Effect of age and gender on citalopram and desmethylcitalopram steady-state plasma concentrations in adults and elderly depressed patients.

The effect of aging on steady-state plasma concentrations of citalopram (CIT) and desmethylcitalopram (DCIT) was investigated in 128 depressive patients treated with 10-80 mg/day CIT. They were separated into three groups, with age up to 64 years (mean age+/-S.D.: 47+/-12 years; n=48), between 65 and 79 years (72+/-1 years; n=57), and from 80 years or older (84+/-1 years; n=23). Body mass index (BMI), renal and hepatic functions were similar in the three groups. A large interindividual variability of plasma levels of CIT (16-fold) and DCIT (12-fold) was measured for a given dose. The mean plasma levels of CIT corrected for a 20 mg daily dose were 55% higher in the very elderly (>=80 years) patients (65+/-30 ng/ml; p<0.001) and 38% higher in the elderly (65-79 years) patients (58+/-24 ng/ml; p<0.001) when compared to the adult patients (42+/-17 ng/ml). DCIT mean plasma level was 38% higher (p<0.05) in the group of very elderly patients (22+/-10 ng/ml) when compared to the adult patients (16+/-9 ng/ml). As a consequence, the mean plasma concentration of CIT+DCIT was 48% higher in the very elderly patients (86+/-36 ng/ml; p<0.001) and 33% higher in the elderly patients (77+/-28 ng/ml; p<0.001) when compared to the adult patients (58+/-21 ng/ml). Age correlated significantly with CIT (r=0.43, p<0.001), DCIT (r=0.28, p<0.01), and CIT+DCIT plasma levels (r=0.44, p<0.001), and thus accounts for 18% of the variability of CIT plasma levels, with no influence of gender. The recommended dose reduction of CIT in elderly patients seems therefore justified.

Neuropathie optique lors d'un traitement par disulfirame [Optic neuropathy while taking disulfiram]

INTRODUCTION: Disulfiram has been used since the late 1940s to treat chronic alcoholism. This drug interferes with alcohol metabolism resulting in an acetaldehyde increase. This causes painful symptoms, encouraging abstinence. Side effects include rare cases of bilateral optic neuropathies. Visual recovery occurs frequently upon cessation of therapy. METHOD AND OBSERVATION: We retrospectively studied patients referred for visual loss while treated with disulfiram between 1987 and 2005. Fourteen patients (three females, 11 males; aged 35-62 years) complained of visual loss, but a toxic, disulfiram-related, optic neuropathy was diagnosed in only five patients. Following cessation of disulfiram therapy, visual acuity and field improved in all five patients. DISCUSSION: and conclusion: When disulfiram toxicity is suspected with optic neuropathy, cessation of treatment is mandatory. Visual prognosis is good in the majority of cases, as illustrated by our series. Disulfiram toxicity can be diagnosed only after excluding all other possible causes of visual loss.

Evaluating non-adherence to immunosuppressant medications in pediatric liver transplant recipients.

Non-adherence with recommended immunosuppressant medications is common post-pediatric liver transplant and is the most important reason for organ rejection in long-term survivors. However, there is currently no validated, standard method to measure adherence, with a well-defined threshold, making it extremely difficult to evaluate interventions to improve adherence. Previous studies have suggested that the degree of fluctuation of medication blood levels over time can provide an idea about how regularly the medication is being taken. The present study, conducted at UCLA medical center, sought to identify a specific threshold value of the s.d. of individual tacrolimus blood levels in pediatric liver transplant recipients which would be associated with rejection episodes in these patients. A threshold of 3.0 has been identified in other studies, and was supported by the analysis of retrospective data from 96 subjects. However, further analysis found that a s.d. of 2.5 appeared to have a better fit with the data. These findings suggest the utility of monitoring the s.d. of routine tacrolimus blood levels in pediatric liver transplant recipients for detecting non-adherence to immunosuppressant medication prior to clinical rejection, allowing earlier interventions.

Clinical predictors for Legionella in patients presenting with community-acquired pneumonia to the emergency department.

BACKGROUND: Legionella species cause severe forms of pneumonia with high mortality and complication rates. Accurate clinical predictors to assess the likelihood of Legionella community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) in patients presenting to the emergency department are lacking. METHODS: We retrospectively compared clinical and laboratory data of 82 consecutive patients with Legionella CAP with 368 consecutive patients with non-Legionella CAP included in two studies at the same institution. RESULTS: In multivariate logistic regression analysis we identified six parameters, namely high body temperature (OR 1.67, p < 0.0001), absence of sputum production (OR 3.67, p < 0.0001), low serum sodium concentrations (OR 0.89, p = 0.011), high levels of lactate dehydrogenase (OR 1.003, p = 0.007) and C-reactive protein (OR 1.006, p < 0.0001) and low platelet counts (OR 0.991, p < 0.0001), as independent predictors of Legionella CAP. Using optimal cut off values of these six parameters, we calculated a diagnostic score for Legionella CAP. The median score was significantly higher in Legionella CAP as compared to patients without Legionella (4 (IQR 3-4) vs 2 (IQR 1-2), p < 0.0001) with a respective odds ratio of 3.34 (95%CI 2.57-4.33, p < 0.0001). Receiver operating characteristics showed a high diagnostic accuracy of this diagnostic score (AUC 0.86 (95%CI 0.81-0.90), which was better as compared to each parameter alone. Of the 191 patients (42%) with a score of 0 or 1 point, only 3% had Legionella pneumonia. Conversely, of the 73 patients (16%) with > or =4 points, 66% of patients had Legionella CAP. CONCLUSION: Six clinical and laboratory parameters embedded in a simple diagnostic score accurately identified patients with Legionella CAP. If validated in future studies, this score might aid in the management of suspected Legionella CAP.

