978 resultados para MUCUS CLEARANCE
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No presente trabalho, estudamos a insulina imunoreativa no sangue, urina e sêmen de 138 indivíduos. No sangue, verficamos a secração de insulina em indivíduos normais e com diferentes afecções endócrinas. Na urina, estudamos a clearance de insulina em normais, assim como a possibilidade da existência de correlação entre insulinúria e proteinúria. Finalmente, estabelecemos os valores de insulina no sêmen de amostras humanas normospérmicas e azoospérmicas.
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In this review paper schistosomal glomerulopathy is defined as an immune-complex disease. The disease appears in 12-15 per cent of the individuals with hepatosplenic schistosomiasis. Portal hypertension with collateral circulation helps the by pass of the hepatic clearance process and the parasite antigens can bind to antibodies in the circulation and be trapped in the renal glomerulus. Chronic membranousproliferative glomerulonephritis is the most commom lesion present and the nephrotic syndrome is the usual form of clinical presentation. The disease can be experimentally produced, and schistosomal antigens and antibodies, as well as complement, can be demonstrated in the glomerular lesions. Specific treatment of schistosomiasis does not seem to alter the clinical course of schistosomal nephropathy.
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Two techniques for rapid diagnosis, immunofluorescence (IFAT) and enzyme immunoassay (EIA), have been compared with virus isolaion in tissue culture for the detection of respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) in specimens of nasopharyngeal secretions. The specimens were obtained from children under five years of age suffering from acute respiratory iliness, during a period of six months from January to June 1982. Of 471 specimens examined 54 (11.5%) were positive by virus isolation and 180 (38.2%) were positive by immunofluorescence. The bacterial contamination of inoculated tissue cultures unfortunately prevented the isolation of virus from many samples. Specimens from 216 children were tested to compare enzyme immunoassay and immunofluorescence. Of these 60 (27%) were positive by EIA and 121 (56%) were positive by IFAT. Our results suggest that the EIA technique although highly specific is rather insensitive. This may be because by the time these tests were done the originl nasopharyngeal secretions were considerably diluted and contained more mucus fragments than the call suspension used for IFAT. Of the three techniques, IFAT gives the best results although EIA may be useful where IFAT is not possible.
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Background: Therapy of chronic hepatitis C (CHC) with pegIFNa/ribavirin achieves sustained virologic response (SVR) in ~55%. Pre-activation of the endogenous interferon system in the liver is associated non-response (NR). Recently, genome-wide association studies described associations of allelic variants near the IL28B (IFNλ3) gene with treatment response and with spontaneous clearance of the virus. We investigated if the IL28B genotype determines the constitutive expression of IFN stimulated genes (ISGs) in the liver of patients with CHC. Methods: We genotyped 93 patients with CHC for 3 IL28B single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs, rs12979860, rs8099917, rs12980275), extracted RNA from their liver biopsies and quantified the expression of IL28B and of 8 previously identified classifier genes which discriminate between SVR and NR (IFI44L, RSAD2, ISG15, IFI22, LAMP3, OAS3, LGALS3BP and HTATIP2). Decision tree ensembles in the form of a random forest classifier were used to calculate the relative predictive power of these different variables in a multivariate analysis. Results: The minor IL28B allele (bad risk for treatment response) was significantly associated with increased expression of ISGs, and, unexpectedly, with decreased expression of IL28B. Stratification of the patients into SVR and NR revealed that ISG expression was conditionally independent from the IL28B genotype, i.e. there was an increased expression of ISGs in NR compared to SVR irrespective of the IL28B genotype. The random forest feature score (RFFS) identified IFI27 (RFFS = 2.93), RSAD2 (1.88) and HTATIP2 (1.50) expression and the HCV genotype (1.62) as the strongest predictors of treatment response. ROC curves of the IL28B SNPs showed an AUC of 0.66 with an error rate (ERR) of 0.38. A classifier with the 3 best classifying genes showed an excellent test performance with an AUC of 0.94 and ERR of 0.15. The addition of IL28B genotype information did not improve the predictive power of the 3-gene classifier. Conclusions: IL28B genotype and hepatic ISG expression are conditionally independent predictors of treatment response in CHC. There is no direct link between altered IFNλ3 expression and pre-activation of the endogenous system in the liver. Hepatic ISG expression is by far the better predictor for treatment response than IL28B genotype.
