939 resultados para non-specific immune functions
Resumo:
The introduction of highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) for patients infected with HIV has significantly prolonged the life expectancy and to some extent has restored a functional immune response. However, the premature introduction of HAART has led to a significant and alarming increase in cardiovascular complications, including myocardial infarction and the appearance of abnormal distribution of body fat seen as lipodystrophy. One key element in the development of ischemic coronary artery disease is the presence of circulating and tissue-fixed modified low density lipoprotein (mLDL) that contributes to the initiation and progression of arterial lesions and to the formation of foam cells. Even though not completely elucidated, the most likely mechanism involves mLDL in the inflammatory response and the induction of a specific immune response against mLDL. Circulating antibodies against mLDL can serve as an indirect marker of the presence of circulating and vessel-fixed mLDL. In the present study, we measured antibodies to mLDL and correlated them with immune status (i.e., number of CD4+ T cells) in 59 HIV patients and with the clinical manifestation of lipodystrophy in 10 patients. We observed a significant reduction in anti-mLDL antibody levels related both to lipodystrophy and to an immunocompromised state in HIV patients. We speculate that these antibodies may explain in part the rapid development of ischemic coronary artery disease in some patients.
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We examined the effect of several K+ channel blockers such as glibenclamide, tolbutamide, charybdotoxin (ChTX), apamin, tetraethylammonium chloride (TEA), 4-aminopyridine (4-AP), and cesium on the ability of fentanyl, a clinically used selective µ-opioid receptor agonist, to promote peripheral antinociception. Antinociception was measured by the paw pressure test in male Wistar rats weighing 180-250 g (N = 5 animals per group). Carrageenan (250 µg/paw) decreased the threshold of responsiveness to noxious pressure (delta = 188.1 ± 5.3 g). This mechanical hyperalgesia was reduced by fentanyl (0.5, 1.5 and 3 µg/paw) in a peripherally mediated and dose-dependent fashion (17.3, 45.3 and 62.6%, respectively). The selective blockers of ATP-sensitive K+ channels glibenclamide (40, 80 and 160 µg/paw) and tolbutamide (80, 160 and 240 µg/paw) dose dependently antagonized the antinociception induced by fentanyl (1.5 µg/paw). In contrast, the effect of fentanyl was unaffected by the large conductance Ca2+-activated K+ channel blocker ChTX (2 µg/paw), the small conductance Ca2+-activated K+ channel blocker apamin (10 µg/paw), or the non-specific K+ channel blocker TEA (150 µg/paw), 4-AP (50 µg/paw), and cesium (250 µg/paw). These results extend previously reported data on the peripheral analgesic effect of morphine and fentanyl, suggesting for the first time that the peripheral µ-opioid receptor-mediated antinociceptive effect of fentanyl depends on activation of ATP-sensitive, but not other, K+ channels.
Resumo:
Vaccine approaches to infectious diseases are widely applied and appreciated. Amongst them, vectors based on recombinant viruses have shown great promise and play an important role in the development of new vaccines. Many viruses have been investigated for their ability to express proteins from foreign pathogens and induce specific immunological responses against these antigens in vivo. Generally, gene-based vaccines can stimulate potent humoral and cellular immune responses and viral vectors might be an effective strategy for both the delivery of antigen-encoding genes and the facilitation and enhancement of antigen presentation. In order to be utilized as a vaccine carrier, the ideal viral vector should be safe and enable efficient presentation of required pathogen-specific antigens to the immune system. It should also exhibit low intrinsic immunogenicity to allow for its re-administration in order to boost relevant specific immune responses. Furthermore, the vector system must meet criteria that enable its production on a large-scale basis. Several viral vaccine vectors have thus emerged to date, all of them having relative advantages and limits depending on the proposed application, and thus far none of them have proven to be ideal vaccine carriers. In this review we describe the potential, as well as some of the foreseeable obstacles associated with viral vaccine vectors and their use in preventive medicine.
