites, primary Ca-bearing minerals are replaced by Na-rich minerals such as aegirine-augite and albite, resulting in the release of Ca. Accordingly, secondary minerals include ferro-actinolite, (calcite-siderite)(ss), titanite and andradite in equilibrium with the Na-rich minerals. Phase equilibria indicate that formation of these minerals took place over a long temperature interval from near-magmatic temperatures down to similar to300degreesC. In the course of this cooling, oxygen fugacity rose in most samples. For example, late-stage aegirine in granites formed at the expense of arfvedsonite at temperatures below 300degreesC and at an oxygen fugacity above the haematite-magnetite (HM) buffer. The calculated delta(18)O(melt) value for the syenites (+5.9 to +6.3parts per thousand) implies a mantle origin, whereas the inferred delta(18)O(melt) value of <+5.1parts per thousand for the granitic melts is significantly lower. Thus, the granites require an additional low-delta(18)O contaminant, which was not involved in the genesis of the syenites. Rb/Sr data for minerals of both rock types indicate open-system behaviour for Rb and Sr during post-magmatic metasomatism. Neodymium isotope compositions (epsilonNd(1170 Ma) = -3.8 to -6.4) of primary minerals in syenites are highly variable, and suggest that assimilation of crustal rocks occurred to variable extents. Homogeneous epsilon(Nd) values of -5.9 and -6.0 for magmatic amphibole in the granites lie within the range of the syenites. Because of the very similar neodymium isotopic compositions of magmatic and late- to post-magmatic minerals from the same syenite samples a principally closed-system behaviour during cooling is implied. In contrast, for the granites an externally derived fluid phase is required to explain the extremely low epsilon(Nd) values of about -10 and low delta(18)O between +2.0 and +0.5parts per thousand for late-stage aegirine, indicating an open system in the late-stage history. In this study we show that the combination of phase equilibria constraints with stable and radiogenic isotope data on mineral separates can provide much better constraints on magma evolution during emplacement and crystallization than conventional whole-rock studies.

Long-term and long-range migration of radioactive fallout in a Karst system.

Mountainous areas are often covered by little evolved soils from which deposited radionuclides can potentially leak into the vadose zone. In the Swiss Jura mountains, we observed unusual isotopic ratios of nuclear weapon test (NWTs) fallout with an apparent loss of NWTs plutonium relative to &supl;³⁷Cs of Chernobyl origin in thinner soils. Here, we studied the karstic watershed of a vauclusian spring to determine the residence times of plutonium, ²⁴&supl;Am, and ⁹⁰Sr deposited by global fallout and their respective mobility in carbonaceous soils. The results show that ⁹⁰Sr is washed most efficiently from the watershed with a residence time of several hundred years. The estimated plutonium residence time is more than 10 times higher (in the range of 5000-10,000 years), and the ²⁴&supl;Am residence time is double that of plutonium. The spring water ²⁴&supl;Am/²³⁹+²⁴⁰Pu isotopic ratio is lower (0.12 - 0.28) than found in watershed soils (0.382 ± 0.077). Similar differences are found in aquatic mosses (²⁴&supl;Am/²³⁹+²⁴⁰Pu isotopic ratio 0.05-0.12), which are permanently submerged in spring waters. In contrast to plutonium, ⁹⁰Sr is leached from these mosses with 0.5M HCl, demonstrating that strontium is probably associated with calcium carbonate precipitations on the mosses. The higher plutonium to americium isotopic ratio found in the samples of spring water and mosses at the outlet of the karst shows that plutonium mobility is enhanced.

Cumulative Shapes of Knotted Polymers

We investigate the influence of knotting and chirality on the shape of knotted polygons forming trefoil knots compared to unknotted polygons by aligning independent configurations along their principal inertial axes. While for six edge polygons forming trefoil knots the chiral knotted structure is revealed in the isodensity profiles, the distinct chiral signature of the trefoil is significantly diminished with 24 edges. We observe that as the number of edges in the polygons increases, the cumulative shapes of trefoil knots progressively approach the cumulative shapes for unknotted polygons.

Effects of trimethyltin (TMT) on glial and neuronal cells in aggregate cultures: dependence on the developmental stage.

