The roles of flux- and decompression melting and their respective fractionation lines for continental crust formation: Evidence from the Kohistan arc

Delamination and foundering of the lower continental crust (LCC) into the mantle is part of the crust-forming mechanism. However, knowledge of the composition and mineralogy of the preserved or delaminated LCC over geological timescales remains scarce. We provide a synopsis of recent research within the Kohistan arc (Pakistan) and demonstrate that hydrous and less hydrous liquid lines of descent related to flux assisted and decompression mantle melting, respectively, produce compositionally different lower crustal rocks. The argument refers to two lower crustal sections exposed in Kohistan, the older Southern Plutonic Complex (SPC) and the younger Chilas Complex. The SPC typifies a hydrous, high-pressure fractionation sequence of olivine-pyroxenes-garnet-Fe/Ti-oxide-amphibole-plagioclase. The Chilas Complex illustrates a less hydrous fractionation sequence of olivine-clinopyroxene-orthopyroxene-plagioclase-amphibole. Despite the similarity of the Chilas Complex rocks to proposed lower crust compositions, the less hydrous fractionation results in unrealistically small volumes of silica-rich rocks, precluding the Chilas Complex gabbros to represent the magmatic complement to the upper crust. The composition of the SPC lower crust differs markedly from bulk lower crust estimates, but is complementary to silica-rich rocks exposed along this section and in the Kohistan batholith. These observations inspire a composite model for the formation of continental crust (CC) where the negatively buoyant delaminated and the buoyant preserved lower continental crusts (LCC) differ in genesis, mineralogy, and composition. We propose that the upper, non-sedimentary subsequent removal of the complementary, negatively buoyant garnet-pyroxene-amphibole-plagioclase-rich cumulates. In contrast, the LCC, which is buoyant and preserved over geological timescales, is formed by less hydrous parental mantle melts. We suggest that the bulk continental crust composition is related to mixing of these petrologically not directly related end members. Published by Elsevier B.V.

Osteoradionecrosis: an update.

Osteoradionecrosis (ORN) of the mandible is the most serious and severe side effect of combined treatment of head and neck tumors. A new theory for the pathogenesis of ORN has been proposed relating it to a fibro-atrophic mechanism including free radical formation, endothelial dysfunction, inflammation, microvascular thrombosis leading to bone and tissue necrosis. Risk factors mainly include radiation related risk factors, surgery and, tobacco and alcohol abuse. Removing of diseased teeth after and even probably after radiotherapy is generally considered the main risk factor in ORN. Conversely, steroid use before or after radiation may have a protective effect related to the inhibition of the initial inflammatory phase of ORN. Prevention of ORN is still based on the preventive extractions of decayed or periodontally compromised teeth before radiotherapy. Based on the current understanding of ORN pathophysiology, new preventive and therapeutic protocols have been suggested for mild to moderate stages. Free tissue surgical transfers is the treatment of choice of severe, extensive and long established ORN.