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Most contacts with food protein and microbiota antigens occur at the level of the gut mucosa. In animal models where this natural stimulation is absent, such as germ-free and antigen-free mice, the gut-associated lymphoid tissue (GALT) and systemic immunological activities are underdeveloped. We have shown that food proteins play a critical role in the full development of the immune system. C57BL/6 mice weaned to a diet in which intact proteins are replaced by equivalent amounts of amino acids (Aa diet) have a poorly developed GALT as well as low levels of serum immunoglobulins (total Ig, IgG, and IgA, but not IgM). In the present study, we evaluated whether the introduction of a protein-containing diet in 10 adult Aa-fed C57BL/6 mice could restore their immunoglobulin levels and whether this recovery was dependent on the amount of dietary protein. After the introduction of a casein-containing diet, Aa-fed mice presented a fast recovery (after 7 days) of secretory IgA (from 0.33 to 0.75 mg/mL, while in casein-fed mice this value was 0.81 mg/mL) and serum immunoglobulin levels (from 5.39 to 10.25 mg/mL of total Ig). Five percent dietary casein was enough to promote the restoration of secretory IgA and serum immunoglobulin levels to a normal range after 30 days feeding casein diet (as in casein-fed mice - 15% by weight of diet). These data suggest that the defect detected in the immunoglobulin levels was a reversible result of the absence of food proteins as an antigenic stimulus. They also indicate that the deleterious consequences of malnutrition at an early age for some immune functions may be restored by therapeutic intervention later in life.
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Mitochondria increase their outer and inner membrane permeability to solutes, protons and metabolites in response to a variety of extrinsic and intrinsic signaling events. The maintenance of cellular and intraorganelle ionic homeostasis, particularly for Ca2+, can determine cell survival or death. Mitochondrial death decision is centered on two processes: inner membrane permeabilization, such as that promoted by the mitochondrial permeability transition pore, formed across inner membranes when Ca2+ reaches a critical threshold, and mitochondrial outer membrane permeabilization, in which the pro-apoptotic proteins BID, BAX, and BAK play active roles. Membrane permeabilization leads to the release of apoptogenic proteins: cytochrome c, apoptosis-inducing factor, Smac/Diablo, HtrA2/Omi, and endonuclease G. Cytochrome c initiates the proteolytic activation of caspases, which in turn cleave hundreds of proteins to produce the morphological and biochemical changes of apoptosis. Voltage-dependent anion channel, cyclophilin D, adenine nucleotide translocase, and the pro-apoptotic proteins BID, BAX, and BAK may be part of the molecular composition of membrane pores leading to mitochondrial permeabilization, but this remains a central question to be resolved. Other transporting pores and channels, including the ceramide channel, the mitochondrial apoptosis-induced channel, as well as a non-specific outer membrane rupture may also be potential release pathways for these apoptogenic factors. In this review, we discuss the mechanistic models by which reactive oxygen species and caspases, via structural and conformational changes of membrane lipids and proteins, promote conditions for inner/outer membrane permeabilization, which may be followed by either opening of pores or a rupture of the outer mitochondrial membrane.
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In this article, we will review some behavioral, pharmacological and neurochemical studies from our laboratory on mice, which might contribute to our understanding of the complex processes of memory consolidation and reconsolidation. We discuss the post-training (memory consolidation) and post-reactivation (memory reconsolidation) effects of icv infusions of hemicholinium, a central inhibitor of acetylcholine synthesis, of intraperitoneal administration of L-NAME, a non-specific inhibitor of nitric oxide synthase, of intrahippocampal injections of an inhibitor of the transcription factor NF-κB, and the exposure of mice to a new learning situation on retention performance of an inhibitory avoidance response. All treatments impair long-term memory consolidation and retrieval-induced memory processes different from extinction, probably in accordance with the "reconsolidation hypothesis".
Resumo:
Pneumonectomy is associated with high mortality and high rates of complications. Postpneumonectomy pulmonary edema is one of the leading causes of mortality. Little is known about its etiologic factors and its association with the inflammatory process. The purpose of the present study was to evaluate the role of pneumonectomy as a cause of pulmonary edema and its association with gas exchange, inflammation, nitric oxide synthase (NOS) expression and vasoconstriction. Forty-two non-specific pathogen-free Wistar rats were included in the study. Eleven animals died during or after the procedure, 21 were submitted to left pneumonectomy and 10 to sham operation. These animals were sacrificed after 48 or 72 h. Perivascular pulmonary edema was more intense in pneumonectomized rats at 72 h (P = 0.0131). Neutrophil density was lower after pneumonectomy in both groups (P = 0.0168). There was higher immunohistochemical expression of eNOS in the pneumonectomy group (P = 0.0208), but no statistically significant difference in the expression of iNOS. The lumen-wall ratio and pO2/FiO2 ratio did not differ between the operated and sham groups after pneumonectomy. Left pneumonectomy caused perivascular pulmonary edema with no elevation of immunohistochemical expression of iNOS or neutrophil density, suggesting the absence of correlation with the inflammatory process or oxidative stress. The increased expression of eNOS may suggest an intrinsic production of NO without signs of vascular reactivity.
