958 resultados para Regimen Sanitatis Salernitanum.


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PURPOSE OF REVIEW: Trimodal therapy (TMT) is considered the most effective bladder-sparing approach for muscle-invasive urothelial carcinoma of the bladder (MIBC) and an alternative to radical cystectomy. The purpose of this article was to review and summarize the current knowledge on the equivalence of TMT and radical cystectomy based on the recent literature. RECENT FINDINGS: TMT consists of a maximal transuretral resection of the bladder, followed by a concurrent radiotherapy and chemotherapy, limiting salvage radical cystectomy to nonresponder tumors or muscle-invasive recurrence. In large population studies, less than 6% of the patients with nonmetastatic MIBC receive a chemoradiation therapy and this rate is stable. A growing body of evidence exists that TMT provides good oncologic outcomes with low morbidity when compared with radical cystectomy. TMT requires, however, a close follow-up because of the high risk of local recurrence and salvage radical cystectomy in up to 30% of the patients. Salvage radical cystectomy can be performed with adequate results but does not offer the same opportunity of reconstruction and functional outcomes than primary radical cystectomy. SUMMARY: Although radical cystectomy is still the treatment of reference for most of the patients with localized MIBC, TMT represents a reasonable alternative in highly selected patients. Any firm conclusion on the equivalence or superiority of one treatment to the other is still limited by the lack of randomized controlled trials and the heterogeneity of the available literature. Future studies and multidisciplinary approach are mandatory to optimize the patient selection and regimen of TMT.

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The Highly Active Antiretroviral Therapy (HAART) is the combination of at least three antiretroviral compounds. The combination purpose is to reduce the likelihood of drug resistance. However in the long-term the resistance to the first-line combination occurs and leads to treatment failure. Thus, a second-line and even a third-line regimen are recommended in the long run. [...] [P. 5] The two treatment alternatives under comparison: Tenofovir (300 mg) CO-formulated with Emtricitabine (200 mg) and Efavirenz (600 mg) currently known under the brand name Atripla (R) was introduced in July 2006 in the United States market. The excellent safety profile and ease of use make this combination a perfect first-line regimen in low-income settings. Therefore, this treatment option was recommended in WHO 2006 reviewed guidelines. Unfortunately, Tenofovir and Emtricitabine compounds are still costly and not yet widely available. For a matter of simplification this regimen is referred in this report as "the recent" therapy. Initially, we had in mind to consider the most frequently used first-line regimen in low-income countries (Stavudine / Larnivudme / Nevirapine) as a comparator for this economic evaluation. Unfortunately, according to the literature review results (see Annex 3); there was no data available comparing head to head the effectiveness of this regimen with the recent one. Instead, we selected a less frequently but commonly used first-line regimen in low-income countries as a comparator: Zidovudine, Lamivudine, Efavirenz. This combination has extensive experience in durability, safety and toxicity and seems to be an optimal choice for a first-line regimen according to the clinical trial group 384 team. Furthermore, Zidovudine, one of the compounds of this combination is now recommended as one of the preferred NNRTI [Non Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors] options to be considered by countries instead of Stavudine (the most used NNRTI in limited-income countries). As this combination has been included in the WHO guidelines as a first-line therapy since 2003 when WHO launched the "3 by 5" scaling-up initiative, this combination of drugs is referred in this report as the "old" therapy. Objectives: The primary objective of this economic evaluation is to compare the two first-line HAARTs introduced above, in a low-income setting context. Both of these combinations are recommended by the 2006 WHO guidelines as potential first-line regimens. The secondary objective is to provide a simplified and comprehensible cost-effectiveness modeling tool in order to help policy makers, in resource-limited settings, make decisions about which first-line HAART to fund using the scarce resources available. [P. 6-7]