Duration of untreated psychosis : a proposition regarding treatment definition

La durée de psychose non traitée (Duration of Untreated Psychosis, DUP) est définie par le temps écoulé entre l'émergence d'un trouble psychotique et le début de son traitement. La réduction de la DUP est un des objectifs principaux des programmes spécialisés dans le traitement de la psychose émergente, de nombreux travaux de recherche suggérant qu'une DUP longue est associée à une évolution défavorable de la maladie. Ces résultats restent cependant controversés, certaines études ne démontrant pas une telle association. Cette contradiction dans les résultats pourrait être la conséquence d'un manque d'uniformité dans les définitions appliquées pour mesurer la DUP, plus particulièrement en ce qui concerne la définition de ce que l'on considère être « début » du traitement. En effet, si l'étude de la phase d'émergence de la pathologie psychotique a été le focus d'une attention considérable qui a conduit à un certain degré de consensus quant à sa définition, le concept de début du traitement n'est clairement pas défini de manière aussi homogène. Compte tenu de l'importance des enjeux relatifs à l'intervention précoce dans les troubles psychotiques, il nous a semblé utile d'explorer cette question de manière plus approfondie, considérant qu'un manque de consensus dans la définition de la DUP contribue certainement à troubler les résultats des études qui visent à évaluer son impact sur l'évolution de ces maladies. En conséquence, l'objectif premier de ce travail est d'explorer l'impact de l'application de diverses définitions de début de traitement sur l'estimation de la DUP. Dans un premier article, publié dans Acta Neuropsychiatrica en 2009 (Duration of untreated psychosis : What are we talking about ?), le focus a été placé sur une revue de littérature concernant les définitions utilisées pour caractériser la fin de la DUP ainsi que sur les conséquences possibles d'un manque de précision dans cette définition sur l'évaluation de l'impact d'un retard de traitement dans la psychose débutante. Ce travail nous a permis d'identifier trois groupes principaux de définition de fin de DUP (End of DUP ; E-DUP) parmi les multiples critères utilisés dans les études publiées. E-DUP-1 est définie par la mise en route d'un traitement antipsychotique, le plus souvent sans tenir compte ni du dosage prescrit, ni de l'adhérence au traitement. E-DUP-2 est définie par l'entrée dans un programme de traitement spécialisé, et E-DUP-3 enfin est définie par la conjonction de la prescription d'un traitement antipsychotique adapté, de l'adhérence à ce traitement, et de la mise en route d'une prise en charge dans un programme spécialisé. En conclusion, nous relevions que cette grande variété dans les définitions appliquées pour l'évaluation de la DUP avait probablement contribué à l'aspect contradictoire des résultats des études de son impact sur l'évolution des psychoses et qu'il était donc temps de proposer une définition de consensus. La deuxième étude a été conduite dans le cadre d'un suivi de cohorte mis en place dans le programme de Traitement et Intervention Précoce dans les troubles Psychotiques (TIPP) établi dans le Département de Psychiatrie du CHUV à Lausanne depuis 2004. Les objectifs de cette seconde étude étaient au nombre de trois: (1) Exploration des variations de la DUP en fonction de l'application de trois principales définitions de fin de DUP (E-DUP) identifiées dans la littérature ; (2) Evaluation de la proportion de patients remplissant au moins une fois au cours des 18 mois de traitement la définition de E-DUP la plus compatible avec les directives de traitement proposées par l'International Early Psychosis Association (patient est à la fois engagé dans le traitement et se montre compliant à la médication, E-DUP-3); (3) Enfin, identification desfacteurs qui caractérisent les patients qui ne remplissent jamais les critères de cette dernière définition. L'exploration de différentes durées de DUP en utilisant les trois définitions d'E-DUP a donné les résultats suivants : La DUP1 médiane (2.2 mois) était significativement plus courte que la DUP2 (7.4 mois), et la DUP3 (13.6 mois) était significativement la plus longue des trois. De plus, 19.7% des patients n'avaient jamais rempli les critères de E-DUP-3 ; on peut donc considérer que près de 20% des patients traités dans ce programme spécialisé ne recevaient pas un traitement adéquat selon les directives intrernationales actuellement reconnues. Sur la base de ces chiffres, il apparaît clairement que, dans les études de l'impact de la DUP sur l'évolution de la psychose débutante, bon nombre des patients pour lesquels on considère que la DUP est terminée ne sont en fait pas adéquatement traités. Il est en conséquence très probable que ceci ait faussé les résultats de ces études, et qu'une définition plus restrictive permettrait de répondre de manière plus précise à cette question. Les patients qui ne remplissaient pas les critères E-DUP3 au cours des 18 premiers mois de traitement étaient caractérisés par un moins bon niveau de fonctionnement au cours de leur vie (« lower lifetime SOFAS » ; p=0.017) et ils étaient plus susceptibles de consommer du cannabis à l'entrée du programme ???? (?2 (1, n=49)=4.241, p=0.039). Pour ceux qui avaient rempli les critères E-DUP-3 au cours des 18 mois, une longue DUP3 était associée avec un jeune âge au début des symptômes psychotiques (rs =-0.573, p<0.001), et avec un faible niveau de fonctionnement pré-morbide (score de PAS élevés (rs =0.373, p=0.001), niveau maximal au cours de la vie bas pour le GAF(rs =-0.367, p<0.001) et pour le SOFAS (rs =-0.314, p=0.003)). En conclusion, ce travail a permis de mettre en évidence une grande variabilité dans la définition de la fin de la DUP parmi les études publiées jusque à ce jour, et l'impact important que le choix d'une ou l'autre de ces définitions peut avoir sur l'estimation de la DUP. De plus, nous avons observé que malgré la mise en place d'un programme spécialisé, près de 20% des patients ne remplissent pas les critères d'exposition à un traitement adéquat au cours des 18 premiers mois de prise en charge. Il est donc probable que l'estimation de l'impact de la DUP ait été faussé par cette variabilité, et il semble important que la communauté scientifique s'accorde sur une définition plus rigoureuse de cette variable. Enfin, certaines caractéristiques permettent d'identifier les patients qui sont à risque de ne pas remplir les critères de traitement adéquat a cours des 18 premiers mois de prise en charge ; il est possible qu'une identification précoce de ceux-ci permette la mise en place de stratégies mieux adaptées pour les aider à s'engager dans les soins. Le futur développement de ce travail sera d'évaluer l'impact de la DUP sur l'évolution des patients au cours des 36 mois de traitement proposés dans le programme TIPP, en appliquant les divers critères E-DUP, afin de voir si notre hypothèse que la variation des définitions a effectivement faussé les résultats de telles études. Nous devons pour cela attendre qu'un nombre suffisant de patients ait complété les 36 mois de traitement, de manière à avoir une puissance statistique suffisante pour répondre clairement à cette question.