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In order to understand the mechanisms of poor osseointegration following dental implants in type 2 diabetics, it is important to study the biological properties of alveolar bone osteoblasts isolated from these patients. We collected alveolar bone chips under aseptic conditions and cultured them in vitro using the tissue explants adherent method. The biological properties of these cells were characterized using the following methods: alkaline phosphatase (ALP) chemical staining for cell viability, Alizarin red staining for osteogenic characteristics, MTT test for cell proliferation, enzyme dynamics for ALP contents, radio-immunoassay for bone gla protein (BGP) concentration, and ELISA for the concentration of type I collagen (COL-I) in the supernatant. Furthermore, we detected the adhesion ability of two types of cells from titanium slices using non-specific immunofluorescence staining and cell count. The two cell forms showed no significant difference in morphology under the same culture conditions. However, the alveolar bone osteoblasts received from type 2 diabetic patients had slower growth, lower cell activity and calcium nodule formation than the normal ones. The concentration of ALP, BGP and COL-I was lower in the supernatant of alveolar bone osteoblasts received from type 2 diabetic patients than in that received from normal subjects (P < 0.05). The alveolar bone osteoblasts obtained from type 2 diabetic patients can be successfully cultured in vitro with the same morphology and biological characteristics as those from normal patients, but with slower growth and lower concentration of specific secretion and lower combining ability with titanium than normal ones.
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We have described a case of a patient with an intriguing association of mucocutaneous leishmaniasis with lepromatous leprosy, two opposite polar forms of these spectral diseases. In the present follow-up study, we investigated the effect of the addition of Mycobacterium leprae antigens on interferon-gamma (IFN-γ) production in Leishmania antigen-stimulated cultures of peripheral blood mononuclear cells (PBMC) from this patient. For this purpose, PBMC cultures were stimulated with crude L. braziliensis and/or M. leprae whole-cell antigen extracts or with concanavalin A. In some experiments, neutralizing anti-human interleukin (IL)-10 antibodies were added to the cultures. IFN-γ and IL-10 levels in culture supernatants were measured by ELISA. During active leprosy, M. leprae antigens induced 72.3% suppression of the IFN-γ response to L. braziliensis antigen, and this suppression was abolished by IL-10 neutralization. Interestingly, the suppressive effect of M. leprae antigen was lost after the cure of leprosy and the disappearance of this effect was accompanied by exacerbation of mucosal leishmaniasis. Considered together, these results provide evidence that the concomitant lepromatous leprosy induced an IL-10-mediated regulatory response that controlled the immunopathology of mucosal leishmaniasis, demonstrating that, in the context of this coinfection, the specific immune response to one pathogen can influence the immune response to the other pathogen and the clinical course of the disease caused by it. Our findings may contribute to a better understanding of the Leishmania/M. leprae coinfection and of the immunopathogenesis of mucosal leishmaniasis.
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With the relationship between endothelin-1 (ET-1) stimulation and reactive oxygen species (ROS) production unknown in adventitial fibroblasts, I examined the ROS response to ET-1 and angiotensin (Ang II). ET-1 -induced ROS peaked following 4 hrs of ET-1 stimulation and was inhibited by an ETA receptor antagonist (BQ 123, 1 uM) an extracellular signal-regulated kinase (ERK) 1/2 inhibitor (PD98059, 10 uM), and by both a specific, apocynin (10 uM), and non-specific, diphenyleneiodonium (10 uM), NAD(P)H oxidase inhibitor. NOX2 knockout fibroblasts did not produce an ET-1 induced change in ROS levels. Ang II treatment increased ROS levels in a biphasic manner, with the second peak occurring 6 hrs following stimulation. The secondary phase of Ang II induced ROS was inhibited by an ATi receptor antagonist, Losartan (100 uM) and BQ 123. In conclusion, ET-1 induces ROS production primarily through an ETA-ERKl/2 NOX2 pathway, additionally, Ang II-induced ROS production also involves an ETa pathway.