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Dans la majorité des cas, les diarrhées aiguës sont bénignes et d'évolution spontanément favorable. Il faut cependant savoir reconnaître les situations pouvant mener à des complications, en l'occurrence identifier les diarrhées invasives, inflammatoires, caractérisées par la présence de fièvre, de douleurs abdominales, de ténesmes, de mucus et, ou de sang dans les selles. Celles-ci sont à distinguer des diarrhées sécrétoires, non invasives, non inflammatoires, sans fièvre, généralement aqueuses et volumineuses. En cas de doute diagnostique, l'identification de leucocytes par microscopie ou test à la lactoferrine dans les selles permet d'évoquer une gastroentérite invasive. Les indications à une antibiothérapie empirique dans l'attente du résultat de la coproculture sont la présence d'un syndrome dysentérique (T > 38°C, > 6 selles/24 heures, douleurs abdominales, diarrhées mucopurulentes), l'âge avancé, des comorbidités significatives, une immunosuppression et la présence d'une prothèse endovasculaire. In the majority of the cases, an acute diarrhea is mild and of spontaneously favorable evolution. It is however necessary to know how to recognize the situations being able to lead to complications, in particular to identify the invasive, inflammatory diarrheas, characterized by the presence of fever, abdominal pains, mucus and\or blood. The identification of leukocytes by microscopy or lactoferrine test is helpful. Empiric quinolones treatment is recommended in the presence of dysenteric syndrome (T > 38 degrees C, > 6 stods/24 h 00, abdominal pain muco-purulent diarrhea), advanced age, significant comorbidities, immunosuppression or presence of an endovascular prothesis
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The pharmacogenetics of antimalarial agents are poorly known, although the application of pharmacogenetics might be critical in optimizing treatment. This population pharmacokinetic-pharmacogenetic study aimed at assessing the effects of single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs) in cytochrome P450 isoenzyme genes (CYP, namely, CYP2A6, CYP2B6, CYP2C8, CYP2C9, CYP2C19, CYP2D6, CYP3A4, and CYP3A5) and the N-acetyltransferase 2 gene (NAT2) on the pharmacokinetics of artemisinin-based combination therapies in 150 Tanzanian patients treated with artemether-lumefantrine, 64 Cambodian patients treated with artesunate-mefloquine, and 61 Cambodian patients treated with dihydroartemisinin-piperaquine. The frequency of SNPs varied with the enzyme and the population. Higher frequencies of mutant alleles were found in Cambodians than Tanzanians for CYP2C9*3, CYP2D6*10 (100C → T), CYP3A5*3, NAT2*6, and NAT2*7. In contrast, higher frequencies of mutant alleles were found in Tanzanians for CYP2D6*17 (1023C → T and 2850C → T), CYP3A4*1B, NAT2*5, and NAT2*14. For 8 SNPs, no significant differences in frequencies were observed. In the genetic-based population pharmacokinetic analyses, none of the SNPs improved model fit. This suggests that pharmacogenetic data need not be included in appropriate first-line treatments with the current artemisinin derivatives and quinolines for uncomplicated malaria in specific populations. However, it cannot be ruled out that our results represent isolated findings, and therefore more studies in different populations, ideally with the same artemisinin-based combination therapies, are needed to evaluate the influence of pharmacogenetic factors on the clearance of antimalarials.