Interleukin-1 receptor antagonist gene (IL-1RN) polymorphism is a predictive factor of clinical pregnancy after IVF.

BACKGROUND: Only 25% of IVF transfer cycles lead to a clinical pregnancy, calling for continued technical progress but also more in depth analysis of patients' individual characteristics. The interleukin-1 (IL-1) system and matrix metalloproteinases (MMPs) are strongly implicated in embryo implantation. The genes coding for IL-1Ra (gene symbol IL-1RN), IL-1beta, MMP2 and MMP9 bear functional polymorphisms. We analysed the maternal genetic profile at these polymorphic sites in IVF patients, to determine possible correlations with IVF outcome. METHODS: One hundred and sixty women undergoing an IVF cycle were enrolled and a buccal smear was obtained. The presence of IL-1RN variable number of tandem repeats and IL-1B + 3953, MMP2-1306 and MMP9-1562 single nucleotide substitutions were determined. Patients were divided into pregnancy failures (119), biochemical pregnancies (8) and clinical pregnancies (33). RESULTS: There was a 40% decrease in IL-1RN*2 allele frequency (P = 0.024) and a 45% decrease in IL-1RN*2 carrier status in the clinical pregnancy group as compared to the pregnancy failure group (P = 0.017). This decrease was still statistically significant after a multivariate logistic regression analysis. The likelihood of a clinical pregnancy was decreased accordingly in IL-1RN*2 carriers: odds ratio = 0.349, 95% confidence interval = 0.2-0.8, P = 0.017. The IL-1B, MMP2 and MMP9 polymorphisms showed no correlation with IVF outcome. CONCLUSIONS: IL-1RN*2 allele carriage is associated with a poor prognosis of achieving a pregnancy after IVF.

Physical activity level and health-related quality of life in the general adult population: a systematic review.

