998 resultados para heat value


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Canadian healthcare is changing. Over the course of the past decade, the Health Care in Canada Survey (HCIC) has annually measured the reactions of the public and professional stakeholders to many of these change forces. In HCIC 2008, for the first time, the public's perception of their health status and all stakeholders' views of the burden and effective management of chronic diseases were sought. Overall, Canadians perceive themselves as healthy, with 84% of adults reporting good-to-excellent health. However, good health decreased with age as the occurrence of chronic illness rose, from 12% in the age group 18-24 to 65% for the population =65 years. More than 70% of all stakeholders were strongly or somewhat supportive of the implementation of coordinated care, or disease management programs, to improve the care of patients with chronic illnesses. Concordant support was also expressed for key disease management components, including coordinated interventions to improve home, community and self-care; increased wellness promotion; and increased use of clinical measurements and feedback to all stakeholders. However, there were also important areas of non-concordance. For example, the public and doctors consistently expressed less support than other stakeholders for the value of team care, including the use of non-physician professionals to provide patient care; increased patient involvement in decision-making; and the use of electronic health records to facilitate communication. The actual participation in disease management programs averaged 34% for professionals and 25% for the public. We conclude that chronic diseases are common, age-related and burdensome in Canada. Disease management or coordinated intervention often delivered by teams is also relatively common, despite its less-than-universal acceptance by all stakeholders. Further insights are needed, particularly into the variable perceptions of the value and efficacy of team-delivered healthcare and its important components.

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By means of confocal laser scanning microscopy and indirect fluorescence experiments we have examined the behavior of heat-shock protein 70 (HSP70) within the nucleus as well as of a nuclear matrix protein (M(r) = 125 kDa) during a prolonged heat-shock response (up to 24 h at 42 degrees C) in HeLa cells. In control cells HSP70 was mainly located in the cytoplasm. The protein translocated within the nucleus upon cell exposure to hyperthermia. The fluorescent pattern revealed by monoclonal antibody to HSP70 exhibited several changes during the 24-h-long incubation. The nuclear matrix protein showed changes in its location that were evident as early as 1 h after initiation of heat shock. After 7 h of treatment, the protein regained its original distribution. However, in the late stages of the hyperthermic treatment (17-24 h) the fluorescent pattern due to 125-kDa protein changed again and its original distribution was never observed again. These results show that HSP70 changes its localization within the nucleus conceivably because it is involved in solubilizing aggregated polypeptides present in different nuclear regions. Our data also strengthen the contention that proteins of the insoluble nucleoskeleton are involved in nuclear structure changes that occur during heat-shock response.

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We tested whether individuals can exert control over the expression of attitudinal ambivalence and if this control is exerted with self-presentational concerns. Using the self-presentation paradigm, participants reported more ambivalence about Genetically Modified Organisms ("GMO") in a standard and a self-enhancement (present yourself positively) conditions than in a self-depreciation (present yourself negatively) condition, on both felt (Experiments 1a and 2a) and potential ambivalence, in its cognitive (Experiments 1b and 2b) and affective components (Experiments 1b and 2c). The role of ambivalent attitudes in conveying a positive social value was confirmed by the fact that the above effect was found on a controversial attitude object (GMOs) but the opposite appeared on a non-controversial one (e.g. tooth brushing, a truism; Experiment 3). Such a reversal was obtained by directly manipulating the perception of controversy on GMOs (Experiment 4). Attitudinal ambivalence may thus serve an adaptive function, i.e. achieving a positive social value.

