838 resultados para cut-off value
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OBJECTIVE: This study developed percentile curves for anthropometric (waist circumference) and cardiovascular (lipid profile) risk factors for US children and adolescents. STUDY DESIGN: A representative sample of US children and adolescents from the National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey from 1988 to 1994 (NHANES III) and the current national series (NHANES 1999-2006) were combined. Percentile curves were constructed, nationally weighted, and smoothed using the Lambda, Mu, and Sigma method. The percentile curves included age- and sex-specific percentile values that correspond with and transition into the adult abnormal cut-off values for each of these anthropometric and cardiovascular components. To increase the sample size, a second series of percentile curves was also created from the combination of the 2 NHANES databases, along with cross-sectional data from the Bogalusa Heart Study, the Muscatine Study, the Fels Longitudinal Study and the Princeton Lipid Research Clinics Study. RESULTS: These analyses resulted in a series of growth curves for waist circumference, total cholesterol, LDL cholesterol, triglycerides, and HDL cholesterol from a combination of pediatric data sets. The cut-off for abnormal waist circumference in adult males (102 cm) was equivalent to the 94(th) percentile line in 18-year-olds, and the cut-off in adult females (88 cm) was equivalent to the 84(th) percentile line in 18-year-olds. Triglycerides were found to have a bimodal pattern among females, with an initial peak at age 11 and a second at age 20; the curve for males increased steadily with age. The HDL curve for females was relatively flat, but the male curve declined starting at age 9 years. Similar curves for total and LDL cholesterol were constructed for both males and females. When data from the additional child studies were added to the national data, there was little difference in their patterns or rates of change from year to year. CONCLUSIONS: These curves represent waist and lipid percentiles for US children and adolescents, with identification of values that transition to adult abnormalities. They could be used conditionally for both epidemiological and possibly clinical applications, although they need to be validated against longitudinal data.
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Insect bite hypersensitivity (IBH) is an allergic dermatitis of horses caused by bites of Culicoides and sometimes Simulium spp. The aim of this investigation was to identify Simulium allergens associated with IBH. A phage surface display cDNA library expressing recombinant Simulium vittatum salivary gland proteins was screened using sera of IBH-affected horses sensitized to S. vittatum salivary gland proteins as shown in immunoblot, resulting in the identification of seven cDNAs encoding IgE-binding proteins. The deduced amino acid sequences of these proteins showed sequence similarities to antigen 5 like protein (Sim v 1), to a serine protease inhibitor (Sim v 2), to two alpha-amylases (Sim v 3 and Sim v 4), and to three S. vittatum erythema proteins (SVEPs). The cDNA inserts were subcloned and expressed as [His](6)-tagged protein in Escherichia coli and purified using Ni(2+)-chelate affinity chromatography. Mice were immunised with the seven recombinant proteins and the antibodies tested against the recombinant proteins and salivary gland extract (SGE) of S. vittatum and Culicoides nubeculosus in immunoblot analyses. r-Sim v 1 specific mouse Abs recognized a band of about 32 kDa in immunoblots of both S. vittatum and C. nubeculosus SGE, detectable also by serum IgE of IBH-affected horses. Preincubation of horse serum with r-Sim v 1 completely inhibited IgE binding to the 32 kDa band demonstrating the presence of cross-reactive antigen 5 like proteins in both SGE. Determination of IgE levels against the r-Sim v proteins and crude S. vittatum extract by ELISA in sera from 25 IBH-affected and 20 control horses showed that IBH-affected horses had significantly higher IgE levels than controls against r-Sim v 1, 2, 3, 4 and S. vittatum extract, whereas the r-SVEP showed only marginal IgE binding. Further analyses showed that 60% of IBH-affected horses reacted to r-Sim v 1, suggesting that this could be a major allergen for IBH. Forty to twenty percent of the IBH-affected horses reacted with r-Sim v 2, 3 or 4. Combination of the results obtained with the 4 r-Sim v proteins showed that 92% of the IBH-affected but only 15% of the healthy horses had IgE levels against one or more of the 4 r-Sim v proteins. Seventy percent of the healthy horses had detectable IgE against S. vittatum extract, indicating a low specificity of the detection system used. Optimization of the ELISA system will be required to determine reliable cut-off values for the IBH-related allergens. Their in vivo relevance needs to be carefully assessed.