OBJECTIVE: Little is known regarding health-related quality of life and its relation with physical activity level in the general population. Our primary objective was to systematically review data examining this relationship. METHODS: We systematically searched MEDLINE, EMBASE, CINAHL, and PsycINFO for health-related quality of life and physical activity related keywords in titles, abstracts, or indexing fields. RESULTS: From 1426 retrieved references, 55 citations were judged to require further evaluation. Fourteen studies were retained for data extraction and analysis; seven were cross-sectional studies, two were cohort studies, four were randomized controlled trials and one used a combined cross sectional and longitudinal design. Thirteen different methods of physical activity assessment were used. Most health-related quality of life instruments related to the Medical Outcome Study SF-36 questionnaire. Cross-sectional studies showed a consistently positive association between self-reported physical activity and health-related quality of life. The largest cross-sectional study reported an adjusted odds ratio of "having 14 or more unhealthy days" during the previous month to be 0.40 (95% Confidence Interval 0.36-0.45) for those meeting recommended levels of physical activity compared to inactive subjects. Cohort studies and randomized controlled trials tended to show a positive effect of physical activity on health-related quality of life, but similar to the cross-sectional studies, had methodological limitations. CONCLUSION: Cross-sectional data showed a consistently positive association between physical activity level and health-related quality of life. Limited evidence from randomized controlled trials and cohort studies precludes a definitive statement about the nature of this association.

Midregional pro-atrial natriuretic peptide and procalcitonin improve survival prediction in VAP.

Ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP) affects mortality, morbidity and cost of critical care. Reliable risk estimation might improve end-of-life decisions, resource allocation and outcome. Several scoring systems for survival prediction have been established and optimised over the last decades. Recently, new biomarkers have gained interest in the prognostic field. We assessed whether midregional pro-atrial natriuretic peptide (MR-proANP) and procalcitonin (PCT) improve the predictive value of the Simplified Acute Physiologic Score (SAPS) II and Sequential Related Organ Failure Assessment (SOFA) in VAP. Specified end-points of a prospective multinational trial including 101 patients with VAP were analysed. Death &lt;28 days after VAP onset was the primary end-point. MR-proANP and PCT were elevated at the onset of VAP in nonsurvivors compared with survivors (p = 0.003 and p = 0.017, respectively) and their slope of decline differed significantly (p = 0.018 and p = 0.039, respectively). Patients with the highest MR-proANP quartile at VAP onset were at increased risk for death (log rank p = 0.013). In a logistic regression model, MR-proANP was identified as the best predictor of survival. Adding MR-proANP and PCT to SAPS II and SOFA improved their predictive properties (area under the curve 0.895 and 0.880). We conclude that the combination of two biomarkers, MR-proANP and PCT, improve survival prediction of clinical severity scores in VAP.

How to improve flow during cardiopulmonary bypass in an acardia experimental model.

OBJECTIVES In extreme scenarios, such as hyperacute rejection of heart transplant, an urgent heart explantation might be necessary. The aim of this experimental study was to determine the feasibility and to improve the haemodynamics of a venoarterial cardiopulmonary bypass after cardiectomy. METHODS A venoarterial cardiopulmonary bypass was established in seven calves (56.4 ± 7 kg) by the transjugular insertion to the caval axis of a self-expanding cannula, with a carotid artery return. After baseline measurements (A), ventricular fibrillation was induced (B), great arteries were clamped (C), the heart was excised and the right and left atria remnants, containing the pulmonary veins, were sutured together leaving an atrial septal defect over the cannula in the caval axis (D). Measurements were taken with the pulmonary artery clamped and declamped. RESULTS Initial pump flow was 4.16 ± 0.75 l/min dropping to 2.9 ± 0.63 l/min (P(AB )< 0.001) 10 min after induction of ventricular fibrillation. After cardiectomy with the pulmonary artery clamped, the pump flow increased non-significantly to 3.20 ± 0.78 l/min. After declamping, the flow significantly increased close to baseline levels (3.61 ± 0.73 l/min, P(DB )= 0.009, P(DC )= 0.017), supporting the notion that full cardiopulmonary bypass in acardia is feasible only if adequate drainage of pulmonary circulation is assured to avoid pulmonary congestion and loss of volume from the left-to-right shunt of bronchial vessels.

