Evaluation of clinician-operated sonography and fine-needle aspiration in the assessment of salivary gland tumours.

OBJECTIVES: To evaluate the combination of ultrasound (US) + fine-needle aspiration (FNA) in the assessment of salivary gland tumours in the hands of the otolaryngologist. DESIGN: A retrospective review of case notes was performed. SETTING: Two university teaching hospitals in Switzerland. PARTICIPANTS: One hundred and three patients with a total of 106 focal masses of the salivary glands were included. Clinician-operated US + FNA were the first line of investigation for these lesions. All patients underwent surgical excision of the lesion, which allowed for confirmation of diagnosis by histopathology in 104 lesions and by laboratory testing in two lesions. MAIN OUTCOME MEASURES: Primary--diagnostic accuracy in identifying true salivary gland neoplasms and detecting malignancy. Secondary--predicting an approximate and specific diagnosis in these tumours. RESULTS: The combination of US + FNA achieved a diagnostic accuracy of 99% in identifying and differentiating true salivary gland neoplasms from tumour-like lesions. In detecting malignancy, this combination permitted an accuracy of 98%. An approximate diagnosis was possible in 89%, and a specific diagnosis in 69% of our patients. CONCLUSIONS: Due to economic factors and a high diagnostic accuracy, the combination of US + FNA represents the investigation method of choice for most salivary gland tumours. We suggest that the otolaryngologist be employed in carrying out these procedures, as is already the rule in other medical specialties, while computed tomography and magnetic resonance imaging should be reserved to those few lesions, which cannot be delineated completely by sonography.

Status Epilepticus Severity Score (STESS): a tool to orient early treatment strategy

BACKGROUND : Status epilepticus (SE) treatment ranges from small benzodiazepine doses to coma induction. For some SE subgroups, it is unclear how the risk of an aggressive therapeutic approach balances with outcome improvement. We recently developed a prognostic score (Status Epilepticus Severity Score, STESS), relying on four outcome predictors (age, history of seizures, seizure type and extent of consciousness impairment), determined before treatment institution. Our aim was to assess whether the score might have a role in the treatment strategy choice. METHODS : This cohort study involved adult patients in three centers. For each patient, the STESS was calculated before primary outcome assessment: survival vs. death at discharge. Its ability to predict survival was estimated through the negative predictive value for mortality (NPV). Stratified odds ratios (OR) for mortality were calculated considering coma induction as exposure; strata were defined by the STESS level. RESULTS : In the observed 154 patients, the STESS had an excellent negative predictive value (0.97). A favorable STESS was highly related to survival (P < 0.001), and to return to baseline clinical condition in survivors (P < 0.001). The combined Mantel-Haenszel OR for mortality in patients stratified after coma induction and their STESS was 1.5 (95 % CI: 0.59-3.83). CONCLUSION : The STESS reliably identifies SE patients who will survive. Early aggressive treatment could not be routinely warranted in patients with a favorable STESS, who will almost certainly survive their SE episode. A randomized trial using this score would be needed to confirm this hypothesis.

Marqueurs diagnostiques de la carence en fer: lequel choisir [Diagnostic markers of iron deficiency: which should we choose?].

Iron deficiency is generally investigated when faced with anemia, or with symptoms that could be related to iron deficiency without anemia. This simple disorder is easy to treat, provided that the diagnosis is correct. Several biological tests are available, but their interpretation is oftentimes problematic. Pre-analytical factors can interfere with measurements, normal values can change depending on suppliers, and, above all, results from different markers can be contradictory in some clinical situations. The aim of this article is to evaluate how the evolution of scientific knowledge and clinical trials can contribute to a better understanding and greater reliability in the diagnosis of iron deficiency.

Cell-mediated immunity to predict cytomegalovirus disease in high-risk solid organ transplant recipients.

Late-onset cytomegalovirus (CMV) disease commonly occurs after discontinuation of antiviral prophylaxis. We determined the utility of testing CD8+ T-cell response against CMV as a predictor of late-onset CMV disease after a standard course of antiviral prophylaxis. Transplant patients at high-risk for CMV disease were enrolled. CD8+ T-cell-mediated immunity (CMI) was tested using the QuantiFERON-CMV assay at baseline, 1, 2 and 3 months posttransplant by measurement of interferon-gamma response to whole blood stimulation with a 21-peptide pool. The primary outcome was the ability of CMI testing to predict CMV disease in the first 6 months posttransplant. There were 108 evaluable patients (D+/R+ n = 39; D-/R+ n = 34; D+/R- n = 35) of whom 18 (16.7%) developed symptomatic CMV disease. At the end of prophylaxis, CMI was detectable in 38/108 (35.2%) patients (cutoff 0.1 IU/mL interferon-gamma). CMV disease occurred in 2/38 (5.3%) patients with a detectable interferon-gamma response versus 16/70 (22.9%) patients with a negative response; p = 0.038. In the subgroup of D+/R- patients, CMV disease occurred in 1/10 (10.0%) patients with a detectable interferon-gamma response (cutoff 0.1 IU/mL) versus 10/25 (40.0%) patients with a negative CMI, p = 0.12. Monitoring of CMI may be useful for predicting late-onset CMV disease.