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Recurrent airway obstruction (RAO) is a common condition in stabled horses characterised by small airway inflammation, airway neutrophilia and obstruction following exposure of susceptible horses to mouldy hay and straw and is thus regarded as a hypersensitivity reaction to mould spores. However, the role of IgE-mediated reactions in RAO remains unclear. The aim of the study was to investigate with a serological IgE ELISA test (Allercept), an in vitro sulfidoleukotriene (sLT) release assay (CAST) and with intradermal testing (IDT) whether serum IgE and IgE-mediated reactions against various mould, mite and pollen extracts are associated with RAO. IDT reactions were evaluated at different times in order to detect IgE-mediated immediate type reactions (type I hypersensitivity reactions, 0.5-1 h), immune complex-mediated late type reactions (type III reactions, 4-10 h) and cell-mediated delayed type reactions (type IV hypersensitivity reactions 24-48 h). In the serological test, overall the control horses displayed more positive reactions than the RAO-affected horses but the difference was not significant. Comparison of the measured IgE levels showed that the RAO-affected horses had slightly higher IgE levels against Aspergillus fumigatus than controls (35 and 16 AU, respectively, p<0.05), but all values were below the cut off (150 AU) of the test. In the sLT release assay, seven positive reactions were observed in the RAO-affected horses and four in the controls but this difference was not significant. A significantly higher proportion of late type IDT reactions was observed in RAO-affected horses compared to controls (25 of 238 possible reactions versus 12 of 238 possible reactions, respectively, p<0.05). Interestingly, four RAO-affected but none of the control horses reacted with the recombinant mould allergen A. fumigatus 8 (rAsp f 8, p<0.05), but only late phase and delayed type reactions were observed. In all three tests the majority of the positive reactions was observed with the mite extracts (64%, 74% and 88% of all positive reactions, respectively) but none of the tests showed a significant difference between RAO-affected and control animals. Our findings do not support that IgE-mediated reactions are important in the pathogenesis of RAO. Further studies are needed to investigate whether sensitisation to mite allergens is of clinical relevance in the horse and to understand the role of immune reactions against rAsp f 8.
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In September 1993, the Valais and Ticino regions of Switzerland were affected by extreme flooding triggered by heavy precipitation. The meteorological situation leading to this event is studied in the Twentieth Century Reanalysis (20CR) data set. A strong cut-off low development is found to be the driving synoptic-scale atmospheric circulation pattern. The agreement with previous studies highlights the applicability of 20CR for extreme event analysis.
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BACKGROUND Recommendations from international task forces on geriatric assessment emphasize the need for research including validation of cancer-specific geriatric assessment (C-SGA) tools in oncological settings. The objective of this study was to evaluate the feasibility of the SAKK Cancer-Specific Geriatric Assessment (C-SGA) in clinical practice. METHODS A cross sectional study of cancer patients >=65 years old (N = 51) with pathologically confirmed cancer presenting for initiation of chemotherapy treatment (07/01/2009-03/31/2011) at two oncology departments in Swiss canton hospitals: Kantonsspital Graubunden (KSGR N = 25), Kantonsspital St. Gallen (KSSG N = 26). Data was collected using three instruments, the SAKK C-SGA plus physician and patient evaluation forms. The SAKK C-SGA includes six measures covering five geriatric assessment domains (comorbidity, function, psychosocial, nutrition, cognition) using a mix of medical record abstraction (MRA) and patient interview. Five individual domains and one overall SAKK C-SGA score were calculated and dichotomized as below/above literature-based cut-offs. The SAKK C-SGA was evaluated by: patient and physician estimated time to complete, ease of completing, and difficult or unanswered questions. RESULTS Time to complete the patient questionnaire was considered acceptable by almost all (>=96%) patients and physicians. Patients reported slightly shorter times to complete the questionnaire than physicians (17.33 +/- 7.34 vs. 20.59 +/- 6.53 minutes, p = 0.02). Both groups rated the patient questionnaire as easy/fairly easy to complete (91% vs. 84% respectively, p = 0.14) with few difficult or unanswered questions. The MRA took on average 8.32 +/- 4.72 minutes to complete. Physicians (100%) considered time to complete MRA acceptable, 96% rated it as easy/fairly easy to complete. Individual study site populations differed on health-related characteristics (excellent/good physician-rated general health KSGR 71% vs. KSSG 32%, p = 0.007). The overall mean C-SGA score was 2.4 +/- 1.12. Patients at KSGR had lower C-SGA scores (2.00 +/- 1.19 vs. 2.81 +/- 0.90, p = 0.009) and a smaller proportion (28% vs.65%, p = 0.008) was above the C-SGA cut-off score compared to KSSG. CONCLUSIONS These results suggest the SAKK C-SGA is a feasible practical tool for use in clinical practice. It demonstrated discriminative ability based on objective geriatric assessment measures, but additional investigations on use for clinical decision-making are warranted. The SAKK C-SGA also provides important usable domain information for intervention to optimize outcomes in older cancer patients.