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OBJECTIVE: Fibrotic changes are initiated early in acute respiratory distress syndrome. This may involve overproliferation of alveolar type II cells. In an animal model of acute respiratory distress syndrome, we have shown that the administration of an adenoviral vector overexpressing the 70-kd heat shock protein (AdHSP) limited pathophysiological changes. We hypothesized that this improvement may be modulated, in part, by an early AdHSP-induced attenuation of alveolar type II cell proliferation. DESIGN: Laboratory investigation. SETTING: Hadassah-Hebrew University and University of Pennsylvania animal laboratories. SUBJECTS: Sprague-Dawley Rats (250 g). INTERVENTIONS: Lung injury was induced in male Sprague-Dawley rats via cecal ligation and double puncture. At the time of cecal ligation and double puncture, we injected phosphate-buffered saline, AdHSP, or AdGFP (an adenoviral vector expressing the marker green fluorescent protein) into the trachea. Rats then received subcutaneous bromodeoxyuridine. In separate experiments, A549 cells were incubated with medium, AdHSP, or AdGFP. Some cells were also stimulated with tumor necrosis factor-alpha. After 48 hrs, cytosolic and nuclear proteins from rat lungs or cell cultures were isolated. These were subjected to immunoblotting, immunoprecipitation, electrophoretic mobility shift assay, fluorescent immunohistochemistry, and Northern blot analysis. MEASUREMENTS AND MAIN RESULTS: Alveolar type I cells were lost within 48 hrs of inducing acute respiratory distress syndrome. This was accompanied by alveolar type II cell proliferation. Treatment with AdHSP preserved alveolar type I cells and limited alveolar type II cell proliferation. Heat shock protein 70 prevented overexuberant cell division, in part, by inhibiting hyperphosphorylation of the regulatory retinoblastoma protein. This prevented retinoblastoma protein ubiquitination and degradation and, thus, stabilized the interaction of retinoblastoma protein with E2F1, a key cell division transcription factor. CONCLUSIONS: : Heat shock protein 70-induced attenuation of cell proliferation may be a useful strategy for limiting lung injury when treating acute respiratory distress syndrome if consistent in later time points.

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OBJECTIVE: To evaluate the power of various parameters of the vestibulo-ocular reflex (VOR) in detecting unilateral peripheral vestibular dysfunction and in characterizing certain inner ear pathologies. STUDY DESIGN: Prospective study of consecutive ambulatory patients presenting with acute onset of peripheral vertigo and spontaneous nystagmus. SETTING: Tertiary referral center. PATIENTS: Seventy-four patients (40 females, 34 males) and 22 normal subjects (11 females, 11 males) were included in the study. Patients were classified in three main diagnoses: vestibular neuritis: 40; viral labyrinthitis: 22; Meniere's disease: 12. METHODS: The VOR function was evaluated by standard caloric and impulse rotary tests (velocity step). A mathematical model of vestibular function was used to characterize the VOR response to rotational stimulation. The diagnostic value of the different VOR parameters was assessed by uni- and multivariable logistic regression. RESULTS: In univariable analysis, caloric asymmetry emerged as the most powerful VOR parameter in identifying unilateral vestibular deficit, with a boundary limit set at 20%. In multivariable analysis, the combination of caloric asymmetry and rotational time constant asymmetry significantly improved the discriminatory power over caloric alone (p<0.0001) and produced a detection score with a correct classification of 92.4%. In discriminating labyrinthine diseases, different combinations of the VOR parameters were obtained for each diagnosis (p<0.003) supporting that the VOR characteristics differ between the three inner ear disorders. However, the clinical usefulness of these characteristics in separating the pathologies was limited. CONCLUSION: We propose a powerful logistic model combining the indices of caloric and time constant asymmetries to detect a peripheral vestibular loss, with an accuracy of 92.4%. Based on vestibular data only, the discrimination between the different inner ear diseases is statistically possible, which supports different pathophysiologic changes in labyrinthine pathologies.