IL28B polymorphisms predict response to therapy among chronic hepatitis C patients with HCV genotype 4.

Summary.  Genetic polymorphisms near IL28B are associated with spontaneous and treatment-induced clearance of hepatitis C virus (HCV). Our objective was to assess the predictive value of IL28B polymorphisms in the treatment of chronic hepatitis C of patients with HCV genotypes 4, for which data are currently limited. We analysed the association of IL28B polymorphisms with the virological response to treatment among 182 naïve chronic hepatitis C patients with HCV genotype 4, all from Syria. Associations of alleles with the response patterns were evaluated by univariate analysis and multivariate logistic regression, accounting for all relevant covariates. Sustained virological response (SVR) was achieved in 26% of rs8099917 TG/GG carriers compared with 60% of TT carriers (P < 0.0001) and 35% of rs12979860 CT/TT carriers compared with 62% of CC carriers (P = 0.0011). By multivariate analysis, the association between rs8099917 and SVR remained significant (OR = 0.19, 95% CI 0.07-0.50, for TG/GG vs TT, P = 0.0007), with the only significant covariate being advanced fibrosis (OR = 0.13, 95% CI 0.04-0.37, P = 0.0002). In conclusion, IL28B polymorphisms are the strongest predictors of response to therapy among chronic hepatitis C patients with HCV genotype 4.

Syndromic algorithms for detection of gambiense human african trypanosomiasis in South Sudan.

BACKGROUND: Active screening by mobile teams is considered the best method for detecting human African trypanosomiasis (HAT) caused by Trypanosoma brucei gambiense but the current funding context in many post-conflict countries limits this approach. As an alternative, non-specialist health care workers (HCWs) in peripheral health facilities could be trained to identify potential cases who need testing based on their symptoms. We explored the predictive value of syndromic referral algorithms to identify symptomatic cases of HAT among a treatment-seeking population in Nimule, South Sudan. METHODOLOGY/PRINCIPAL FINDINGS: Symptom data from 462 patients (27 cases) presenting for a HAT test via passive screening over a 7 month period were collected to construct and evaluate over 14,000 four item syndromic algorithms considered simple enough to be used by peripheral HCWs. For comparison, algorithms developed in other settings were also tested on our data, and a panel of expert HAT clinicians were asked to make referral decisions based on the symptom dataset. The best performing algorithms consisted of three core symptoms (sleep problems, neurological problems and weight loss), with or without a history of oedema, cervical adenopathy or proximity to livestock. They had a sensitivity of 88.9-92.6%, a negative predictive value of up to 98.8% and a positive predictive value in this context of 8.4-8.7%. In terms of sensitivity, these out-performed more complex algorithms identified in other studies, as well as the expert panel. The best-performing algorithm is predicted to identify about 9/10 treatment-seeking HAT cases, though only 1/10 patients referred would test positive. CONCLUSIONS/SIGNIFICANCE: In the absence of regular active screening, improving referrals of HAT patients through other means is essential. Systematic use of syndromic algorithms by peripheral HCWs has the potential to increase case detection and would increase their participation in HAT programmes. The algorithms proposed here, though promising, should be validated elsewhere.

Derivation and validation of a prognostic model for pulmonary embolism.

RATIONALE: An objective and simple prognostic model for patients with pulmonary embolism could be helpful in guiding initial intensity of treatment. OBJECTIVES: To develop a clinical prediction rule that accurately classifies patients with pulmonary embolism into categories of increasing risk of mortality and other adverse medical outcomes. METHODS: We randomly allocated 15,531 inpatient discharges with pulmonary embolism from 186 Pennsylvania hospitals to derivation (67%) and internal validation (33%) samples. We derived our prediction rule using logistic regression with 30-day mortality as the primary outcome, and patient demographic and clinical data routinely available at presentation as potential predictor variables. We externally validated the rule in 221 inpatients with pulmonary embolism from Switzerland and France. MEASUREMENTS: We compared mortality and nonfatal adverse medical outcomes across the derivation and two validation samples. MAIN RESULTS: The prediction rule is based on 11 simple patient characteristics that were independently associated with mortality and stratifies patients with pulmonary embolism into five severity classes, with 30-day mortality rates of 0-1.6% in class I, 1.7-3.5% in class II, 3.2-7.1% in class III, 4.0-11.4% in class IV, and 10.0-24.5% in class V across the derivation and validation samples. Inpatient death and nonfatal complications were <or= 1.1% among patients in class I and <or= 1.9% among patients in class II. CONCLUSIONS: Our rule accurately classifies patients with pulmonary embolism into classes of increasing risk of mortality and other adverse medical outcomes. Further validation of the rule is important before its implementation as a decision aid to guide the initial management of patients with pulmonary embolism.

