966 resultados para Pennsylvania Hospital (Philadelphia, Pa.)
Resumo:
The Hypermethylated in Cancer 1 (HIC1) gene encodes a zinc finger transcriptional repressor that cooperates with p53 to suppress cancer development. We and others recently showed that HIC1 is a transcriptional target of p53. To identify additional transcriptional regulators of HIC1, we screened a set of transcription factors for regulation of a human HIC1 promoter reporter. We found that E2F1 strongly activates the full-length HIC1 promoter reporter. Promoter deletions and mutations identified two E2F responsive elements in the HIC1 core promoter region. Moreover, in vivo binding of E2F1 to the HIC1 promoter was shown by chromatin immunoprecipitation assays in human TIG3 fibroblasts expressing tamoxifen-activated E2F1. In agreement, activation of E2F1 in TIG3-E2F1 cells markedly increased HIC1 expression. Interestingly, expression of E2F1 in the p53(-/-) hepatocellular carcinoma cell line Hep3B led to an increase of endogenous HIC1 mRNA, although bisulfite genomic sequencing of the HIC1 promoter revealed that the region bearing the two E2F1 binding sites is hypermethylated. In addition, endogenous E2F1 induced by etoposide treatment bound to the HIC1 promoter. Moreover, inhibition of E2F1 strongly reduced the expression of etoposide-induced HIC1. In conclusion, we identified HIC1 as novel E2F1 transcriptional target in DNA damage responses.
Resumo:
PURPOSE OF REVIEW: Photodynamic therapy (PDT) with hematoporphyrins has emerged as promising treatment for nonresectable cholangiocarcinoma in several prospective observational studies and two randomized studies. This review describes the mechanism of action of PDT, gives an overview of clinical experience in cholangiocarcinoma and summarizes the results published in 2007 and 2008. RECENT FINDINGS: The mechanism of action of PDT has been further elucidated. PDT induces an apoptotic, antiangiogenic as well as an immunomodulatory response. Interleukin-6, a bile duct epithelium growth factor correlating with tumor burden, decreases after PDT. The efficacy of PDT was confirmed in a comparative study in the United States. Patients with no visible mass on imaging studies, high serum albumin levels and treatment immediately after diagnosis seem to benefit most from PDT. Although it is recommended to perform PDT in bile ducts without stents in place, illumination through metal stents is possible if the light dose is adjusted. Meso-tetrahydroxyphenyl chlorine is a new potent photosensitizer for PDT of cholangiocarcinoma. SUMMARY: In advanced nonresectable cholangiocarcinoma, PDT is the only evidence-based treatment that improves survival when compared with stenting. Therefore, PDT should be offered to those who are unsuitable for surgery.
Resumo:
PURPOSE: Alpine ski performance relates closely to both anaerobic and aerobic capacities. During their competitive season, skiers greatly reduce endurance and weight training, and on-snow training becomes predominant. To typify this shift, we compared exhaustive ramp cycling and squat (SJ) and countermovement jumping (CMJ) performance in elite males before and after their competitive season. RESULTS: In postseason compared with preseason: 1) maximal oxygen uptake (VO 2 max) normalized to bodyweight was higher (55.2 +/- 5.2 vs 52.7 +/- 3.6 mL x kg(-1) x min(-1), P < 0.01), but corresponding work rate (W) was unchanged; 2) at ventilatory thresholds (VT), absolute and relative work rates were similar but heart rates were lower; 3) VO2/W slope was greater (9.59 +/- 0.6 vs 9.19 +/- 0.4 mL O2 x min(-1) x W(-1), P = 0.02), with similar flattening (P < 0.01) above V T1 at both time points; and 4) jump height was greater in SJ (47.4 +/- 4.4 vs 44.7 +/- 4.3 cm, P < 0.01) and CMJ (52.7 +/- 4.6 vs 50.4 +/- 5.0 cm, P < 0.01). DISCUSSION: We believe that aerobic capacity and leg power were constrained in preseason and that improvements primarily reflected an in-season recovery from a fatigued state, which was caused by incongruous preseason training. Residual adaptations to high-altitude exposure in preseason could have also affected the results. Nonetheless, modern alpine skiing seemingly provides an ample cardiovascular training stimulus for skiers to maintain their aerobic capacities during the racing season. CONCLUSIONS: We conclude that aerobic fitness and leg explosiveness can be maintained in-season but may be compromised by heavy or excessive preseason training. In addition, ramp test V O2/W slope analysis could be useful for monitoring both positive and negative responses to training.