Well, you have hepatic metastases: Use of technical language by medical students in simulated patient interviews.

OBJECTIVE: This research explored medical students' use and perception of technical language in a practical training setting to enhance skills in breaking bad news in oncology. METHODS: Terms potentially confusing to laypeople were selected from 108 videotaped interviews conducted in an undergraduate Communication Skills Training. A subset of these terms was included in a questionnaire completed by students (N=111) with the aim of gaining insight into their perceptions of different speech registers and of patient understanding. Excerpts of interviews were analyzed qualitatively to investigate students' communication strategies with respect to these technical terms. RESULTS: Fewer than half of the terms were clarified. Students checked for simulated patients' understanding of the terms palliative and metastasis/to metastasize in 22-23% of the interviews. The term ambulatory was spontaneously explained in 75% of the interviews, hepatic and metastasis/to metastasize in 22-24%. Most provided explanations were in plain language; metastasis/to metastasize and ganglion/ganglionic were among terms most frequently explained in technical language. CONCLUSION: A significant number of terms potentially unfamiliar and confusing to patients remained unclarified in training interviews conducted by senior medical students, even when they perceived the terms as technical. PRACTICE IMPLICATIONS: This exploration may offer important insights for improving future physicians' skills.

Prognostic role of KRAS and BRAF in stage II and III resected colon cancer: results of the translational study on the PETACC-3, EORTC 40993, SAKK 60-00 trial.

PURPOSE: Mutations within the KRAS proto-oncogene have predictive value but are of uncertain prognostic value in the treatment of advanced colorectal cancer. We took advantage of PETACC-3, an adjuvant trial with 3,278 patients with stage II to III colon cancer, to evaluate the prognostic value of KRAS and BRAF tumor mutation status in this setting. PATIENTS AND METHODS: Formalin-fixed paraffin-embedded tissue blocks (n = 1,564) were prospectively collected and DNA was extracted from tissue sections from 1,404 cases. Planned analysis of KRAS exon 2 and BRAF exon 15 mutations was performed by allele-specific real-time polymerase chain reaction. Survival analyses were based on univariate and multivariate proportional hazard regression models. RESULTS: KRAS and BRAF tumor mutation rates were 37.0% and 7.9%, respectively, and were not significantly different according to tumor stage. In a multivariate analysis containing stage, tumor site, nodal status, sex, age, grade, and microsatellite instability (MSI) status, KRAS mutation was associated with grade (P = .0016), while BRAF mutation was significantly associated with female sex (P = .017), and highly significantly associated with right-sided tumors, older age, high grade, and MSI-high tumors (all P < 10(-4)). In univariate and multivariate analysis, KRAS mutations did not have a major prognostic value regarding relapse-free survival (RFS) or overall survival (OS). BRAF mutation was not prognostic for RFS, but was for OS, particularly in patients with MSI-low (MSI-L) and stable (MSI-S) tumors (hazard ratio, 2.2; 95% CI, 1.4 to 3.4; P = .0003). CONCLUSION: In stage II-III colon cancer, the KRAS mutation status does not have major prognostic value. BRAF is prognostic for OS in MS-L/S tumors.

Acute multivessel revascularization improves 1-year outcome in ST-elevation myocardial infarction: a nationwide study cohort from the AMIS Plus registry.