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Background New recommendations for rabies postexposure prophylaxis (rPEP) were published by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention and the World Health Organization in 2010. In view of these new recommendations, the adequacy of rPEP among patients consulting the travel clinic of the University Hospital of Lausanne has been investigated and 6,8% of patients have been identified as non-responders with the new rPEP regimen. In this study we have selected the non-responders for a complete immunologic work up. Method Clinical and paraclinical immunologic investigations have been done to the non- responders patients. Those investigations have been conducted to look for an increased susceptibility to infections and an immunodeficiency. The investigations included a clinical evaluation, a full blood count, measurement of the immunoglobulin levels, a numeration of the subpopulations of the lymphocytes, a HIV test and an evaluation of the humoral response to tetanus, pneumococcal, and hepatitis B vaccinations. A lymphocyte proliferation assay with rabies antigen was performed to assess the cellular immune response. Results 9 subjects with rabies antibody titers ≤0,5 IU/ml after an rPEP with 4 doses were included in this study (=non-responders). 8/9 of these non-responders had an unremarkable medical history. 9/9 of them had normal paraclinical tests that did not suggest an immunodeficiency. The results of the lymphocyte proliferation assay with rabies antigen showed a significant correlation between the level of the humoral and cellular response. Conclusion These results suggest that a 4 dose intramuscular rPEP elicits in some patients a relatively poor humoral and cellular response, even in the absence of any immunosuppression. A serology on day 21 of the rPEP seems therefore useful to identify the patients who don't respond appropriately. Those non-responders should receive additional doses until they reach an antibody titer above 0.5 IU/ml.

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Bloodstream infections and sepsis are a major cause of morbidity and mortality. The successful outcome of patients suffering from bacteremia depends on a rapid identification of the infectious agent to guide optimal antibiotic treatment. The analysis of Gram stains from positive blood culture can be rapidly conducted and already significantly impact the antibiotic regimen. However, the accurate identification of the infectious agent is still required to establish the optimal targeted treatment. We present here a simple and fast bacterial pellet preparation from a positive blood culture that can be used as a sample for several essential downstream applications such as identification by MALDI-TOF MS, antibiotic susceptibility testing (AST) by disc diffusion assay or automated AST systems and by automated PCR-based diagnostic testing. The performance of these different identification and AST systems applied directly on the blood culture bacterial pellets is very similar to the performance normally obtained from isolated colonies grown on agar plates. Compared to conventional approaches, the rapid acquisition of a bacterial pellet significantly reduces the time to report both identification and AST. Thus, following blood culture positivity, identification by MALDI-TOF can be reported within less than 1 hr whereas results of AST by automated AST systems or disc diffusion assays within 8 to 18 hr, respectively. Similarly, the results of a rapid PCR-based assay can be communicated to the clinicians less than 2 hr following the report of a bacteremia. Together, these results demonstrate that the rapid preparation of a blood culture bacterial pellet has a significant impact on the identification and AST turnaround time and thus on the successful outcome of patients suffering from bloodstream infections.

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Abstract Background HIV-1 infection increases plasma levels of inflammatory markers. Combination antiretroviral therapy (cART) does not restore inflammatory markers to normal levels. Since intensification of cART with raltegravir reduced CD8 T-cell activation in the Discor-Ral and IntegRal studies, we have evaluated the effect of raltegravir intensification on several soluble inflammation markers in these studies. Methods Longitudinal plasma samples (0–48 weeks) from the IntegRal (n = 67, 22 control and 45 intensified individuals) and the Discor-Ral studies (44 individuals with CD4 T-cell counts<350 cells/µl, 14 control and 30 intensified) were assayed for 25 markers. Mann-Whitney, Wilcoxon, Spearman test and linear mixed models were used for analysis. Results At baseline, different inflammatory markers were strongly associated with HCV co-infection, lower CD4 counts and with cART regimens (being higher in PI-treated individuals), but poorly correlated with detection of markers of residual viral replication. Although raltegravir intensification reduced inflammation in individuals with lower CD4 T-cell counts, no effect of intensification was observed on plasma markers of inflammation in a global analysis. An association was found, however, between reductions in immune activation and plasma levels of the coagulation marker D-dimer, which exclusively decreased in intensified patients on protease inhibitor (PI)-based cART regimens (P = 0.040). Conclusions The inflammatory profile in treated HIV-infected individuals showed a complex association with HCV co-infection, the levels of CD4 T cells and the cART regimen. Raltegravir intensification specifically reduced D-dimer levels in PI-treated patients, highlighting the link between cART composition and residual viral replication; however, raltegravir had little effect on other inflammatory markers.