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The net mechanical efficiency of positive work (eta(pos)) has been shown to increase if it is immediately preceded by negative work. This phenomenon is explained by the storage of elastic energy during the negative phase and its release during the subsequent positive phase. If a transition time (T) takes place, the elastic energy is dissipated into heat. The aim of the present study was to investigate the relationship between eta(pos) and T, and to determine the minimal T required so that eta(pos) reached its minimal value. Seven healthy male subjects were tested during four series of lowering-raising of the body mass. In the first series (S (0)), the negative and positive phases were executed without any transition time. In the three other series, T was varied by a timer (0.12, 0.24 and 0.56 s for series S (1), S (2) and S (3), respectively). These exercises were performed on a force platform sensitive to vertical forces to measure the mechanical work and a gas analyser was used to determine the energy expenditure. The results indicated that eta(pos) was the highest (31.1%) for the series without any transition time (S (0)). The efficiencies observed with transition times (S (1), S (2) and S (3)) were 27.7, 26.0 and 23.8%, respectively, demonstrating that T plays an important role for mechanical efficiency. The investigation of the relationship between eta(pos) and T revealed that the minimal T required so that eta(pos) reached its minimal value is 0.59 s.

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Background and aim of the study: Genomic gains and losses play a crucial role in the development and progression of DLBCL and are closely related to gene expression profiles (GEP), including the germinal center B-cell like (GCB) and activated B-cell like (ABC) cell of origin (COO) molecular signatures. To identify new oncogenes or tumor suppressor genes (TSG) involved in DLBCL pathogenesis and to determine their prognostic values, an integrated analysis of high-resolution gene expression and copy number profiling was performed. Patients and methods: Two hundred and eight adult patients with de novo CD20+ DLBCL enrolled in the prospective multicentric randomized LNH-03 GELA trials (LNH03-1B, -2B, -3B, 39B, -5B, -6B, -7B) with available frozen tumour samples, centralized reviewing and adequate DNA/RNA quality were selected. 116 patients were treated by Rituximab(R)-CHOP/R-miniCHOP and 92 patients were treated by the high dose (R)-ACVBP regimen dedicated to patients younger than 60 years (y) in frontline. Tumour samples were simultaneously analysed by high resolution comparative genomic hybridization (CGH, Agilent, 144K) and gene expression arrays (Affymetrix, U133+2). Minimal common regions (MCR), as defined by segments that affect the same chromosomal region in different cases, were delineated. Gene expression and MCR data sets were merged using Gene expression and dosage integrator algorithm (GEDI, Lenz et al. PNAS 2008) to identify new potential driver genes. Results: A total of 1363 recurrent (defined by a penetrance > 5%) MCRs within the DLBCL data set, ranging in size from 386 bp, affecting a single gene, to more than 24 Mb were identified by CGH. Of these MCRs, 756 (55%) showed a significant association with gene expression: 396 (59%) gains, 354 (52%) single-copy deletions, and 6 (67%) homozygous deletions. By this integrated approach, in addition to previously reported genes (CDKN2A/2B, PTEN, DLEU2, TNFAIP3, B2M, CD58, TNFRSF14, FOXP1, REL...), several genes targeted by gene copy abnormalities with a dosage effect and potential physiopathological impact were identified, including genes with TSG activity involved in cell cycle (HACE1, CDKN2C) immune response (CD68, CD177, CD70, TNFSF9, IRAK2), DNA integrity (XRCC2, BRCA1, NCOR1, NF1, FHIT) or oncogenic functions (CD79b, PTPRT, MALT1, AUTS2, MCL1, PTTG1...) with distinct distribution according to COO signature. The CDKN2A/2B tumor suppressor locus (9p21) was deleted homozygously in 27% of cases and hemizygously in 9% of cases. Biallelic loss was observed in 49% of ABC DLBCL and in 10% of GCB DLBCL. This deletion was strongly correlated to age and associated to a limited number of additional genetic abnormalities including trisomy 3, 18 and short gains/losses of Chr. 1, 2, 19 regions (FDR < 0.01), allowing to identify genes that may have synergistic effects with CDKN2A/2B inactivation. With a median follow-up of 42.9 months, only CDKN2A/2B biallelic deletion strongly correlates (FDR p.value < 0.01) to a poor outcome in the entire cohort (4y PFS = 44% [32-61] respectively vs. 74% [66-82] for patients in germline configuration; 4y OS = 53% [39-72] vs 83% [76-90]). In a Cox proportional hazard prediction of the PFS, CDKN2A/2B deletion remains predictive (HR = 1.9 [1.1-3.2], p = 0.02) when combined with IPI (HR = 2.4 [1.4-4.1], p = 0.001) and GCB status (HR = 1.3 [0.8-2.3], p = 0.31). This difference remains predictive in the subgroup of patients treated by R-CHOP (4y PFS = 43% [29-63] vs. 66% [55-78], p=0.02), in patients treated by R-ACVBP (4y PFS = 49% [28-84] vs. 83% [74-92], p=0.003), and in GCB (4y PFS = 50% [27-93] vs. 81% [73-90], p=0.02), or ABC/unclassified (5y PFS = 42% [28-61] vs. 67% [55-82] p = 0.009) molecular subtypes (Figure 1). Conclusion: We report for the first time an integrated genetic analysis of a large cohort of DLBCL patients included in a prospective multicentric clinical trial program allowing identifying new potential driver genes with pathogenic impact. However CDKN2A/2B deletion constitutes the strongest and unique prognostic factor of chemoresistance to R-CHOP, regardless the COO signature, which is not overcome by a more intensified immunochemotherapy. Patients displaying this frequent genomic abnormality warrant new and dedicated therapeutic approaches.