BACKGROUND: The optimal strategy for percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) of ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) in multi-vessel disease (MVD), i.e., multi-vessel PCI (MV-PCI) vs. PCI of the infarct-related artery only (IRA-PCI), still remains unknown. METHODS: Patients of the AMIS Plus registry admitted with an acute coronary syndrome were contacted after a median of 378 days (interquartile range 371-409). The primary end-point was all-cause death. The secondary end-point included all major adverse cardiovascular and cerebrovascular events (MACCE) including death, re-infarction, re-hospitalization for cardiac causes, any cardiac re-intervention, and stroke. RESULTS: Between 2005 and 2012, 8330 STEMI patients were identified, of whom 1909 (24%) had MVD. Of these, 442 (23%) received MV-PCI and 1467 (77%) IRA-PCI. While all-cause mortality was similar in both groups (2.7% both, p>0.99), MACCE was significantly lower after MV-PCI vs. IRA-PCI (15.6% vs. 20.0%, p=0.038), mainly driven by lower rates of cardiac re-hospitalization and cardiac re-intervention. Patients undergoing MV-PCI with drug-eluting stents had lower rates of all-cause mortality (2.1% vs. 7.4%, p=0.026) and MACCE (14.1% vs. 25.9%, p=0.042) compared with those receiving bare metal stents (BMS). In multivariate analysis, MV-PCI (odds ratio, OR 0.69, 95% CI 0.51-0.93, p=0.017) and comorbidities (Charlson index ≥ 2; OR 1.42, 95% CI 1.05-1.92, p=0.025) were independent predictors for 1-year MACCE. CONCLUSION: In an unselected nationwide real-world cohort, an approach using immediate complete revascularization may be beneficial in STEMI patients with MVD regarding MACCE, specifically when drug-eluting stents are used, but not regarding mortality. This has to be tested in a randomized controlled trial.

Robust accelerated failure time regression

Robust estimators for accelerated failure time models with asymmetric (or symmetric) error distribution and censored observations are proposed. It is assumed that the error model belongs to a log-location-scale family of distributions and that the mean response is the parameter of interest. Since scale is a main component of mean, scale is not treated as a nuisance parameter. A three steps procedure is proposed. In the first step, an initial high breakdown point S estimate is computed. In the second step, observations that are unlikely under the estimated model are rejected or down weighted. Finally, a weighted maximum likelihood estimate is computed. To define the estimates, functions of censored residuals are replaced by their estimated conditional expectation given that the response is larger than the observed censored value. The rejection rule in the second step is based on an adaptive cut-off that, asymptotically, does not reject any observation when the data are generat ed according to the model. Therefore, the final estimate attains full efficiency at the model, with respect to the maximum likelihood estimate, while maintaining the breakdown point of the initial estimator. Asymptotic results are provided. The new procedure is evaluated with the help of Monte Carlo simulations. Two examples with real data are discussed.

Changes in cerebral compartmental compliances during mild hypocapnia in patients with traumatic brain injury.

The benefit of induced hyperventilation for intracranial pressure (ICP) control after severe traumatic brain injury (TBI) is controversial. In this study, we investigated the impact of early and sustained hyperventilation on compliances of the cerebral arteries and of the cerebrospinal (CSF) compartment during mild hyperventilation in severe TBI patients. We included 27 severe TBI patients (mean 39.5 ± 3.4 years, 6 women) in whom an increase in ventilation (20% increase in respiratory minute volume) was performed during 50 min as part of a standard clinical CO(2) reactivity test. Using a new mathematical model, cerebral arterial compliance (Ca) and CSF compartment compliance (Ci) were calculated based on the analysis of ICP, arterial blood pressure, and cerebral blood flow velocity waveforms. Hyperventilation initially induced a reduction in ICP (17.5 ± 6.6 vs. 13.9 ± 6.2 mmHg; p < 0.001), which correlated with an increase in Ci (r(2) = 0.213; p = 0.015). Concomitantly, the reduction in cerebral blood flow velocities (CBFV, 74.6 ± 27.0 vs. 62.9 ± 22.9 cm/sec; p < 0.001) marginally correlated with the reduction in Ca (r(2) = 0.209; p = 0.017). During sustained hyperventilation, ICP increased (13.9 ± 6.2 vs. 15.3 ± 6.4 mmHg; p < 0.001), which correlated with a reduction in Ci (r(2) = 0.297; p = 0.003), but no significant changes in Ca were found during that period. The early reduction in Ca persisted irrespective of the duration of hyperventilation, which may contribute to the lack of clinical benefit of hyperventilation after TBI. Further studies are needed to determine whether monitoring of arterial and CSF compartment compliances may detect and prevent an adverse ischemic event during hyperventilation.

