Real-time quantitative PCR in cerebral toxoplasmosis diagnosis of Brazilian human immunodeficiency virus-infected patients

Cerebral toxoplasmosis is the most common cerebral mass lesion in AIDS patients in Brazil, and results in high mortality and morbidity, despite free access to HAART (highly active antiretroviral treatment). Molecular diagnosis based on conventional PCR (cnPCR) or real-time quantitative PCR (qrtPCR) has been indispensable for definitive diagnosis. We report here the evaluation of qrtPCR with blood and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) samples from AIDS patients in Brazil. This prospective study was conducted for 2 years, analysing DNA samples extracted from 149 AIDS patients (98 blood and 51 CSF samples) with confirmed clinical and radiological diagnosis The laboratory diagnosis included cnPCR (with the B22/B23 primer set) and indirect immunofluorescence (IF). For qrtPCR, two primer sets were simultaneously designed based on described genes and using a 6-carboxyfluorescein dye-labelled TaqMan MGB (minor groove binder) probe One was Bug, which amplified a sequence from the B1 gene The other was the RETg, which amplified a PCR product of the 529 bp sequence. The overall cnPCR and qrtPCR results were positive results were observed in 33.6% (50) patients The sensitivities were 98% for cnPCR (B22/B23), and 86 and 98% for qrtPCR (B1Tg and RETg, respectively). Negative reactions were observed in 66 4% patients. The specificities were 97% for cnPCR and qrtPCR (B1Tg). and 88.8% for RETg These data show that RETg PCR is highly sensitive as it amplifies a repeat region with many copies; however, its specificity is lower than the other markers However, B1Tg PCR had good specificity, but lower sensitivity Among the patients, 20 had blood and CSF collected simultaneously Thus, their results permitted us to analyse and compare molecular, serological and clinical diagnosis for a better understanding of the different scenarios of laboratorial and clinical diagnosis. For nine patients with confirmed cerebral toxoplasmosis diagnosis, four scenarios were observed: (i) and (ii) negative molecular diagnosis for CSF and positive for blood with variable IF titres for the sera and CSF (negative or positive), (iii) positive molecular diagnosis with CSF and negative with blood, and (iv) positive molecular diagnosis in both samples. In the latter two situations, normally the IF titres in sera and CSF are variable. Other opportunistic infections were shown in 11 patients Despite the IF titres in sera and CSF being variable, all of them had negative molecular diagnosis for both samples qrtPCR allows for a rapid identification of Toxoplasma gondii DNA in patient samples; in a minority of cases discrepancies occur with the cnPCR.

Patient Characteristics as Predictors of Image Quality and Diagnostic Accuracy of MDCT Compared With Conventional Coronary Angiography for Detecting Coronary Artery Stenoses: CORE-64 Multicenter International Trial

OBJECTIVE. The purpose of the study was to investigate patient characteristics associated with image quality and their impact on the diagnostic accuracy of MDCT for the detection of coronary artery stenosis. MATERIALS AND METHODS. Two hundred ninety-one patients with a coronary artery calcification (CAC) score of <= 600 Agatston units (214 men and 77 women; mean age, 59.3 +/- 10.0 years [SD]) were analyzed. An overall image quality score was derived using an ordinal scale. The accuracy of quantitative MDCT to detect significant (>= 50%) stenoses was assessed using quantitative coronary angiography (QCA) per patient and per vessel using a modified 19-segment model. The effect of CAC, obesity, heart rate, and heart rate variability on image quality and accuracy were evaluated by multiple logistic regression. Image quality and accuracy were further analyzed in subgroups of significant predictor variables. Diagnostic analysis was determined for image quality strata using receiver operating characteristic (ROC) curves. RESULTS. Increasing body mass index (BMI) (odds ratio [OR] = 0.89, p < 0.001), increasing heart rate (OR = 0.90, p < 0.001), and the presence of breathing artifact (OR = 4.97, p = 0.001) were associated with poorer image quality whereas sex, CAC score, and heart rate variability were not. Compared with examinations of white patients, studies of black patients had significantly poorer image quality (OR = 0.58, p = 0.04). At a vessel level, CAC score (10 Agatston units) (OR = 1.03, p = 0.012) and patient age (OR = 1.02, p = 0.04) were significantly associated with the diagnostic accuracy of quantitative MDCT compared with QCA. A trend was observed in differences in the areas under the ROC curves across image quality strata at the vessel level (p = 0.08). CONCLUSION. Image quality is significantly associated with patient ethnicity, BMI, mean scan heart rate, and the presence of breathing artifact but not with CAC score at a patient level. At a vessel level, CAC score and age were associated with reduced diagnostic accuracy.