Exclusion of pulmonary embolism using C-reactive protein and D-dimer. A prospective comparison.

Our goal was to evaluate the diagnostic utility of C-reactive protein (CRP) alone or combined with clinical probability assessment in patients with suspected pulmonary embolism (PE), and to compare its performance to a D-dimer assay. We conducted a prospective study in which we performed a common immuno-turbidimetric CRP test and a rapid enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) D-dimer test in 259 consecutive outpatients with suspected PE at the emergency department of a teaching hospital. We assessed clinical probability of PE by a validated prediction rule overridden by clinical judgment. Patients with D-dimer levels &gt; or = 500 microg/l underwent a work-up consisting of lower-limb venous ultrasound, spiral computerized tomography, ventilation-perfusion scan, or pulmonary angiography. Patients were followed up for three months. Seventy-seven (30%) of the patients had PE. The CRP alone had a sensitivity of 84% (95% confidence interval [CI).: 74 to 92%) and a negative predictive value (NPV) of 87% (95% CI: 78 to 93%) at a cutpoint of 5 mg/l. Overall, 61 (24%) patients with a low clinical probability of PE had a CRP &lt; 5 mg/l. Due to the low prevalence of PE (9%) in this subgroup, the NPV increased to 97% (95% CI: 89 to 100%). The D-dimer (cutpoint 500 micro g/l) showed a sensitivity of 100% (95% CI: 95 to 100%) and a NPV of 100% (95% CI: 94 to 100%) irrespective of clinical probability and accurately rule out PE in 56 (22%) patients. Standard CRP tests alone or combined with clinical probability assessment cannot safely exclude PE.

Comparison of 3D segmented gradient-echo and steady-state free precession coronary MRI sequences in patients with coronary artery disease.

OBJECTIVE: Our objective was to compare two state-of-the-art coronary MRI (CMRI) sequences with regard to image quality and diagnostic accuracy for the detection of coronary artery disease (CAD). SUBJECTS AND METHODS: Twenty patients with known CAD were examined with a navigator-gated and corrected free-breathing 3D segmented gradient-echo (turbo field-echo) CMRI sequence and a steady-state free precession sequence (balanced turbo field-echo). CMRI was performed in a transverse plane for the left coronary artery and a double-oblique plane for the right coronary artery system. Subjective image quality (1- to 4-point scale, with 1 indicating excellent quality) and objective image quality parameters were independently determined for both sequences. Sensitivity, specificity, and accuracy for the detection of significant (> or = 50% diameter) coronary artery stenoses were determined as defined in invasive catheter X-ray coronary angiography. RESULTS: Subjective image quality was superior for the balanced turbo field-echo approach (1.8 +/- 0.9 vs 2.3 +/- 1.0 for turbo field-echo; p < 0.001). Vessel sharpness, signal-to-noise ratio, and contrast-to-noise ratio were all superior for the balanced turbo field-echo approach (p < 0.01 for signal-to-noise ratio and contrast-to-noise ratio). Of the 103 segments, 18% of turbo field-echo segments and 9% of balanced turbo field-echo segments had to be excluded from disease evaluation because of insufficient image quality. Sensitivity, specificity, and accuracy for the detection of significant coronary artery stenoses in the evaluated segments were 92%, 67%, 85%, respectively, for turbo field-echo and 82%, 82%, 81%, respectively, for balanced turbo field-echo. CONCLUSION: Balanced turbo field-echo offers improved image quality with significantly fewer nondiagnostic segments when compared with turbo field-echo. For the detection of CAD, both sequences showed comparable accuracy for the visualized segments.

Clinicopathological features of eyelid skin tumors. A retrospective study of 5504 cases and review of literature.