Long-term effects of trimethyltin (TMT) applied at concentrations below the cytotoxic level were examined in three-dimensional cell cultures of fetal rat telencephalon using biochemical, immunochemical and morphological criteria. It was found that in immature cultures low concentrations of TMT (10(-8) M) specifically induced a gliotic response in astrocytes, with increased immunoreactivity for glial fibrillary acidic protein, and a greater number of astrocytic processes. Significant changes in oligodendrocytic and neuronal parameters were found only at 10(-6) M of TMT. In differentiated cultures, distinct changes in cell type-specific parameters occurred at 10(-6) M of TMT (the lowest effective concentration). In addition, different patterns of responses were found for astrocytes and oligodendrocytes, as compared to immature cultures. These results suggest that among neural cells, astroblasts are most sensitive to TMT, and that the glial responses to this neurotoxicant are development-dependent.

A biophysical model of atrial fibrillation ablation: what can a surgeon learn from a computer model?

AIMS: Surgical ablation procedures for treating atrial fibrillation have been shown to be highly successful. However, the ideal ablation pattern still remains to be determined. This article reports on a systematic study of the effectiveness of the performance of different ablation line patterns. METHODS AND RESULTS: This study of ablation line patterns was performed in a biophysical model of human atria by combining basic lines: (i) in the right atrium: isthmus line, line between vena cavae and appendage line and (ii) in the left atrium: several versions of pulmonary vein isolation, connection of pulmonary veins, isthmus line, and appendage line. Success rates and the presence of residual atrial flutter were documented. Basic patterns yielded conversion rates of only 10-25 and 10-55% in the right and the left atria, respectively. The best result for pulmonary vein isolation was obtained when a single closed line encompassed all veins (55%). Combination of lines in the right/left atrium only led to a success rate of 65/80%. Higher rates, up to 90-100%, could be obtained if right and left lines were combined. The inclusion of a left isthmus line was found to be essential for avoiding uncommon left atrial flutter. CONCLUSION: Some patterns studied achieved a high conversion rate, although using a smaller number of lines than those of the Maze III procedure. The biophysical atrial model is shown to be effective in the search for promising alternative ablation strategies.

Effects of verapamil and ryanodine on activity of the embryonic chick heart during anoxia and reoxygenation.

Perturbations of the trans-sarcolemmal and sarcoplasmic Ca2+ transport contribute to the abnormal myocardial activity provoked by anoxia and reoxygenation. Whether Ca2+ pools of the extracellular compartment and sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR) are involved to the same extent in the dysfunction of the anoxic-reoxygenated immature heart has not been investigated. Spontaneously contracting hearts isolated from 4-day-old chick embryos were submitted to repeated anoxia (1 min) followed by reoxygenation (5 min). Heart rate, atrioventricular propagation velocity, ventricular shortening, velocities of contraction and relaxation, and incidence of arrhythmias were studied, recorded continuously. Addition of verapamil (10 nM), which blocks selectively sarcolemmal L-type Ca2+ channels, was expected to protect against excessive entry of extracellular Ca2+, whereas addition of ryanodine (10 nM), which opens the SR Ca2+ release channel, was expected to increase cytosolic Ca2+ concentration. Verapamil (a) had no dromotropic effect by contrast to adult heart, (b) attenuated ventricular contracture induced by repeated anoxia, (c) shortened cardioplegia induced by reoxygenation, and (d) had remarkable antiarrhythmic properties during reoxygenation specially. On the other hand, ryanodine potentiated markedly arrhythmias both during anoxia and at reoxygenation. Thus despite its immaturity, the SR seems to be functional early in the developing chick heart and involved in the reversible dysfunction induced by anoxia-reoxygenation. Moreover, Ca2+ entry through L-type channels appears to worsen arrhythmias especially during reoxygenation. These findings show that the Ca2+-handling systems involved in irregular activity in immature heart, such as the embryonic chick heart, may differ from those in the adult.

The human Rad52 protein exists as a heptameric ring.

The RAD52 epistasis group was identified in yeast as a group of genes required to repair DNA damaged by ionizing radiation [1]. Genetic evidence indicates that Rad52 functions in Rad51-dependent and Rad51-independent recombination pathways [2] [3] [4]. Consistent with this, purified yeast and human Rad52 proteins have been shown to promote single-strand DNA annealing [5] [6] [7] and to stimulate Rad51-mediated homologous pairing [8] [9] [10] [11]. Electron microscopic examinations of the yeast [12] and human [13] Rad52 proteins have revealed their assembly into ring-like structures in vitro. Using both conventional transmission electron microscopy and scanning transmission electron microscopy (STEM), we found that the human Rad52 protein forms heptameric rings. A three-dimensional (3D) reconstruction revealed that the heptamer has a large central channel. Like the hexameric helicases such as Escherichia coli DnaB [14] [15], bacteriophage T7 gp4b [16] [17], simian virus 40 (SV40) large T antigen [18] and papilloma virus E1 [19], the Rad52 rings show a distinctly chiral arrangement of subunits. Thus, the structures formed by the hexameric helicases may be a more general property of other proteins involved in DNA metabolism, including those, such as Rad52, that do not bind and hydrolyze ATP.