Diffuse analgesic effects of unilateral repetitive transcranial magnetic stimulation (rTMS) in healthy volunteers

We investigated the analgesic effects of unilateral repetitive transcranial magnetic stimulation (rTMS) of the motor cortex (M1) or dorsolateral prefrontal cortex (DLPFC) in two models of experimental pain in healthy volunteers. Two studies were carried out in parallel in two groups of 26 paid healthy volunteers. The effects of active or sham rTMS (frequency, 10 Hz; intensity, 80% resting motor threshold) applied to the right M1 or DLPFC were compared in a double-blind randomized cross-over design. In the first series of experiments, we analyzed the effects of rTMS on thermal (heat and cold) detection and pain thresholds measured on both hands and the left foot, by standardized quantitative sensory testing methods. In the second series of experiments, we measured the effects of M1 or DLPFC rTMS on the threshold and recruitment curves of the RIII nociceptive reflex evoked by ipsilateral electrical stimulation of the sural nerve and recorded on the biceps femoris of both lower limbs. In both studies, measurements were taken before and up to 60 min after the end of rTMS. Active rTMS of both M1 and DLPFC significantly increased the thermal pain thresholds, measured for both hands and the left foot, this effect being most marked for cold pain. These effects, which lasted at least 1 h after rTMS, were selective because they were not associated with changes in non-painful thermal sensations. By contrast, the second study showed that rTMS of M1 or DLPFC had no significant effect on the threshold or recruitment curve of the nociceptive flexion RIII reflex. Our findings demonstrate that unilateral rTMS of M1 or DLPFC induces diffuse and selective analgesic effects in healthy volunteers. The lack of effect on the RIII reflex suggests that such analgesic effects may not depend on the activation of descending inhibitory systems. (C) 2009 International Association for the Study of Pain. Published by Elsevier B. V. All rights reserved.

Verbal fluency in the detection of mild cognitive impairment and Alzheimer`s disease among Brazilian Portuguese speakers: the influence of education

Background: Verbal fluency (VF) tasks are simple and efficient clinical tools to detect executive dysfunction and lexico-semantic impairment. VF tasks are widely used in patients with suspected dementia, but their accuracy for detection of mild cognitive impairment (MCI) is still under investigation. Schooling in particular may influence the subject`s performance. The aim of this study was to compare the accuracy of two semantic categories (animals and fruits) in discriminating controls, MCI patients and Alzheimer`s disease (AD) patients. Methods: 178 subjects, comprising 70 controls (CG), 70 MCI patients and 38 AD patients, were tested on two semantic VF tasks. The sample was divided into two schooling groups: those with 4-8 years of education and those with 9 or more years. Results: Both VF tasks - animal fluency (VFa) and fruits fluency (VFf) - adequately discriminated CG from AD in the total sample (AUC = 0.88 +/- 0.03, p < 0.0001) and in both education groups, and high educated MCI from AD (VFa: AUC = 0.82 +/- 0.05, p < 0.0001; VFf: AUC = 0.85 +/- 0.05, p < 0.0001). Both tasks were moderately accurate in discriminating CG from MCI (VFa: AUC = 0.68 +/- 0.04, p < 0.0001 - VFf:AUC = 0.73 +/- 0.04, p < 0.0001) regardless of the schooling level, and MCI from AD in the total sample (VFa: AUC = 0.74 +/- 0.05, p < 0.0001; VFf: AUC = 0.76 +/- 0.05, p < 0.0001). Neither of the two tasks differentiated low educated MCI from AD. In the total sample, fruits fluency best discriminated CG from MCI and MCI from AD; a combination of the two improved the discrimination between CG and AD. Conclusions: Both categories were similar in discriminating CG from AD; the combination of both categories improved the accuracy for this distinction. Both tasks were less accurate in discriminating CG from MCI, and MCI from AD.