Hypercalcaemia and acute renal failure after major burns: An under-diagnosed condition.

BACKGROUND: Hypercalcaemia has been shown to occur in about 20% of patients with major burns requiring prolonged intensive care unit (ICU) treatment, and it may be associated with renal failure. Having observed the early onset of hypercalcaemia, the study aimed to determine the frequency and timing of this condition in a European patient cohort. METHODS: A retrospective cohort study on a prospectively collected, computerised database of the 225 burn-injury ICU admissions between 2001 and 2007 was undertaken. The inclusion criteria included: burns &gt;20% of the body surface area (BSA) or in-hospital stay &gt;20 days. Hypercalcaemia was defined as an ionised plasma calcium (Ca(2+)) concentration &gt;1.32 mmol l(-1) (or total corrected calcium=[Ca]c&gt;2.55 mmol l(-1)). Four emblematic cases are reported in this article. RESULTS: A total of 73 patients met the inclusion criteria (age: 13-88 years, burns: 12-85% BSA): of these, 22 (30%) developed hypercalcaemia. The median time to the first hypercalcaemia value was 21 days. Only 11 patients had both high Ca(2+) and elevated [Ca]c (which remained normal in others). The risk factors of the disorder were burned surface (p=0.017) and immobilisation (fluidised bed use: p&lt;0.05, duration: p=0.02) followed by burned BSA. Acute renal failure tended to be more frequent in hypercalcaemic patients (five (23%) vs. three (6%): p=0.11), while mortality was not increased. The disorder resolved with hydration and mobilisation in most cases: pamidronate was successful in three cases that were most severe. CONCLUSION: Hypercalcaemia and associated acute renal failure occur more frequently and earlier than previously reported. Determining the ionised Ca rather than the total Ca with albumin correction enables earlier detection of hypercalcaemia. Bisphosphonates are an effective treatment option in controlling severe hypercalcaemia and preventing bone loss.

Clinical trial substantiates the predictive value of O-6-methylguanine-DNA methyltransferase promoter methylation in glioblastoma patients treated with temozolomide.

PURPOSE: In the setting of a prospective clinical trial, we determined the predictive value of the methylation status of the O-6-methylguanine-DNA methyltransferase (MGMT) promoter for outcome in glioblastoma patients treated with the alkylating agent temozolomide. Expression of this excision repair enzyme has been associated with resistance to alkylating chemotherapy. EXPERIMENTAL DESIGN: The methylation status of MGMT in the tumor biopsies was evaluated in 38 patients undergoing resection for newly diagnosed glioblastoma and enrolled in a Phase II trial testing concomitant and adjuvant temozolomide and radiation. The epigenetic silencing of the MGMT gene was determined using methylation-specific PCR. RESULTS: Inactivation of the MGMT gene by promoter methylation was associated with longer survival (P = 0.0051; Log-rank test). At 18 months, survival was 62% (16 of 26) for patients testing positive for a methylated MGMT promoter but reached only 8% (1 of 12) in absence of methylation (P = 0.002; Fisher's exact test). In the presence of other clinically relevant factors, methylation of the MGMT promoter remains the only significant predictor (P = 0.017; Cox regression). CONCLUSIONS: This prospective clinical trial identifies MGMT-methylation status as an independent predictor for glioblastoma patients treated with a methylating agent. The association of the epigenetic inactivation of the DNA repair gene MGMT with better outcome in this homogenous cohort may have important implications for the design of future trials and supports efforts to deplete MGMT by O-6-benzylguanine, a noncytotoxic substrate of this enzyme.