Resumo:
Mediastinal mass syndrome remains an anaesthetic challenge that cannot be underestimated. Depending on the localization and the size of the mediastinal tumour, the clinical presentation is variable ranging from a complete lack of symptoms to severe cardiorespiratory problems. The administration of general anaesthesia can be associated with acute intraoperative or postoperative cardiorespiratory decompensation that may result in death due to tumour-related compression syndromes. The role of the anaesthesiologist, as a part of the interdisciplinary treatment team, is to ensure a safe perioperative period. However, there is still no structured protocol available for perioperative anaesthesiological procedure. The aim of this article is to summarize the genesis of and the diagnostic options for mediastinal mass syndrome and to provide a solid detailed methodology for its safe perioperative management based on a review of the latest literature and our own clinical experiences. Proper anaesthetic management of patients with mediastinal mass syndrome begins with an assessment of the preoperative status, directed foremost at establishing the localization of the tumour and on the basis of the clinical and radiological findings, discerning whether any vital mediastinal structures are affected. We have found it helpful to assign 'severity grade' (using a three-grade clinical classification scale: 'safe', 'uncertain', 'unsafe'), whereby each stage triggers appropriate action in terms of staffing and apparatus, such as the provision of alternatives for airway management, cardiopulmonary bypass and additional specialists. During the preoperative period, we are guided by a 12-point plan that also takes into account the special features of transportation into the operating theatre and patient monitoring. Tumour compression on the airways or the great vessels may create a critical respiratory and/or haemodynamic situation, and therefore the standard of intraoperative management includes induction of anaesthesia in the operating theatre on an adjustable surgical table, the use of short-acting anaesthetics, avoidance of muscle relaxants and maintenance of spontaneous respiration. In the case of severe clinical symptoms and large mediastinal tumours, we consider it absolutely essential to cannulate the femoral vessels preoperatively under local anaesthesia and to provide for the availability of cardiopulmonary bypass in the operating theatre, should extracorporeal circulation become necessary. The benefits of establishing vascular access under local anaesthesia clearly outweigh any associated degree of patient discomfort. In the case of patients classified as 'safe' or 'uncertain', a preoperative consensus with the surgeons should be reached as to the anaesthetic approach and the management of possible complications.
Resumo:
BACKGROUND ; AIMS: Complications and technical problems of paracentesis in cirrhotic patients are infrequent. However, the severity and the incidence of these events and their risk factors have not been assessed prospectively. METHODS: Cirrhotic patients (n = 171) undergoing paracentesis were included. Of the 515 paracenteses, 8.8% were diagnostic, and 91.2% were therapeutic. Technical features, demographic data, and adverse events during a period of 72 hours after the procedure were examined. RESULTS: Major complications occurred in 1.6% of procedures and included 5 bleedings and 3 infections, resulting in death in 2 cases. Major complications were associated with therapeutic but not diagnostic procedures and tended to be more prevalent in patients with low platelet count (<50 10(9)/L), Child-Pugh stage C, and in alcoholic cirrhosis patients. Technical problems occurred in 5.6%. The most frequent complication was a leak of ascites at the puncture site (5.0%), and in 89.5% there were no complications. CONCLUSIONS: The safety of paracentesis in cirrhotic patients might be decreased if risk factors, which depend on the characteristics of the patient and of the procedure itself, are present.
Resumo:
The transcription factor CCAAT enhancer binding protein alpha (CEBPA) is crucial for normal development of granulocytes. Various mechanisms have been identified how CEBPA function is dysregulated in patients with acute myeloid leukemia (AML). In particular, dominant-negative mutations located either at the N- or the C terminus of the CEBPA gene are observed in roughly 10% of AML patients, either in the combination on separate alleles or as sole mutation. Clinically significant complexity exists among AML with CEBPA mutations, and patients with double CEBPA mutations seem to have a more favorable course of the disease than patients with a single mutation. In addition, myeloid precursor cells of healthy carriers with a single germ-line CEBPA mutation evolve to overt AML by acquiring a second sporadic CEBPA mutation. This review summarizes recent reports on dysregulation of CEBPA function at various levels in human AML and therapeutic concepts targeting correction of CEBPA activity. The currently available data are persuasive evidence that impaired CEBPA function contributes directly to the development of AML, whereas restoring CEBPA function represents a promising target for novel therapeutic strategies in AML.