Effects of bromazepam in frontal theta activity on the performance of a sensorimotor integration task: A quantitative electroencephalography study

Our objective is to verify the modulatory effects of bromazepam on EEG theta absolute power when subjects were submitted to a visuomotor task (i.e., car driver task). Sample was composed of 14 students (9 males and 5 females), right handed, with ages varying between 23 and 42 years (mean = 32.5 +/- 9.5), absence of mental or physical impairments, no psychoactive or psychotropic substance use and no neuromuscular disorders (screened by a clinical examination). The results showed an interaction between condition and electrodes (p=0.034) in favor of F8 electrode compared with F7 in both experimental conditions (t-test; p=0.001). Additionally, main effects were observed for condition (p=0.001), period (p=0.001) and electrodes (p=0.031) in favor of F4 electrode compared with F3. In conclusion, Br 6 mg of bromazepam may interfere in sensorimotor processes in the task performance in an unpredictable scenario allowing that certain visuospatial factors were predominant. Therefore, the results may reflect that bromazepam effects influence the performance of the involved areas because of the acquisition and integration of sensory stimuli processes until the development of a motor behavior based on the same stimuli. (C) 2009 Elsevier Ireland Ltd. All rights reserved.

Epstein-Barr virus detection in invasive and pre-invasive lesions of the uterine cervix

In the present study, our aim was to investigate whether EBV DNA could be found in association with invasive and pre-invasive cervical cancer lesions. We hypothesize that EBV is not merely a commensal agent when present in malignant cervical lesions. DNA was extracted from cervical scrapings followed by nested PCR-based amplification. The patients were 66 women with high grade cervical intraepithelial neoplasia and 14 women with invasive cervical cancer. The control group consisted of 89 women with a normal Pap smear and colposcopy as well as a negative HPV DNA test. Analysis of our results, in conjunction with the work of other authors, leads us to propose that EBV is not merely a commensal agent when present in malignant cervical lesions. The presence of DNA from EBV is significantly associated with cervical cancer.

Quantitative Ventricular Neuroendoscopy Performed on the Third Ventriculostomy: Anatomic Study

BACKGROUND: One of the key elements for a successful endoscopic intervention in the ventricular system is the ability to recognize the anatomic structures and use them as a reference. OBJECTIVE: To measure the choroid plexus with endoscopy in the interventricular foramen, together with the structures on the third ventricle floor, and to compare these variables. METHODS: An observational prospective study was carried out on 37 brains of cadavers for which the cause of death was assessed at the Death Check Unit of the University of Sao Paulo in April 2008. This study was done on adults of both sexes with a rigid neuroendoscope. Endoscopic images were recorded, submitted for correction of distortion, and then measured. RESULTS: The measurements of the choroid plexus in the interventricular foramen, laterolateral distance of mammillary bodies, distance from the infundibular recess to the mammillary bodies, and area of the triangle in the tuber cinereum were 1.71 +/- 0.77 mm, 2.23 +/- 0.74 mm, 3.22 +/- 0.82 mm, and 3.69 +/- 2.09 mm(2), respectively. The ventricle floor was opaque in 84% of cases. The internal distance of mammillary bodies was absent in 89%. Associations between the translucent floor of the third ventricle and laterolateral distance of mammillary bodies, internal distance of mammillary bodies, and age were identified. CONCLUSION: Before this research, there was no record of the measurements of the choroid plexus in the interventricular foramen. The remaining variables of the present study show a greater number in normal brains compared with others.

Quantitative parameters of facial motor evoked potential during vestibular schwannoma surgery predict postoperative facial nerve function

Background Facial motor evoked potential (FMEP) amplitude ratio reduction at the end of the surgery has been identified as a good predictor for postoperative facial nerve outcome. We sought to investigate variations in FMEP amplitude and waveform morphology during vestibular schwannoma (VS) resection and to correlate these measures with postoperative facial function immediately after surgery and at the last follow-up. Methods Intraoperative orbicularis oculi and oris muscles FMEP data from 35 patients undergoing surgery for VS resection were collected, then analysed by surgical stage: initial, dural opening, tumour dissection (TuDis), tumour resection (TuRes) and final. Findings Immediately after surgery, postoperative facial function correlated significantly with the FMEP amplitude ratio during TuDis, TuRes and final stages in both the orbicularis oculi (p = 0.003, 0.055 and 0.028, respectively) and oris muscles (p = 0.002, 0.104 and 0.014, respectively). At the last follow-up, however, facial function correlated significantly with the FMEP amplitude ratio only during the TuDis (p = 0.005) and final (p = 0.102) stages for the orbicularis oris muscle. At both time points, postoperative facial paresis correlated significantly with FMEP waveform deterioration in orbicularis oculi during the final stage (immediate, p = 0.023; follow-up, p = 0.116) and in orbicularis oris during the TuDis, TuRes and final stages (immediate, p = 0.071, 0.000 and 0.001, respectively; follow-up, p = 0.015, 0.001 and 0.01, respectively). Conclusions FMEP amplitude ratio and waveform morphology during VS resection seem to represent independent quantitative parameters that can be used to predict postoperative facial function. Event-to-baseline FMEP monitoring is quite useful to dictate when intraoperative changes in surgical strategy are warranted to reduce the chances of facial nerve injury.