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BACKGROUND & AIMS: Hepatitis C virus (HCV) induces chronic infection in 50% to 80% of infected persons; approximately 50% of these do not respond to therapy. We performed a genome-wide association study to screen for host genetic determinants of HCV persistence and response to therapy. METHODS: The analysis included 1362 individuals: 1015 with chronic hepatitis C and 347 who spontaneously cleared the virus (448 were coinfected with human immunodeficiency virus [HIV]). Responses to pegylated interferon alfa and ribavirin were assessed in 465 individuals. Associations between more than 500,000 single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs) and outcomes were assessed by multivariate logistic regression. RESULTS: Chronic hepatitis C was associated with SNPs in the IL28B locus, which encodes the antiviral cytokine interferon lambda. The rs8099917 minor allele was associated with progression to chronic HCV infection (odds ratio [OR], 2.31; 95% confidence interval [CI], 1.74-3.06; P = 6.07 x 10(-9)). The association was observed in HCV mono-infected (OR, 2.49; 95% CI, 1.64-3.79; P = 1.96 x 10(-5)) and HCV/HIV coinfected individuals (OR, 2.16; 95% CI, 1.47-3.18; P = 8.24 x 10(-5)). rs8099917 was also associated with failure to respond to therapy (OR, 5.19; 95% CI, 2.90-9.30; P = 3.11 x 10(-8)), with the strongest effects in patients with HCV genotype 1 or 4. This risk allele was identified in 24% of individuals with spontaneous HCV clearance, 32% of chronically infected patients who responded to therapy, and 58% who did not respond (P = 3.2 x 10(-10)). Resequencing of IL28B identified distinct haplotypes that were associated with the clinical phenotype. CONCLUSIONS: The association of the IL28B locus with natural and treatment-associated control of HCV indicates the importance of innate immunity and interferon lambda in the pathogenesis of HCV infection.
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RESUME Nous n'avons pas de connaissance précise des facteurs à l'origine de l'hétérogénéité phénotypique des cellules T CD4 mémoires. Une troisième population phénotypique des cellules T CD4 mémoires, caractérisée par les marqueurs CD45RA+CCR7- a été identifiée dans cette étude. Cette population présente un état de différentiation avancée, comme en témoigne son histoire de réplication, ainsi que sa capacité de prolifération homéostatique. Les réponses des cellules T CD4 mémoires à différentes conditions de persistance et charge antigénique ont trois patterns phénotypiques différents, caractérisés par les marqueurs CD45RA et CCR7. La réponse CD4 mono -phénotypique CD45RA-CCR7+ ou CD45RA- CCR7- est associée à des conditions d'élimination de l'antigène (telle la réponse CD4 tétanos spécifique) ou à des conditions de persistance antigénique et de virémie élevée (telle la réponse HIV chronique ou la primo-infection CMV) respectivement. D'autre part, les réponses T CD4 multi -phénotypiques CD45RA-CCR7+ sont associées à des conditions d'exposition antigénique prolongée et de faible virémie (telles les infections CMV, EBV et HSV ou les infections HIV chez les long term non progressons). La réponse mono -phénotypique CD45RA- CCR7+ est propre aux cellules T CD4 secrétant de IL2, définies également comme centrales mémoires, la réponse CD45RA- CCR7- aux cellules T CD4 secrétant de l'IFNγ et finalement la réponse mufti-phénotypique aux cellules T CD4 secrétant à la fois de l'IL2 et de l' IFNγ. En conclusion, ces résultats témoignent d'une régulation de l'hétérogénéité phénotypique par l'exposition et la charge antigénique. ABSTRACT The factors responsible for the phenotypic heterogeneity of memory CD4 T cells are unclear. In the present study, we have identified a third population of memory CD4 T cells characterized as CD45RA+CCRT that, based on its replication history and the homeostatic proliferative capacity, was at an advanced stage of differentiation. Three different phenotypic patterns of memory CD4 T cell responses were delineated under different conditions of antigen (Ag) persistence and load using CD45RA and CCR7 as markers of memory T cells. Mono-phenotypic CD45RA'CCR7+ or CD45RA'CCR7' CD4 T cell responses were associated with conditions of Ag clearance (tetanus toxoid-specific CD4 T cell response) or Ag persistence and high load (chronic HIV-1 and primary CMV infections), respectively. Multi-phenotypic CD45RA CCR7+, CD45RA'CCRT and CD45RA+CCRT CD4 T cell responses were associated with protracted Ag exposure and low load (chronic CMV, EBV and HSV infections and HIV-1 infection in long-term nonprogressors). The mono-phenotypic CD45RA'CCR7+ response was typical of central memory (TCM) IL-2-secreting CD4 T cells, the mono-phenotypic CD45RA CCRT response of effector memory (TEM) IFN-γ -secreting CD4 T cells and the multi-phenotypic response of both IL-2- and IFN-γ -secreting cells. The present results indicate that the heterogeneity of different Ag-specific CD4 T cell responses is regulated by Ag exposure and Ag load.