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Our objective is to develop a diffusion Monte Carlo (DMC) algorithm to estimate the exact expectation values, ($o|^|^o), of multiplicative operators, such as polarizabilities and high-order hyperpolarizabilities, for isolated atoms and molecules. The existing forward-walking pure diffusion Monte Carlo (FW-PDMC) algorithm which attempts this has a serious bias. On the other hand, the DMC algorithm with minimal stochastic reconfiguration provides unbiased estimates of the energies, but the expectation values ($o|^|^) are contaminated by ^, an user specified, approximate wave function, when A does not commute with the Hamiltonian. We modified the latter algorithm to obtain the exact expectation values for these operators, while at the same time eliminating the bias. To compare the efficiency of FW-PDMC and the modified DMC algorithms we calculated simple properties of the H atom, such as various functions of coordinates and polarizabilities. Using three non-exact wave functions, one of moderate quality and the others very crude, in each case the results are within statistical error of the exact values.
Resumo:
Globally, Prostate cancer (PCa) is the most frequently occurring non-cutaneous cancer, and is the second highest cause of cancer mortality in men. Serum prostate specific antigen (PSA) has been the standard in PCa screening since its approval by the American Food & Drug Administration (FDA) in 1994. Currently, PSA is used as an indicator for PCa - patients with a serum PSA level above 4ng/mL will often undergo prostate biopsy to confirm cancer. Unfortunately fewer than similar to 30% of these men will biopsy positive for cancer, meaning that the majority of men undergo invasive biopsy with little benefit. Despite PSA's notoriously poor specificity (33%), there is still a significant lack of credible alternatives. Therefore an ideal biomarker that can specifically detect PCa at an early stage is urgently required. The aim of this study was to investigate the potential of using deregulation of urinary proteins in order to detect Prostate Cancer (PCa) among Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH). To identify the protein signatures specific for PCa, protein expression profiling of 8 PCa patients, 12 BPH patients and 10 healthy males was carried out using LC-MS/MS. This was followed by validating relative expression levels of proteins present in urine among all the patients using quantitative real time-PCR. This was followed by validating relative expression levels of proteins present in urine among all the patients using quantitative real time-PCR. This approach revealed that significant the down-regulation of Fibronectin and TP53INP2 was a characteristic event among PCa patients. Fibronectin mRNA down-regulation, was identified as offering improved specificity (50%) over PSA, albeit with a slightly lower although still acceptable sensitivity (75%) for detecting PCa. As for TP53INP2 on the other hand, its down-regulation was moderately sensitive (75%), identifying many patients with PCa, but was entirely non-specific (7%), designating many of the benign samples as malignant and being unable to accurately identify more than one negative.
Resumo:
L’étude de l’assemblage et de l’acheminement à la membrane plasmique des complexes de signalisation des RCPGs va jouer un rôle crucial dans le développement de nouveaux médicaments ayant moins d’effets secondaires. Des outils permettant l’étude de ces phénomènes existent déjà, mais un outil polyvalent qui permettrait d’étudier plusieurs aspects pourrait grandement faciliter et accélérer ces études. L’étiquette SNAP est un candidat intéressant puisqu’avec cette étiquette il est possible de marquer une seule construction avec une variété de différents substrats. Une construction encodant pour le récepteur β2AR avec une étiquette SNAP à son extrémité C-terminale a été ingénérée. Cette construction est apte à lier son ligand, à être acheminée à la membrane plasmique et à homodimériser. La protéine exprimée a été marquée avec le fluorophore BG-430. De la fluorescence non spécifique a été détectée dans la cellule (même en absence de l’étiquette SNAP sur le récepteur). Un essai BRET a été développé, utilisant la construction HA-β2AR-SNAP en tant qu’accepteur et est fonctionnel. L’étiquette SNAP, comme utilisée ici, ne présente pas un aussi bon candidat qu’attendu, puisque le substrat n’ayant pas réagi demeure coincé dans la cellule. Le facteur activateur de plaquette (PAF) et son récepteur (PAFR) jouent un rôle critique dans plusieurs réponses inflammatoires et le récepteur FP est impliqué dans l’accouchement prématuré. Une meilleure compréhension des complexes de signalisation associés à ces récepteurs pourrait être la première étape dans la compréhension de leur signalisation dans des situations normales ou de maladies. Des expériences de BRET étudiant des interactions de bases entre les récepteurs et leurs partenaires d’interactions connus ont été réalisées. Elles ont permis de déterminer que : les récepteurs PAF et FP homodimérisent, que les récepteurs PAF et FP hétérodimérisent, que les protéines Gβγ interagissent de manière constitutive avec ces récepteurs et qu’aucun signal de BRET n’a été détecté avec la protéine Gα et ce, en présence ou en absence de stimulation par un agoniste (suggérant qu’il est nécessaire d’optimiser le système présentement utilisé).