Scanning laser polarimetry with enhanced corneal compensation for detection of axonal loss in band atrophy of the optic nerve

PURPOSE: To compare the abilities of scanning laser polarimetry (SLP) with enhanced corneal compensation (ECC) and variable corneal compensation (VCC) modes for detection of retinal nerve fiber layer (RNFL) loss in eyes with band atrophy (BA) of the optic nerve. DESIGN. Cross-sectional study. METHODS: Thirty-seven eyes from 37 patients with BA and temporal visual field defect from chiasmal compression and 40 eyes from 40 healthy subjects were studied. Subjects underwent standard automated perimetry and RNFL measurements using an SLP device equipped with VCC and ECC. Receiver operating characteristic (ROC) curves were calculated for each parameter. Pearson correlation coefficients were obtained to evaluate the relationship between RNFL thickness parameters and severity of visual field loss, as assessed by the temporal mean defect. RESULTS: All RNFL thickness parameters were significantly lower in eyes with BA compared with normal eyes with both compensation modes. However, no statistically significant differences were observed in the areas under the ROC curves for the different parameters between GDx VCC and ECC (Carl Zeiss Meditec, Inc, Dublin, California, USA). Structure-function relationships also were similar for both compensation modes. CONCLUSIONS: No significant differences were found between the diagnostic accuracy of GDx ECC and that of VCC for detection of BA of the optic nerve. The use of GDx ECC does not seem to provide a better evaluation of RNFL loss on the temporal and nasal sectors of the peripapillary retina in subjects with BA of the optic nerve.

In vivo electrochemical characterization and inflammatory response of multiwalled carbon nanotube-based electrodes in rat hippocampus

Stimulating neural electrodes are required to deliver charge to an environment that presents itself as hostile. The electrodes need to maintain their electrical characteristics (charge and impedance) in vivo for a proper functioning of neural prostheses. Here we design implantable multi-walled carbon nanotubes coating for stainless steel substrate electrodes, targeted at wide frequency stimulation of deep brain structures. In well-controlled, low-frequency stimulation acute experiments, we show that multi-walled carbon nanotube electrodes maintain their charge storage capacity (CSC) and impedance in vivo. The difference in average CSCs (n = 4) between the in vivo (1.111 mC cm(-2)) and in vitro (1.008 mC cm(-2)) model was statistically insignificant (p > 0.05 or P-value = 0.715, two tailed). We also report on the transcription levels of the pro-inflammatory cytokine IL-1 beta and TLR2 receptor as an immediate response to low-frequency stimulation using RT-PCR. We show here that the IL-1 beta is part of the inflammatory response to low-frequency stimulation, but TLR2 is not significantly increased in stimulated tissue when compared to controls. The early stages of neuroinflammation due to mechanical and electrical trauma induced by implants can be better understood by detection of pro-inflammatory molecules rather than by histological studies. Tracking of such quantitative response profits from better analysis methods over several temporal and spatial scales. Our results concerning the evaluation of such inflammatory molecules revealed that transcripts for the cytokine IL-1 beta are upregulated in response to low-frequency stimulation, whereas no modulation was observed for TLR2. This result indicates that the early response of the brain to mechanical trauma and low-frequency stimulation activates the IL-1 beta signaling cascade but not that of TLR2.