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A case of orofacial pain and inferior alveolar nerve (IAN) paraesthesia after extrusion of endodontic sealer within the mandibular canal treated with prednisone and pregabalin is described. A 36-year-old woman underwent root canal treatment of the mandibular second right premolar tooth. Post-operative panoramic radiograph revealed the presence of radiopaque canal sealer in the mandibular canal. Damage to IAN consecutive to extrusion of endodontic sealer was diagnosed. Non-surgical management was decided, including: 1 mg/kg/day prednisone 2 times/day, once-daily regimen, and 150 mg/day pregabalin, two doses per day, monitoring the progress with periodic follow-up visits. Six weeks after the incident the signs and symptoms were gone. The complete resolution of paraesthesia and the control of pain achieved suggest that a non-surgical approach, combining prednisone and the GABA analogue pregabalin, is a good option in the management of the IAN damage subsequent to endodontic sealer extrusion

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We describe the case of a 54 year old woman seen with an esophageal mass diagnosed as a primary esophageal lymphoma. The main symptom was dysphagia of seven months duration. The treatment consisted in resection of the tumor, and reconstruction of the defect with a reversed pleural flap, followed by a chemotherapy regimen that consisted of five drugs, cyclophosphamid, prednisone, doxorubicin, rituximab and vincristine (R-CHOP). The patient developed an esophageal pleural fistula treated with pleural drainage and irrigation that closed in 45 days. Two and one half years later she is doing well and disease free.

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PURPOSE:To evaluate variations in the body mass index in patients undergoing adjuvant chemotherapy for breast cancer, and to associate these changes with patient's age and adjuvant chemotherapy regimen.METHODS:We performed a retrospective cohort study in order to correlate any variation in the body mass index before and after adjuvant chemotherapy with patient's age and adjuvant chemotherapy regimen. Patients who received any form of prior hormone therapy, such as tamoxifen or aromatase inhibitors, were excluded. We selected data for 196 patients with stage I to III breast cancer who were treated by radical or conservative surgery and received adjuvant chemotherapy at the Cancer Institute of the State of São Paulo, Brazil.RESULTS:Before adjuvant chemotherapy, 67.8% of patients were classified as overweight or obese according to their body mass indices. Around 66.3% (95% CI 59.7–73.0) of the patients exhibited an increase in the body mass index after adjuvant chemotherapy. The average age of all patients was 56.3±11.3 years. Participants whose body mass index increased were younger than those with no increase (54.7±11.1 versus 59.3±11.2 years; p=0.007). Patients were treated with the following adjuvant chemotherapy regimens: doxorubicin, cyclophosphamide, and paclitaxel (AC-T, 129 patients, 65.8%); 5-fluoracil, doxorubicin, and cyclophosphamide (36 patients, 18.4%); cyclophosphamide, methotrexate, and 5-fluoracil (16 patients, 8.2%); docetaxel and cyclophosphamide (7 patients, 3.6%); and other regimen (8 patients, 4.1%). The AC-T regimen showed a statistically significant association with increase in the body mass index (p<0.001 by ANOVA).CONCLUSIONS:Most patients with breast cancer showed an increase in the body mass index after adjuvant chemotherapy, especially after the AC-T chemotherapy regimen.

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Gestational trophoblastic neoplasia (GTN) is the term to describe a set of malignant placental diseases, including invasive mole, choriocarcinoma, placental site trophoblastic tumor and epithelioid trophoblastic tumor. Both invasive mole and choriocarcinoma respond well to chemotherapy, and cure rates are greater than 90%. Since the advent of chemotherapy, low-risk GTN has been treated with a single agent, usually methotrexate or actinomycin D. Cases of high-risk GTN, however, should be treated with multiagent chemotherapy, and the regimen usually selected is EMA-CO, which combines etoposide, methotrexate, actinomycin D, cyclophosphamide and vincristine. This study reviews the literature about GTN to discuss current knowledge about its diagnosis and treatment.