Resumo:
PURPOSE: The unfolded protein response is triggered by the accumulation of misfolded proteins within the endoplasmic reticulum. Previous studies suggest that the unfolded protein response is activated in some cancer cell lines and involved in tumor development. The role of the unfolded protein response during leukemogenesis is unknown thus far. EXPERIMENTAL DESIGN: Here, we assessed the induction of key effectors of the unfolded protein response in leukemic cells at diagnosis of 105 acute myeloid leukemia (AML) patients comprising all subtypes. We determined the formation of the spliced variant of the X-box-binding protein 1 (XBP1) mRNA, as well as expression levels of calreticulin, GRP78, and CHOP mRNA. RESULTS: The formation of the spliced variant of XBP1s was detectable in 16.2% (17 of 105) of AML patients. Consistent with activated unfolded protein response, this group also had significantly increased expression of calreticulin, GRP78, and CHOP. AML patients with activated unfolded protein response had lower WBC counts, lactate dehydrogenase levels, and more frequently, secondary AML. The incidence of fms-related tyrosine kinase 3 (FLT3) mutations was significantly lower in patients with activated unfolded protein response. In addition, an association was observed between activated unfolded protein response and deletion of chromosome 7. Finally, the clinical course of AML patients with activated unfolded protein response was more favorable with lower relapse rate (P = 0.0182) and better overall (P = 0.041) and disease-free survival (P = 0.022). CONCLUSIONS: These results suggest that the unfolded protein response is activated in a considerable subset of AML patients. AML patients with activated unfolded protein response present specific clinical characteristics and a more favorable course of the disease.
Resumo:
BACKGROUND: The aim of this study was to report a case of squamous cell carcinoma of the petrous part of the temporal bone associated with a long history of secondary acquired cholesteatoma in a 71-year-old man. PATIENTS AND METHODS: We present the case of a 71-year-old man diagnosed with secondary acquired cholesteatoma in 1950. Treatments consisted of repetitive surgery owing to several relapses. In 2004, he presented with progressive fetid otorrhea. Clinical and computed tomography findings were indicative for relapsing cholesteatoma and a subtotal petrosectomy was performed. RESULTS: Histologic work-up demonstrated a moderately differentiated squamous cell carcinoma. The staging revealed stadium pT3 cN0 cM0. Postoperative treatment consisted of local radiation therapy with intensity-modulated beam geometry with a total of 64.2 Gy in 30 fractions using a simultaneous integrated boost. CONCLUSION: Middle ear carcinoma can arise from acquired cholesteatoma. The pathogenesis of squamous cell carcinoma associated with cholesteatoma has not been elucidated satisfactorily. Due to the complex anatomic features, intensity-modulated radiation therapy is the technique of choice for postoperative radiotherapy.
Resumo:
Diagnosis of drug allergy involves first the recognition of sometimes unusual symptoms as drug allergy and, second, the identification of the eliciting drug. This is an often difficult task, as the clinical picture and underlying pathomechanisms are heterogeneous. In clinical routine, physicians frequently have to rely upon a suggestive history and eventual provocation tests, both having their specific limitations. For this reason both in vivo (skin tests) and in vitro tests are investigated intensively as tools to identify the disease-eliciting drug. One of the tests evaluated in drug allergy is the basophil activation test (BAT). Basophils with their high-affinity IgE receptors are easily accessible and therefore can be used as indicator cells for IgE-mediated reactions. Upon allergen challenge and cross-linking of membrane-bound IgE antibodies (via Fc-epsilon-RI) basophils up-regulate certain activation markers on their surface such as CD63 and CD203c, as well as intracellular markers (eg, phosphorylated p38MAPK). In BAT, these alterations can be detected rapidly on a single-cell basis by multicolor flow cytometry using specific monoclonal antibodies. Combining this technique with in vitro passive sensitization of donor basophils with patients' serum, one can prove the IgE dependence of a drug reaction. This article summarizes the authors' current experience with the BAT in the diagnostic management of immediate-type drug allergy mediated by drug-specific IgE antibodies.
Resumo:
The diagnosis of a drug hypersensitivity reaction (DHR) is a challenging task because multiple and complex mechanisms are involved. Better understanding of immunologic pathomechanisms in DHRs and rapid progress in cellular-based in-vitro tests can help to adjust the correct diagnostic strategy to individual patients with different clinical manifestations of drug allergy. Thus, drug hypersensitivity diagnosis needs to rely on a combination of medical history and different in vivo and in vitro tests. In this article, the authors discuss current in vitro techniques, most recent findings, and new promising tools in the diagnosis of T-cell-mediated drug hypersensitivity.
Resumo:
Drug allergies are adverse drug reactions mediated by the specific immune system. Despite characteristic signs (eg, skin rash) that raise awareness for possible drug allergies, they are great imitators of disease and may hide behind unexpected symptoms. No single standardized diagnostic test can confirm the immune-mediated mechanism or identify the causative drug; therefore, immune-mediated drug hypersensitivity reactions and their causative drugs must be recognized by the constellation of exposure, timing, and clinical features including the pattern of organ manifestation. Additional allergologic investigations (skin tests, in vitro tests, provocation tests) may provide help in identifying the possible eliciting drug.