Indirect immune detection of ecdysone receptor (EcR) during the formation of DNA puffs in Bradysia hygida (Diptera, Sciaridae)

Gene amplification occurs in Bradysia hygida salivary glands, at the end of the fourth larval instar. The hormone 20-hydroxyecdysone (20E) triggers this process, which results in DNA puff formation. Amplified genes are activated in two distinct groups. The activity of the first group is dependent on high levels of 20E, while the second group needs low hormone levels. Consequently, the salivary glands of B. hygida constitute an interesting biological model to study how 20E, and its receptors, affect gene amplification and activity. We produced polyclonal antibodies against B. hygida EcR (BhEcR). In western blots a polypeptide of about 66 kDa was detected in salivary gland extracts. The antibodies were also used for indirect immune-localization of BhEcR in polytene chromosomes. RNA-polymerase II was also immune-detected. We did not detect the receptor in chromosome C where the first and second groups of DNA puffs form during DNA puff anlage formation, but it was present during puff expansion. During the active phase of both groups of DNA puffs, RNA polymerase II co-localized with BhEcR. After puff regression, these antigens were not detected. Apparently, EcR plays a direct role in the transcription of amplified genes, but its role in gene amplification remains enigmatic.

Gene expression profile analysis of primary glioblastomas and non-neoplastic brain tissue: identification of potential target genes by oligonucleotide microarray and real-time quantitative PCR

The prognosis of glioblastomas is still extremely poor and the discovery of novel molecular therapeutic targets can be important to optimize treatment strategies. Gene expression analyses comparing normal and neoplastic tissues have been used to identify genes associated with tumorigenesis and potential therapeutic targets. We have used this approach to identify differentially expressed genes between primary glioblastomas and non-neoplastic brain tissues. We selected 20 overexpressed genes related to cell cycle, cellular movement and growth, proliferation and cell-to-cell signaling and analyzed their expression levels by real time quantitative PCR in cDNA obtained from microdissected fresh tumor tissue from 20 patients with primary glioblastomas and from 10 samples of non-neoplastic white matter tissue. The gene expression levels were significantly higher in glioblastomas than in non-neoplastic white matter in 18 out of 20 genes analyzed: P < 0.00001 for CDKN2C, CKS2, EEF1A1, EMP3, PDPN, BNIP2, CA12, CD34, CDC42EP4, PPIE, SNAI2, GDF15 and MMP23b; and NFIA (P: 0.0001), GPS1 (P: 0.0003), LAMA1 (P: 0.002), STIM1 (P: 0.006), and TASP1 (P: 0.01). Five of these genes are located in contiguous loci at 1p31-36 and 2 at 17q24-25 and 8 of them encode surface membrane proteins. PDPN and CD34 protein expression were evaluated by immunohistochemistry and they showed concordance with the PCR results. The present results indicate the presence of 18 overexpressed genes in human primary glioblastomas that may play a significant role in the pathogenesis of these tumors and that deserve further functional investigation as attractive candidates for new therapeutic targets.

Quantitative and qualitative comparison of 3.0 T and 1.5 T MR imaging of the liver in patients with diffuse parenchymal liver disease

Purpose: The purpose of our study was to compare signal characteristics and image qualities of MR imaging at 3.0 T and 1.5 T in patients with diffuse parenchymal liver disease. Materials and methods: 25 consecutive patients with diffuse parenchymal liver disease underwent abdominal MR imaging at both 3.0 T and 1.5 T within a 6-month interval. A retrospective study was conducted to obtain quantitative and qualitative data from both 3.0 T and 1.5 T MRI. Quantitative image analysis was performed by measuring the signal-to-noise ratios (SNRs) and the contrast-to-noise ratios (CNRs) by the Students t-test. Qualitative image analysis was assessed by grading each sequence on a 3- and 4-point scale, regarding the presence of artifacts and image quality, respectively. Statistical analysis consisted of the Wilcoxon signed-rank test. Results: the mean SNRs and CNRs of the liver parenchyma and the portal vein were significantly higher at 3.0 T than at 1.5 T on portal and equilibrium phases of volumetric interpolated breath-hold examination (VIBE) images (P < 0.05). The mean SNRs were significantly higher at 3.0 T than at 1.5 T on T1-weighted spoiled gradient echo (SGE) images (P < 0.05). However, there were no significantly differences on T2-weighted short-inversion-time inversion recovery (STIR) images. Overall image qualities of the 1.5 T noncontrast T1- and T2-weighted sequences were significantly better than 3.0 T (P < 0.01). In contrast, overall image quality of the 3.0 T post-gadolinium VIBE sequence was significantly better than 1.5 T (P< 0.01). Conclusions: MR imaging of post-gadolinium VIBE sequence at 3.0 T has quantitative and qualitative advantages of evaluating for diffuse parenchymal liver disease. (C) 2008 Elsevier Ireland Ltd. All rights reserved.