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Schizophrenia patients frequently present with subtle motor impairments, including higher order motor function such as hand gesture performance. Using cut off scores from a standardized gesture test, we previously reported gesture deficits in 40% of schizophrenia patients irrespective of the gesture content. However, these findings were based on normative data from an older control group. Hence, we now aimed at determining cut-off scores in an age and gender matched control group. Furthermore, we wanted to explore whether gesture categories are differentially affected in Schizophrenia. Gesture performance data of 30 schizophrenia patients and data from 30 matched controls were compared. Categories included meaningless, intransitive (communicative) and transitive (object related) hand gestures, which were either imitated or pantomimed, i.e. produced on verbal command. Cut-off scores of the age matched control group were higher than the previous cut-off scores in an older control group. An ANOVA tested effects of group, domain (imitation or pantomime), and semantic category (meaningless, transitive or intransitive), as well as their interaction. According to the new cut-off scores, 67% of the schizophrenia patients demonstrated gestural deficits. Patients performed worse in all gesture categories, however meaningless gestures on verbal command were particularly impaired (p = 0.008). This category correlated with poor frontal lobe function (p < 0.001). In conclusion, gestural deficits in schizophrenia are even more frequent than previously reported. Gesture categories that pose higher demands on planning and selection such as pantomime of meaningless gestures are predominantly affected and associated with the well-known frontal lobe dysfunction.
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Many Member States of the European Union (EU) currently monitor antimicrobial resistance in zoonotic agents, including Salmonella and Campylobacter. According to Directive 2003/99/EC, Member States shall ensure that the monitoring provides comparable data on the occurrence of antimicrobial resistance. The European Commission asked the European Food Safety Authority to prepare detailed specifications for harmonised schemes for monitoring antimicrobial resistance. The objective of these specifications is to lay down provisions for a monitoring and reporting scheme for Salmonella in fowl (Gallus gallus), turkeys and pigs, and for Campylobacter jejuni and Campylobacter coli in broiler chickens. The current specifications are considered to be a first step towards a gradual implementation of comprehensive antimicrobial resistance monitoring at the EU level. These specifications propose to test a common set of antimicrobial agents against available cut-off values and a specified concentration range to determine the susceptibility of Salmonella and Campylobacter. Using isolates collected through programmes in which the sampling frame covers all epidemiological units of the national production, the target number of Salmonella isolates to be included in the antimicrobial resistance monitoring per Member State per year is 170 for each study population (i.e., laying hens, broilers, turkeys and slaughter pigs). The target number of Campylobacter isolates to be included in the antimicrobial resistance monitoring per Member State per year is 170 for each study population (i.e., broilers). The results of the antimicrobial resistance monitoring are assessed and reported in the yearly national report on trends and sources of zoonoses, zoonotic agents and antimicrobial resistance.