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Primary ciliary dyskinesia (PCD) is an autosomal recessive disease with an incidence estimated between 1:2,000 and 1:40,000. Ciliated epithelia line the airways, nasal and sinus cavities, Eustachian tube and fallopian tubes. Congenital abnormalities of ciliary structure and function impair mucociliary clearance. As a consequence, patients present with chronic sinopulmonary infections, recurrent glue ear and female subfertility. Similarities in the ultrastructure of respiratory cilia, nodal cilia and sperm result in patients with PCD also presenting with male infertility, abnormalities of left-right asymmetry (most commonly situs inversus totalis) and congenital heart disease. Early diagnosis is essential to ensure specialist management of the respiratory and otological complications of PCD. Diagnostic tests focus on analysis of ciliary function and electron microscopy structure. Analysis is technically difficult and labour intensive. It requires expertise for interpretation, restricting diagnosis to specialist centres. Management is currently based on the consensus of experts, and there is a pressing need for randomised clinical trials to inform treatment.
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This paper reports recent observations from our laboratory dealing with the anti-schistosome drugs hycanthone (HC) and praziquantel (PZQ). In particular, we discuss a laboratory model of drug resistance to HC in Schistosoma mansoni and show that drug sensitive and resistant lines of the parasite can be differentiated on the basis of restriction fragment length polymorphisms using homologous ribosomal gene probes. In addition, we summarize data demonstrating that effective chemotherapy of S. mansoni infection with PZQ in mice requires the presence of host anti-parasite antibodies. These antibodies bind to PZQ treated worms and may be involved in an antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity reactions which result in the clearance of worms from the vasculature.
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To assess the variability of the response to exogenous atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP), it was infused at the rate of 1 microgram/min for 2 h in 6 salt-loaded normal volunteers under controlled conditions on 2 occasions at an interval of 1 week. The effect on solute excretion and the haemodynamic and endocrine actions were highly reproducible. The constant ANP infusion caused a delayed and prolonged excretion of sodium, chloride and calcium, no change in potassium or phosphate excretion or in glomerular filtration rate but a marked decrease in renal plasma flow. Blood pressure, heart rate and the plasma levels of angiotensin II, aldosterone, arginine vasopressin and plasma renin activity were unaltered. The effect of a 2-h infusion of ANP 0.5 microgram/min or its vehicle on apparent hepatic blood flow (HBF) was also studied in 14 normal volunteers by measuring the indocyanine green clearance. A 21% decrease in HBF was observed in subjects who received the ANP infusion (p less than 0.01 vs vehicle). Thus, ANP infused at a dose that did not lower blood pressure decreased both renal and liver blood flow in normotensive volunteers. The renal and endocrine responses to ANP were reproducible over a 1-week interval.
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Aim: Expression of IL-7R discriminates alloreactive CD4 T cells (Foxp3 negative), from IL-7Rlow regulatory CD4 T cells (Foxp3 positive). Chronic hepatitis C virus infection (HCV) reduces expression of IL-7R on T cells thus promoting persistence of infection. The aim of this study was to analyze the effect of HCV infection on the expression of IL-7R of activated CD4+ T cells in liver transplant patients. Patients and methods: We analyzed PBMC from liver transplant recipients for the expression of CD4, CD25, FoxP3, IL-7R (24 HCV negative and 29 HCV-chronically infected). We compared these data with non-transplanted individuals (52 HCV-chronically infected patients and 38 healthy donors). Results: In HCV-infected liver transplant recipients, levels of CD4+CD25+CD45RO+IL-7R+ T cells were significantly reduced (10.5+/-0.9%) when compared to non-HCV-infected liver transplant recipients (17.6+/-1.4%) (P<0.001), while both groups (HCV-infected and negative transplant recipients) had significantly higher levels than healthy individuals (6.6+/-0.9%) (P<0.0001). After successful antiviral therapy (sustained antiviral response), 6 HCV-infected transplant recipients showed an increase of CD4+CD25+CD45RO+IL-7R+ T cells, reaching levels similar to that of non-HCVinfected recipients (10.73+/-2.63% prior therapy versus 21.7+/-6.3% after clearance of HCV). (P<0.05) In 4 non-responders (i.e. HCVRNA remaining present in serum), levels of CD4+CD25+CD45RO+IL-7R+ T cells remained unmodified during and after antiviral treatment (11.8+/- 3.3% versus 11.3+/-3.3% respectively). Conclusions: Overall, these data indicate that CD4+CD25+CD45RO+IL-7R+ T cells appear to be modulated by chronic HCV infection after liver transplantation. Whether lower levels of alloreactive T cells in HCV-infected liver transplant recipients are associated with a tolerogenic profile remains to be studied.