Resumo:
Le virus de l’hépatite C (VHC) est un problème mondial. La majorité des personnes infectées (70-85%) développent une infection chronique qui cause des complications hépatiques. Le seul régime thérapeutique approuvé pour le VHC est l'interféron alpha (IFN-α). Ce traitement a un taux de réussite de 50-80% selon le génotype de virus et le moment de l'initiation de la thérapie. Les facteurs régissant la réponse au traitement ne sont pas bien définis. Des études antérieures ont suggéré un rôle potentiel de la réponse immunitaire de l'hôte au succès de la thérapie, toutefois, ces résultats sont controversés. Nous avons émis l'hypothèse que la réponse immunitaire de l’hôte sera plus efficace chez les patients qui commencent la thérapie tôt pendant la phase aiguë de l'infection. En revanche, la réponse immunitaire sera épuisée lorsque le traitement est initié pendant la phase chronique. L'objectif principal de ce mémoire est d’étudier les facteurs immunologiques qui régissent la réponse à la thérapie, et de déterminer si la contribution de la réponse immunitaire de l'hôte peut être influencée par la période de l'infection. Nos résultats démontrent l'efficacité de la restauration de la réponse immunitaire spécifique au VHC lorsque la thérapie par l'interféron est initiée tôt. Ceci est démontré par le sauvetage des cellules T efficaces spécifiques au VHC efficace similaires à celles observées chez les individus qui ont résolu spontanément, suggérant ainsi qu'elles jouent un rôle actif dans la réponse au traitement. Toutefois, cette réponse n'a pas été restaurée chez les patients traités au cours de la phase chronique. Ces résultats ont des implications importantes dans la compréhension des mécanismes sous-jacents à la réponse aux traitements actuels et au développement des nouvelles thérapies.
Resumo:
L’interféron-α pegylé en combinaison avec la ribavirin est le seul traitement approuvé pour le traitement de l’infection au virus de l’hépatite C (VHC). L’efficacité est de 50-75%, la thérapie est coûteuse et induit beaucoup d’effets secondaires. Il est impératif d’avoir une meilleure compréhension de la pathogenèse du VHC afin de développer des traitements plus efficaces ou un vaccin. À cette fin, notre approche est de caractériser la réponse immunitaire cellulaire induite par ARFP, un antigène nouveau et conservé chez le VHC, et de cartographier les épitopes de la réponse immunitaire cellulaire d’un patient infecté au génotype 3a ayant résolu spontanément. Le génotype 3a, étant prévalant chez les utilisateurs de drogues intraveineuses (IDUs) constitue 60% des nouvelles infections. Peu d’épitopes furent identifiés auparavant pour ce génotype, ce qui rend l’étude de la réponse immunitaire difficile chez cette population. Dans cette étude, pour la réponse immunitaire cellulaire dirigée contre ARFP, nous n’avons pas observé de différence significative entre les patients ayant résolu spontanément comparativement avec ceux ayant développé une infection persistante. Ceci suggère fortement que ARFP ne joue pas un rôle majeur lors de la résolution de l’infection aigue au VHC. Pour la caractérisation de la réponse immunitaire cellulaire chez un des patients infectés au génotype 3a, nous avons identifié et caractérisé 5 épitopes spécifiquement reconnus par des lymphocytes T, CD3+, CD4+ et CD8- : E2504-521, NS31064-1081, NS4b1759-1776, NS5a2074-2091, NS5b2421-2436. Nous avons comparé avec ceux connus pour le génotype 1a. Nous avons identifié 4 nouveaux épitopes. Enfin, l’épitope NS4b1759-1776, identifié auparavant, pourrait s’avérer être un candidat intéressant dans la mise au point d’un vaccin à base de peptides immunogéniques contre le VHC.