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PURPOSE: To compare two single-agent chemotherapy (ChT) regimens evaluating, in first-line treatment, response and side effects and, in final single-agent treatment, the outcomes, among Brazilian patients with low-risk gestational trophoblastic neoplasia (GTN), according to International Federation of Gynecology and Obstetrics (FIGO) 2002. METHODS: Retrospective analysis of two concurrent cohorts with 194 low-risk GTN patients: from 1992 to 2012, as first-line treatment, 115 patients received 4 intramuscular doses of methotrexate alternated with 4 oral doses of folinic acid (MTX/FA) repetead every 14 days and, since 1996, 79 patients received an endovenous bolus-dose of actinomycin D (Act-D), biweekly. At GTN diagnosis, patient opinion was taken into consideration when defining the initial single-agent ChT regimen, and when there was resistance or toxicity to one regimen, the other drug was used preferentially. This study was approved by the Irmandade da Santa Casa de Misericórdia de Porto Alegre Ethical Committee. RESULTS: Both groups were clinically similar (p>0.05). In first-line treatments, frequency of complete response was similar (75.7% with MTX/FA and 67.1% with bolus Act-D); the number of ChT courses -median 3 (range: 1-10) with MTX/FA and 2 (range: 1-6) with bolus Act-D - and the time to remission -median 9 weeks (range: 2-16) with MTX/FA and 10 weeks (range: 2-16) with bolus Act-D) - were not different between the groups. In both groups, first-line side effects frequency were high but intensity was low; stomatitis was higher with MTX/FA (p<0.01) and nausea and vomit with Act-D (p<0.01). Final single-agent ChT responses were high in both groups (94.8% with MTX/FA and 83.5% with bolus Act-D; p<0.01) and 13% higher in the group initially treated with MTX/FA. Rates of hysterectomy and of GTN recurrence were low and similar. No patient died due to GTN. CONCLUSION: The two regimens had similar first-line ChT response. Final single-agent response rates were high and similar in both groups but the final single-agent remission rate was higher in the MTX/FA group.

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The serological response to an experimental vaccine against Clostridium perfringens type D enterotoxemia was evaluated in four groups of goats. Group 1 received colostrum from unvaccinated cows and no vaccine. Groups 2, 3 and 4 received colostrum from vaccinated cows. In addition, Groups 3 and 4 received a vaccine dose at 80 days of age, and Group 4 received a second vaccine dose at 120 days of age. Serum antibody levels were determined by ELISA in cows before and after calving, and in goats at 3, 80, 120 and 160 days of age. No significant difference in serum antibody levels was observed between vaccinated and unvaccinated cows, or between the four groups of goats evaluated at 3 days of life. Groups 3 and 4 presented mean antibody titers of 0.6 and 1.1 IU/ml, respectively, 40 days after first vaccination. The vaccine response of Group 4 was 1.8 IU/ml 40 days after the booster dose and was higher than that observed for Group 3 (0.2 IU/ml). Thus, in the proposed regimen the use of heterologous colostrum did not induce passive immunization in goat kids. However, first vaccination and a booster dose after 40 days triggered satisfactory antibody levels.

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Factors affecting outcome after arthroscopic rotator cuff repair are unclear and there is still insufficient evidence of efficacy of any treatment modality for rotator cuff tears. The purpose of the current study was to determine in a prospective randomized multicenter trial whether there is a difference in clinical outcome between three different treatment modalities in the treatment of degenerative, atraumatic supraspinatus tendon tear in elderly patients. 180 shoulders were randomized into three treatment groups: 1) physiotherapy, 2) arthroscopic acromioplasty and physiotherapy, 3) arthroscopic rotator cuff reconstruction, acromioplasty and physiotherapy. The objective of this study was also to evaluate retrospectively the effect of trauma, the size of the rotator cuff tear, smoking habits and glenohumeral osteoarthritis on the clinical treatment outcome after arthroscopic rotator cuff repair in a consecutively prospectively collected series of patients. The patient data was gathered to the electronic database. The Constant score was used as a primary outcome measure. The follow‐up time was one year. The main finding was that operative treatment did not provide benefit over conservative regimen in elderly patients with atraumatic supraspinatus tear. Trauma did not affect on the clinical outcome and there was neither difference in the age of patients with traumatic vs. non‐traumatic rotator cuff tears. The size of the rotator cuff tear correlated significantly with the clinical results. The outcome was significantly poorer in tears with infraspinatus involvement compared to anterosuperior tears. Operatively treated rotator cuff tear patients who smoked were significantly younger than non‐smokers, and smoking was associated with poorer clinical outcome. Concomitant osteoarthritis of the glenohumeral joint was found to be a relatively common finding in supraspinatus tear patients. Osteoarthritis of the glenohumeral joint in operatively treated supraspinatus tear patients predicted poorer clinical results comparing to patients without osteoarthritis.