Eyelid tumors are the most common neoplasm in daily ophthalmology practice and encompass a wide variety of benign and malignant tumors. In this retrospective study, we report the clinical and histological features of 5504 eyelid skin tumors diagnosed at the Laboratory of Ophthalmopathology of the Hôpital Ophtalmique Jules Gonin, Lausanne, Switzerland, between January 1989 and December 2007. Benign tumors largely predominated over malignant ones, representing 84% of cases in this series, and the 5 most frequent subtypes were squamous cell papilloma (26%), seborrheic keratosis (21%), melanocytic nevus (20%), hidrocystoma (8%), and xanthoma/xanthelasma (6%). Basal cell carcinoma was the most frequent malignant tumor (86%), followed by squamous cell carcinoma (7%) and sebaceous carcinoma (3%). For several tumor subtypes, there was a poor correlation between clinical and histological diagnosis, stressing the numerous pitfalls in the diagnosis of eyelid tumors. We further discuss our results with reference to previously published series.

Latent tuberculosis: which test in which situation?

Detection of latent tuberculosis infection (LTBI) is a cost-effective procedure in patients at high risk of developing tuberculosis later and who could benefit from preventive treatment. The commonest situation where screening is indicated is the search for infected contacts of an index case with pulmonary tuberculosis. As a screening procedure the current tendency is to replace the time-honoured tuberculin skin test by one of the new blood tests measuring the release of interferon gamma by sensitised T lymphocytes after stimulation by specific peptides from M. tuberculosis. The main advantage of the new tests is the absence of interference with BCG and non-tuberculous mycobacteria, which confers high specificity on the test. This allows a more selective choice of persons for whom preventive treatment is indicated. Some controversial issues remain, such as sensitivity in children and immunocompromised subjects, the predictive value of the blood test and interpretation of possible changes in test results over time. The technical aspects required for performance of the tests must be considered.

Reduction in the use of diagnostic tests in infants with risk factors for early-onset neonatal sepsis does not delay antibiotic treatment.

Despite a low positive predictive value, diagnostic tests such as complete blood count (CBC) and C-reactive protein (CRP) are commonly used to evaluate whether infants with risk factors for early-onset neonatal sepsis (EOS) should be treated with antibiotics. We investigated the impact of implementing a protocol aiming at reducing the number of diagnostic tests in infants with risk factors for EOS in order to compare the diagnostic performance of repeated clinical examination with CBC and CRP measurement. The primary outcome was the time between birth and the first dose of antibiotics in infants treated for suspected EOS. Among the 11,503 infants born at ≥35 weeks during the study period, 222 were treated with antibiotics for suspected EOS. The proportion of infants receiving antibiotics for suspected EOS was 2.1% and 1.7% before and after the change of protocol (p = 0.09). Reduction of diagnostic tests was associated with earlier antibiotic treatment in infants treated for suspected EOS (hazard ratio 1.58; 95% confidence interval [CI] 1.20-2.07; p <0.001), and in infants with neonatal infection (hazard ratio 2.20; 95% CI 1.19-4.06; p = 0.01). There was no difference in the duration of hospital stay nor in the proportion of infants requiring respiratory or cardiovascular support before and after the change of protocol. Reduction of diagnostic tests such as CBC and CRP does not delay initiation of antibiotic treatment in infants with suspected EOS. The importance of clinical examination in infants with risk factors for EOS should be emphasised.

Residual venous obstruction, alone and in combination with D-dimer, as a risk factor for recurrence after anticoagulation withdrawal following a first idiopathic deep vein thrombosis in the prolong study.

OBJECTIVE: This study aims to assess the predictive value of residual venous obstruction (RVO) for recurrent venous thrombo-embolism (VTE) in a study using D-dimer to predict outcome. DESIGN: This is a multicentre randomised open-label study. METHODS: Patients with a first episode of idiopathic VTE were enrolled on the day of anticoagulation discontinuation when RVO was determined by compression ultrasonography in those with proximal deep vein thrombosis (DVT) of the lower limbs. D-dimer was measured after 1 month. Patients with normal D-dimer did not resume anticoagulation while patients with abnormal D-dimer were randomised to resume anticoagulation or not. The primary outcome measure was recurrent VTE over an 18-month follow-up. RESULTS: A total of 490 DVT patients were analysed (after excluding 19 for different reasons and 118 for isolated pulmonary embolism (PE)). Recurrent DVT occurred in 19% (19/99) of patients with abnormal D-dimer who did not resume anticoagulation and 10% (31/310) in subjects with normal D-dimer (adjusted hazard ratio: 2.1; p = 0.02). Recurrences were similar in subjects either with (11%, 17/151) or without RVO (13%, 32/246). Recurrent DVT rates were also similar for normal D-dimer, with or without RVO, and for abnormal D-dimer, with or without RVO. CONCLUSIONS: Elevated D-dimer at 1 month after anticoagulation withdrawal is a risk factor for recurrence, while RVO at the time of anticoagulation withdrawal is not.