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INTRODUCTION Low systolic blood pressure (SBP) is an important secondary insult following traumatic brain injury (TBI), but its exact relationship with outcome is not well characterised. Although a SBP of <90mmHg represents the threshold for hypotension in consensus TBI treatment guidelines, recent studies suggest redefining hypotension at higher levels. This study therefore aimed to fully characterise the association between admission SBP and mortality to further inform resuscitation endpoints. METHODS We conducted a multicentre cohort study using data from the largest European trauma registry. Consecutive adult patients with AIS head scores >2 admitted directly to specialist neuroscience centres between 2005 and July 2012 were studied. Multilevel logistic regression models were developed to examine the association between admission SBP and 30 day inpatient mortality. Models were adjusted for confounders including age, severity of injury, and to account for differential quality of hospital care. RESULTS 5057 patients were included in complete case analyses. Admission SBP demonstrated a smooth u-shaped association with outcome in a bivariate analysis, with increasing mortality at both lower and higher values, and no evidence of any threshold effect. Adjusting for confounding slightly attenuated the association between mortality and SBP at levels <120mmHg, and abolished the relationship for higher SBP values. Case-mix adjusted odds of death were 1.5 times greater at <120mmHg, doubled at <100mmHg, tripled at <90mmHg, and six times greater at SBP<70mmHg, p<0.01. CONCLUSIONS These findings indicate that TBI studies should model SBP as a continuous variable and may suggest that current TBI treatment guidelines, using a cut-off for hypotension at SBP<90mmHg, should be reconsidered.
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BACKGROUND Marfan syndrome (MFS) is a variable, autosomal-dominant disorder of the connective tissue. In MFS serious ventricular arrhythmias and sudden cardiac death (SCD) can occur. The aim of this prospective study was to reveal underlying risk factors and to prospectively investigate the association between MFS and SCD in a long-term follow-up. METHODS 77 patients with MFS were included. At baseline serum N-terminal pro-brain natriuretic peptide (NT-proBNP), transthoracic echocardiogram, 12-lead resting ECG, signal-averaged ECG (SAECG) and a 24-h Holter ECG with time- and frequency domain analyses were performed. The primary composite endpoint was defined as SCD, ventricular tachycardia (VT), ventricular fibrillation (VF) or arrhythmogenic syncope. RESULTS The median follow-up (FU) time was 868 days. Among all risk stratification parameters, NT-proBNP remained the exclusive predictor (hazard ratio [HR]: 2.34, 95% confidence interval [CI]: 1.1 to 4.62, p=0.01) for the composite endpoint. With an optimal cut-off point at 214.3 pg/ml NT-proBNP predicted the composite primary endpoint accurately (AUC 0.936, p=0.00046, sensitivity 100%, specificity 79.0%). During FU, seven patients of Group 2 (NT-proBNP ≥ 214.3 pg/ml) reached the composite endpoint and 2 of these patients died due to SCD. In five patients, sustained VT was documented. All patients with a NT-proBNP<214.3 pg/ml (Group 1) experienced no events. Group 2 patients had a significantly higher risk of experiencing the composite endpoint (logrank-test, p<0.001). CONCLUSIONS In contrast to non-invasive electrocardiographic parameter, NT-proBNP independently predicts adverse arrhythmogenic events in patients with MFS.
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OBJECTIVES: Premature babies require supplementation with calcium and phosphorus to prevent metabolic bone disease of prematurity. To guide mineral supplementation, two methods of monitoring urinary excretion of calcium and phosphorus are used: urinary calcium or phosphorus concentration and calcium/creatinine or phosphorus/creatinine ratios. We compare these two methods in regards to their agreement on the need for mineral supplementation. METHODS: Retrospective chart review of 230 premature babies with birthweight <1500 g, undergoing screening of urinary spot samples from day 21 of life and fortnightly thereafter. Hypothetical cut-off values for urine calcium or phosphorus concentration (1 mmol/l) and urine calcium/creatinine ratio (0.5 mol/mol) or phosphorus/creatinine ratio (4 mol/mol) were applied to the sample results. The agreement on whether or not to supplement the respective minerals based on the results with the two methods was compared. Multivariate general linear models sought to identify patient characteristic to predict disagreeing results. RESULTS: 24.8% of cases disagreed on the indication for calcium supplementation, 8.8% for phosphorus. Total daily calcium intake was the only patient characteristic associated with discordant results. CONCLUSIONS: With the intention to supplement the respective mineral, comparison of urinary mineral concentration with mineral/creatinine ratio is moderate for Calcium and good for Phosphorus. The results do not allow to identify superiority of either method on the decision which babies require calcium and/or phosphorus supplements.