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The objective of the present experiment was to assess ethyl alcohol (ETOH) dependence brought about by a semivoluntary intermittent intake regimen in rats. Male Wistar rats weighing 150-250 g at the onset of the experiment were assigned to the following groups: 0% ETOH (N = 11), 5% ETOH (N = 20), 20% ETOH (N = 20) and 40% ETOH (N = 18). ETOH solutions were offered at the end of the day and overnight from Monday to Friday, and throughout weekends, for 90 days. The concentration of the ETOH solutions was increased in a stepwise fashion allowing the rats to get used to the taste of alcohol. Reposition of pure water was permitted during 1-h water drinking periods in the morning. Daily volume intake (± SEM) averaged 25.4 ± 0.4 ml (0% ETOH), 23.8 ± 0.6 ml (5% ETOH), 17.6 ± 0.7 ml (20% ETOH) and 17.5 ± 0.6 ml (40% ETOH). ETOH consumption differed significantly (P<0.05) among groups, averaging 4.4 ± 0.2 g kg-1 day-1 (5% ETOH), 10.3 ± 0.3 g kg-1 day-1 (20% ETOH) and 26 ± 1.2 g kg-1 day-1 (40% ETOH). Furthermore, ETOH detection in plasma 10-12 h after offering the solution indicated that its consumption in the 40% ETOH group was sufficient to override its metabolism. Overt signs of ETOH dependence, such as increased thirst, hyperactivity, puffing, hair ruffling and startle responsiveness as well as reduced drowsiness, were significantly increased in the 20% and 40% ETOH groups compared to the 0% and 5% groups. Accordingly, the model described here proved to be a useful tool for the evaluation of subtle or moderate behavioral and physical consequences of long-term ETOH intake

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The selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor fluoxetine (FLX) is widely prescribed for depression and anxiety-related disorders. On the other hand, enhanced serotonergic transmission is known to be classically related to anxiety. In this study, the effects of acute (5.0 mg/kg) and chronic (5.0 mg/kg, 22 days) FLX were investigated in both food-deprived and non-deprived rats tested in the elevated plus-maze. Significant main effects of the three factors (drug, food condition and administration regimen) were observed, but no interaction between them. The administration of either acute or chronic FLX resulted in an anxiogenic effect, as detected by a significant reduction in the percentage of time spent in the open arms and in the percentage of open arm entries. Food deprivation yielded an anxiolytic-like profile, probably related to changes in locomotor activity. The administration regimen resulted in an anxiolytic profile in chronically treated rats, as would be expected after 22 days of regular handling. The anxiogenic action of acute FLX is consistent with both its neurochemical and clinical profile. The discrepancy between the anxiogenic profile of chronic FLX and its therapeutic uses is discussed in terms of possible differences between the type of anxiety that is measured in the plus-maze and the types of human anxiety that are alleviated by fluoxetine.

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Normal aging is accompanied by renal functional and morphological deterioration and dietetic manipulation has been used to delay this age-related decline. We examined the effects of chronic administration of diets containing 5% lipid-enriched diet (LD, w/w) on renal function of rats at different ages. Three types of LD were tested: canola oil, fish oil and butter. Mean systemic tail-cuff blood pressure and glycemia remained within the normal range whatever the age and the diet of the animals. Proteinuria began to rise from the 8th month in the groups ingesting LD, while in the control group it increased significantly (above 10 mg/24 h) only after the 10th month. With age, a significant and progressive decline in glomerular filtration rate (GFR) and renal plasma flow was observed in the LD groups but after 6 months of lipid supplementation, the decline in these parameters was more marked in the butter and fish oil groups. By the 18th month, the lowest GFR level was observed in the group ingesting the butter diet (2.93 ± 0.22 vs 5.01 ± 0.21 ml min-1 kg-1 in control, P<0.05). Net acid excretion, evaluated in 9- and 18-month-old rats, was stimulated in the fish oil group when compared both to control and to the other two LD groups. These results suggest that even low levels of LD in a chronic nutritional regimen can modify the age-related changes in renal function and that the impact of different types of lipid-supplemented diets on renal function depends on the kind of lipid present in the diet.