Impact of soluble CD26 on treatment outcome and hepatitis C virus-specific T cells in chronic hepatitis C virus genotype 1 infection.

BACKGROUND: Interferon and ribavirin therapy for chronic hepatitis C virus (HCV) infection yields sustained virological response (SVR) rates of 50-80%. Several factors such as non-1 genotype, beneficial IL28B genetic variants, low baseline IP-10, and the functionality of HCV-specific T cells predict SVR. With the pending introduction of new therapies for HCV entailing very rapid clearance of plasma HCV RNA, the importance of baseline biomarkers likely will increase in order to tailor therapy. CD26 (DPPIV) truncates the chemokine IP-10 into a shorter antagonistic form, and this truncation of IP-10 has been suggested to influence treatment outcome in patients with chronic HCV infection patients. In addition, previous reports have shown CD26 to be a co-stimulator for T cells. The aim of the present study was to assess the utility of CD26 as a biomarker for treatment outcome in chronic hepatitis C and to define its association with HCV-specific T cells. METHODS: Baseline plasma from 153 genotype 1 and 58 genotype 2/3 infected patients enrolled in an international multicenter phase III trial (DITTO-HCV) and 36 genotype 1 infected patients participating in a Swedish trial (TTG1) were evaluated regarding baseline soluble CD26 (sCD26) and the functionality of HCV-specific CD8(+) T cells. RESULTS: Genotype 1 infected patients achieving SVR in the DITTO (P = 0.002) and the TTG1 (P = 0.02) studies had lower pretreatment sCD26 concentrations compared with non-SVR patients. Sixty-five percent of patients with sCD26 concentrations below 600 ng/mL achieved SVR compared with 39% of the patients with sCD26 exceeding 600 ng/mL (P = 0.01). Patients with sCD26 concentrations below 600 ng/mL had significantly higher frequencies of HCV-specific CD8(+) T cells (P = 0.02). CONCLUSIONS: Low baseline systemic concentrations of sCD26 predict favorable treatment outcome in chronic HCV infection and may be associated with higher blood counts of HCV-specific CD8(+) T cells.

CD4+CD25+ T cell depletion impairs tolerance induction in a murine model of asthma.

BACKGROUND: Regulatory T cells (Tregs) are key players in controlling the development of airway inflammation. However, their role in the mechanisms leading to tolerance in established allergic asthma is unclear. OBJECTIVE: To examine the role of Tregs in tolerance induction in a murine model of asthma. METHODS: Ovalbumin (OVA) sensitized asthmatic mice were depleted or not of CD25(+) T cells by anti-CD25 PC61 monoclonal antibody (mAb) before intranasal treatment (INT) with OVA, then challenged with OVA aerosol. To further evaluate the respective regulatory activity of CD4(+)CD25(+) and CD4(+)CD25(-) T cells, both T cell subsets were transferred from tolerized or non-tolerized animals to asthmatic recipients. Bronchoalveolar lavage fluid (BALF), T cell proliferation and cytokine secretion were examined. RESULTS: Intranasal treatment with OVA led to increased levels of IL-10, TGF-beta and IL-17 in lung homogenates, inhibition of eosinophil recruitment into the BALF and antigen specific T cell hyporesponsiveness. CD4(+)CD25(+)Foxp3(+) T cells were markedly upregulated in lungs and suppressed in vitro and in vivo OVA-specific T cell responses. Depletion of CD25(+) cells before OVA INT severely hampered tolerance induction as indicated by a strong recruitment of eosinophils into BALF and a vigorous T cell response to OVA upon challenge. However, the transfer of CD4(+)CD25(-) T cells not only suppressed antigen specific T cell responsiveness but also significantly reduced eosinophil recruitment as opposed to CD4(+)CD25(+) T cells. As compared with control mice, a significantly higher proportion of CD4(+)CD25(-) T cells from OVA treated mice expressed mTGF-beta. CONCLUSION: Both CD4(+)CD25(+) and CD4(+)CD25(-) T cells appear to be essential to tolerance induction. The relationship between both subsets and the mechanisms of their regulatory activity will have to be further analyzed.