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BACKGROUND: Although brucellosis (Brucella spp.) and Q Fever (Coxiella burnetii) are zoonoses of global importance, very little high quality data are available from West Africa. METHODS/PRINCIPAL FINDINGS: A serosurvey was conducted in Togo's main livestock-raising zone in 2011 in 25 randomly selected villages, including 683 people, 596 cattle, 465 sheep and 221 goats. Additionally, 464 transhumant cattle from Burkina Faso were sampled in 2012. The serological analyses performed were the Rose Bengal Test and ELISA for brucellosis and ELISA and the immunofluorescence assay (IFA) for Q Fever Brucellosis did not appear to pose a major human health problem in the study zone, with only 7 seropositive participants. B. abortus was isolated from 3 bovine hygroma samples, and is likely to be the predominant circulating strain. This may explain the observed seropositivity amongst village cattle (9.2%, 95%CI:4.3-18.6%) and transhumant cattle (7.3%, 95%CI:3.5-14.7%), with an absence of seropositive small ruminants. Exposure of livestock and people to C. burnetii was common, potentially influenced by cultural factors. People of Fulani ethnicity had greater livestock contact and a significantly higher seroprevalence than other ethnic groups (Fulani: 45.5%, 95%CI:37.7-53.6%; non-Fulani: 27.1%, 95%CI:20.6-34.7%). Appropriate diagnostic test cut-off values in endemic settings requires further investigation. Both brucellosis and Q Fever appeared to impact on livestock production. Seropositive cows were more likely to have aborted a foetus during the previous year than seronegative cows, when adjusted for age. This odds was 3.8 times higher (95%CI: 1.2-12.1) for brucellosis and 6.7 times higher (95%CI: 1.3-34.8) for Q Fever. CONCLUSIONS: This is the first epidemiological study of zoonoses in Togo in linked human and animal populations, providing much needed data for West Africa. Exposure to Brucella and C. burnetii is common but further research is needed into the clinical and economic impact.
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Insect bite hypersensitivity (IBH) in horses represents an immunoglobulin E (IgE)-mediated hypersensitivity to salivary antigens from biting midges (Culicoides spp.). The aim of this study was to evaluate and compare the performances of IgE ELISAs using recombinant Culicoides spp. Obsoletus group salivary gland antigens or crude whole body extracts ('ObsWBE'), C. nubeculosus recombinant proteins (Culn1, 3, 4, 5, 7, 8 and 10) and Obsoletus group recombinant proteins (Culo1 and 2). IgE levels were measured in plasma of 343 Warmblood horses classified as IBH-affected (n=167) and IBH-unaffected (n=176) according to the owners' descriptions. IBH-affected horses were subdivided based on the severity of their clinical signs at sampling and whether or not their IBH history was considered to be classical. The accuracies of the tests increased when clinical signs at sampling were more pronounced or when the IBH history could be considered as classical. A combination of IgE levels against the three best performing Culicoides spp. recombinant proteins (Culn4, Culo1 and Culo2) and ObsWBE resulted in the best performing test. When IBH-affected horses showing a classical history of the disease and severe clinical signs were compared with IBH-unaffected horses, the Youden's index at the optimal cut-off for the three tests in combination was 0.67. This optimal cut-off had a sensitivity of 70%, a specificity of 97% and a total accuracy of 92%. The performance of the IgE ELISA was affected by the severity of IBH clinical signs at sampling and was improved when IgE levels against several recombinant proteins were combined.