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The whole body sweating response was measured at rest in eight women during the follicular (F) and the luteal (L) phases of the menstrual cycle. Subjects were exposed for 30-min to neutral (N) environmental conditions [ambient temperature (Ta) 28 degrees C] and then for 90-min to warm (W) environmental conditions (Ta, 35 degrees C) in a direct calorimeter. At the end of the N exposure, tympanic temperature (Tty) was 0.18 (SEM 0.06) degrees C higher in the L than in the F phase (P less than 0.05), whereas mean skin temperature (Tsk) was unchanged. During W exposure, the time to the onset of sweating as well as the concomitant increase in body heat content were similar in both phases. At the onset of sweating, the tympanic threshold temperature (Tty,thresh) was higher in the L phase [37.18 (SEM 0.08) degrees C] than in the F phase [36.95 (SEM 0.07) degrees C; P less than 0.01]. The magnitude of the shift in Tty,thresh [0.23 (SEM 0.07) degrees C] was similar to the L-F difference in Tty observed at the end of the N exposure. The mean skin threshold temperature was not statistically different between the two phases. The slope of the relationship between sweating rate and Tty was similar in F and L. It was concluded that the internal set point temperature of resting women exposed to warm environmental conditions shifted to a higher value during the L phase compared to the F phase of the menstrual cycle; and that the magnitude of the shift corresponded to the difference in internal temperature observed in neutral environmental conditions between the two phases.

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PURPOSE: To determine the role of Indocyanin Green (ICG) angiography in localizing occult new vessels associated with age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) and assess the possibilities of ICG guided laser photocoagulations. PATIENTS AND METHODS: Fluorescein and ICG angiographies (IMAGEnet system) of 62 patients with occult new vessels (ONV), serous (SPED) or vascular (VPED) pigment epithelium detachment have been studied. RESULTS: Based on fondoscopic examination and fluorescein angiography, 43 eyes (69%) disclosed ONV, 8 (13%) SPED and 11 (18%) VPED. Choroidal neovascularisation was confirmed by ICG angiography in 37 ONV cases (86%), in 8 (72%) VPED cases, but in no SPED. Conversion of ONV in classical neovascular membranes was possible in 19 ONV cases (44%) and in 6 (54%) VPED cases, making a laser photocoagulation possible in 9 eyes (36%). CONCLUSION: ICG angiography plays an important role in the evaluation, classification and laser treatment of patients with ONV secondary to ARMD.