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Purpose: While imatinib has revolutionized the treatment of chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML) and gastrointestinal stromal tumors (GIST), its pharmacokinetic-pharmacodynamic relationships have been poorly studied. This study aimed to explore the issue in oncologic patients, and to evaluate the specific influence of the target genotype in a GIST subpopulation. Patients and methods: Data from 59 patients (321 plasma samples) were collected during a previous pharmacokinetic study. Based on a population model purposely developed, individual post-hoc Bayesian estimates of pharmacokinetic parameters were derived, and used to estimate drug exposure (AUC; area under curve). Free fraction parameters were deduced from a model incorporating plasma alpha1-acid glycoprotein levels. Associations between AUC (or clearance) and therapeutic response (coded on a 3-point scale), or tolerability (4-point scale), were explored by ordered logistic regression. Influence of KIT genotype on response was also assessed in GIST patients. Results: Total and free drug exposure correlated with the number of side effects (p < 0.005). A relationship with response was not evident in the whole patient set (with good-responders tending to receive lower doses and bad-responders higher doses). In GIST patients however, higher free drug exposure predicted better responses. A strong association was notably observed in patients harboring an exon 9 mutation or a wild type KIT, known to decrease tumor sensitivity towards imatinib (p < 0.005). Conclusions: Our results are arguments to further evaluate the potential benefit of a therapeutic monitoring program for imatinib. Our data also suggest that stratification by genotype will be important in future trials.
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Cerebrospinal fluid amyloid-beta 1-42 (Aβ1-42) and phosphorylated Tau at position 181 (pTau181) are biomarkers of Alzheimer's disease (AD). We performed an analysis and meta-analysis of genome-wide association study data on Aβ1-42 and pTau181 in AD dementia patients followed by independent replication. An association was found between Aβ1-42 level and a single-nucleotide polymorphism in SUCLG2 (rs62256378) (P = 2.5×10(-12)). An interaction between APOE genotype and rs62256378 was detected (P = 9.5 × 10(-5)), with the strongest effect being observed in APOE-ε4 noncarriers. Clinically, rs62256378 was associated with rate of cognitive decline in AD dementia patients (P = 3.1 × 10(-3)). Functional microglia experiments showed that SUCLG2 was involved in clearance of Aβ1-42.
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Amino acids have been reported to increase endogenous glucose production in normal human subjects during hyperinsulinemia: however, controversy exists as to whether insulin-mediated glucose disposal is inhibited under these conditions. The effect of an amino acid infusion on glucose oxidation rate has so far not been determined. Substrate oxidation rates, endogenous glucose production, and [13C]glucose synthesis from [13C]bicarbonate were measured in six normal human subjects during sequential infusions of exogenous glucose and exogenous glucose with (n = 5) or without (n = 5) exogenous amino acids. Amino acids increased endogenous glucose production by 84% and [13C]glucose synthesis by 235%. Glucose oxidation estimated from indirect calorimetry decreased slightly after amino acids, but glucose oxidation estimated from [13C]glucose-13CO2 data was increased by 14%. It is concluded that gluconeogenesis is the major pathway of amino acid degradation. During amino acid administration, indirect calorimetry underestimates the true rate of glucose oxidation, whereas glucose oxidation calculated from the 13C enrichment of expired CO2 during [U-13C]glucose infusion does not. A slight stimulation of glucose oxidation during amino acid infusion, concomitant with an increased plasma insulin concentration, indicates that amino acids do not inhibit glucose oxidation.