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BACKGROUND Raf-1 kinase inhibitor protein (RKIP) has emerged as a significant metastatic suppressor in a variety of human cancers and is known to inhibit Ras/Raf/MEK/ERK signaling. By suppressing the activation of the NFkB/SNAIL circuit, RKIP can regulate the induction of epithelial-mesenchymal transition (EMT). The aim of this study was to evaluate RKIP expression and to determine its association with clinicopathological features, including EMT in form of tumor budding in pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma (PDAC). METHODS Staining for RKIP was performed on a multipunch Tissue Microarray (TMA) of 114 well-characterized PDACs with clinico-pathological, follow-up and adjuvant therapy information. RKIP-expression was assessed separately in the main tumor body and in the tumor buds. Another 3 TMAs containing normal pancreatic tissue, precursor lesions (Pancreatic Intraepithelial Neoplasia, PanINs) and matched lymph node metastases were stained in parallel. Cut-off values were calculated by receiver operating characteristic (ROC) curve analysis. RESULTS We found a significant progressive loss of RKIP expression between normal pancreatic ductal epithelia (average: 74%), precursor lesions (PanINs; average: 37%), PDAC (average 20%) and lymph node metastases (average 8%, p<0.0001). RKIP expression was significantly lower in tumor buds (average: 6%) compared to the main tumor body (average 20%; p<0.005). RKIP loss in the tumor body was marginally associated with advanced T-stage (p=0.0599) as well as high-grade peritumoral (p=0.0048) and intratumoral budding (p=0.0373). RKIP loss in the buds showed a clear association with advanced T stage (p=0.0089). CONCLUSIONS The progressive loss of RKIP seems to play a major role in the neoplastic transformation of pancreas, correlates with aggressive features in PDAC and is associated with the presence of EMT in form of tumor budding.
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Background: Ischemia monitoring cannot always be performed by 12-lead ECG. Hence, the individual performance of the ECG leads is crucial. No experimental data on the ECG's specificity for transient ischemia exist. Methods: In 45 patients a 19-lead ECG was registered during a 1-minute balloon occlusion of a coronary artery (left anterior descending artery [LAD], right coronary artery [RCA] or left circumflex artery [LCX]). ST-segment shifts and sensitivity/specificity of the leads were measured. Results: During LAD occlusion, V3 showed maximal ST-segment elevation (0.26 mV [IQR 0.16–0.33 mV], p = 0.001) and sensitivity/specificity (88% and 80%). During RCA occlusion, III showed maximal ST-elevation (0.2 mV [IQR 0.09–0.26 mV], p = 0.004), aVF had the best sensitivity/specificity (85% and 68%). During LCX occlusion, V6 showed maximal ST-segment elevation (0.04 mV [IQR 0.02–0.14 mV], p = 0.005), and sensitivity/specificity was (31%/92%) but could be improved (63%/72%) using an optimized cut-off for ischemia. Conclusion: V3, aVF and V6 show the best performance to detect transient ischemia.
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There is a need to validate risk assessment tools for hospitalised medical patients at risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE). We investigated whether a predefined cut-off of the Geneva Risk Score, as compared to the Padua Prediction Score, accurately distinguishes low-risk from high-risk patients regardless of the use of thromboprophylaxis. In the multicentre, prospective Explicit ASsessment of Thromboembolic RIsk and Prophylaxis for Medical PATients in SwitzErland (ESTIMATE) cohort study, 1,478 hospitalised medical patients were enrolled of whom 637 (43%) did not receive thromboprophylaxis. The primary endpoint was symptomatic VTE or VTE-related death at 90 days. The study is registered at ClinicalTrials.gov, number NCT01277536. According to the Geneva Risk Score, the cumulative rate of the primary endpoint was 3.2% (95% confidence interval [CI] 2.2-4.6%) in 962 high-risk vs 0.6% (95% CI 0.2-1.9%) in 516 low-risk patients (p=0.002); among patients without prophylaxis, this rate was 3.5% vs 0.8% (p=0.029), respectively. In comparison, the Padua Prediction Score yielded a cumulative rate of the primary endpoint of 3.5% (95% CI 2.3-5.3%) in 714 high-risk vs 1.1% (95% CI 0.6-2.3%) in 764 low-risk patients (p=0.002); among patients without prophylaxis, this rate was 3.2% vs 1.5% (p=0.130), respectively. Negative likelihood ratio was 0.28 (95% CI 0.10-0.83) for the Geneva Risk Score and 0.51 (95% CI 0.28-0.93) for the Padua Prediction Score. In conclusion, among hospitalised medical patients, the Geneva Risk Score predicted VTE and VTE-related mortality and compared favourably with the Padua Prediction Score, particularly for its accuracy to identify low-risk patients who do not require thromboprophylaxis.