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Doing too much on a hot day, spending too much time in the sun or staying too long in an overheated place can cause heat-related illnesses. Know the symptoms of heat disorders and overexposure to the sun, and be ready to give first aid treatment.

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Purpose: To evaluate the diagnostic value of specific MR features for detection of suspected placental invasion according to observers' experience.Methods and Materials: Our study population included 25 pregnant women (mean age 35.16) investigated by prenatal MRI. In twelve out of them placental invasion was histopathologically proven, the 13 other women (52%) without placental invasion served as control group. Multiplanar T1- and T2-weighted sequences had been performed mostly without IV contrast injection (1.5 T). MR examinations of the two groups were rendered anonymous, mixed, then independently and retrospectively reviewed by two senior and two junior radiologists in view of 8 MR features indicating placentar invasion including the degree. Results were compared with surgical diagnosis (placenta normal/increta/accreta/percreta). Interobserver agrement between senior and junior readers were calculated. Stepwise logistic regression and receiver operating (ROC) curvers were performed.Results: Demographics between the two groups were not statistically different. Overall sensitivity and specificity for detecting placentar invasion was 90.9% and 75.0% for senior readers, and 81.8% and 61.8% for junior readers respectively. The most significant MR features indicating placentar invasion were T2 hypointense placental bands, followed by placenta praevia, focally interrupted myometrial border, posterior placental insertion, and heterogeneous placental signal. For each of the evaluated MR features the interobserver agreement kappa between the two senior readers was superior than that between the junior readers, ranging from bad (<0.4) to good (0.4-0.75).Conclusions: MRI can be a reliable and reproducible tool for detection of suspected placentar invasion, however very variable according to the observers' experience.

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Criteria to decide which patients with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) should be examined by dual energy x ray absorptiometry (DXA) are currently not available. The rheumatologists from Amsterdam have proposed preliminary criteria based on clinical risk factors (age, disease activity, and functional status). These criteria are preliminary and not widely accepted but might be helpful in practice. The value of the proposal in a group of Spanish postmenopausal women with RA is analysed. METHODS DXA (lumbar spine and femoral neck) was performed in 128 patients recruited from a clinical setting, and the proposed criteria were applied. T and Z scores were established for a Spanish reference population. RESULTS The mean (SD) age of the patients was 61.3 (10.7) and mean duration of the postmenopausal period 14.5 (10.1) years. Mean duration of RA was 13.7 (7.7) years. Mean C reactive protein was 22 (21) mg/l; mean erythrocyte sedimentation rate 26 (18) mm/1st h; and mean Health Assessment Questionnaire score 1.25 (0.79). Ninety (70%) patients fulfilled the proposed criteria. Their sensitivity for the diagnosis of osteoporosis (T score ¿¿2.5 SD) was 86% and their specificity, 43%. Positive predictive value was 54% and negative predictive value, 79%. CONCLUSIONS The proposed criteria seem a good screening method for the selection of those patients with RA whose bone mineral density should be assessed as the sensitivity and negative predictive value are acceptable.

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An accurate assessment of the rising ambient temperature by plant cells is crucial for the timely activation of various molecular defences before the appearance of heat damage. Recent findings have allowed a better understanding of the early cellular events that take place at the beginning of mild temperature rise, to timely express heat-shock proteins (HSPs), which will, in turn, confer thermotolerance to the plant. Here, we discuss the key components of the heat signalling pathway and suggest a model in which a primary sensory role is carried out by the plasma membrane and various secondary messengers, such as Ca(2+) ions, nitric oxide (NO) and hydrogen peroxide (H(2) O(2) ). We also describe the role of downstream components, such as calmodulins, mitogen-activated protein kinases and Hsp90, in the activation of heat-shock transcription factors (HSFs). The data gathered for land plants suggest that, following temperature elevation, the heat signal is probably transduced by several pathways that will, however, coalesce into the final activation of HSFs, the expression of HSPs and the onset of cellular thermotolerance.