Esophageal and pharyngeal strictures: report on 1,862 endoscopic dilatations using the Savary-Gilliard technique

Treatment of symptomatic pharyngeal and esophageal strictures requires endoscopic dilatation. The Savary-Gilliard bougienage was developed by our department and has been used since 1980 for this purpose. We report our experience using this technique. The records of patients seen from January 1, 1963 to December 31, 2005, who had pharyngeal and esophageal strictures needing dilatation, were reviewed. The prevalence of different etiologies, and the incidence of complications using the Savary-Gilliard dilators were assessed. Efficiency of dilatation was assessed over a 17-year segment of this period, using number of dilatations and time intervals between dilatations until resolution of symptoms as outcome measures. Of the 2,652 pharyngeal and esophageal strictures reviewed, 90% were of organic origin (45% benign and 55% malignant stenoses), and 10% were of functional etiology. The most common etiologies were peptic strictures before the era of proton pump inhibitors, and postoperative anastomotic strictures thereafter. A total of 1,862 dilatations using the Savary-Gilliard technique were analyzed. Complication and mortality rates were 0.18 and 0.09% for benign and 4.58 and 0.81% for malignant etiologies, respectively. The number of dilatations per stricture and the time interval between different sessions were dependent on the type of strictures, varying from 1 to 23 dilatations and 7 days to 16 years, respectively. Pharyngeal and esophageal dilatations using the Savary-Gilliard technique were safe when used together with fluoroscopy. Overall, the efficiency of the dilatation procedure was good, but some types of strictures (e.g., caustic, post-surgical and/or post radiotherapy) were refractory to treatment and required repeated dilatations.

Outcome of subscapularis muscle release for shoulder contracture secondary to brachial plexus palsy at birth.

Children with unresolved brachial plexus palsy frequently develop a disabling internal rotation contracture of the shoulder. Several surgical options, including soft tissue procedures such as muscle releases and/or transfers, and bone operations such as humeral osteotomy are available to correct this deformity. This study describes the effect of subscapularis muscle release performed in isolation. Thirteen patients (5 boys, 8 girls) were reviewed at an average of 3.5 years after their surgery (range, 2-7 years). Their mean age at operation was 4.7 years (range, 1-8 years). Three children had C5-C6 palsies, 8 had C5-C7 palsies, and 2 had C5-C8 palsies. Postoperatively, patients presented significant gains in shoulder active lateral rotation (+49 degrees, from 5 to 54 degrees), active abduction (+30 degrees, from 63 to 93 degrees), active flexion (+46 degrees, from 98 to 144 degrees), and active extension (+23 degrees, from 7 to 30 degrees). Gains were also observed in passive range of motion, but of a lesser degree. Subscapularis muscle release is a procedure we found to have few significant complications and was highly effective in increasing active range of motion and restoring shoulder function.

Validation of two echocardiographic indexes to improve the diagnosis of complex coarctations.

OBJECTIVES: Coarctation of the aorta is one of the most common congenital heart defects. Its diagnosis may be difficult in the presence of a patent ductus arteriosus, of other complex defects or of a poor echocardiographic window. We sought to demonstrate that the carotid-subclavian artery index (CSA index) and the isthmus-descending aorta ratio (I/D ratio), two recently described echocardiographic indexes, are effective in detection of isolated and complex aortic coarctations in children younger and older than 3 months of age. The CSA index is the ratio of the distal aortic arch diameter to the distance between the left carotid artery and the left subclavian artery. It is highly suggestive of a coarctation when it is <1.5. The I/D ratio defined as the diameter of the isthmus to the diameter of the descending aorta, suggests an aortic coarctation when it is less than 0.64. METHODS: This is a retrospective cohort study in a tertiary care children's hospital. Review of all echocardiograms in children aged 0-18 years with a diagnosis of coarctation seen at the author's institution between 1996 and 2006. An age- and sex-matched control group without coarctation was constituted. Offline echocardiographic measurements of the aortic arch were performed in order to calculate the CSA index and I/D ratio. RESULTS: Sixty-eight patients were included in the coarctation group, 24 in the control group. Patients with coarctation had a significantly lower CSA index (0.84+/-0.39 vs 2.65+/-0.82, p<0.0001) and I/D ratio (0.58+/-0.18 vs 0.98+/-0.19, p<0.0001) than patients in the control group. Associated cardiac defects and age of the child did not significantly alter the CSA index or the I/D ratio. CONCLUSIONS: A CSA index less than 1.5 is highly suggestive of coarctation independent of age and of the presence of other cardiac defects. I/D ratio alone is less specific than CSA alone at any age and for any associated cardiac lesion. The association of both indexes improves sensitivity and permits diagnosis of coarctation in all patients based solely on a bedside echocardiographic measurement.

Impact of tight glycemic control on cerebral glucose metabolism after severe brain injury: a microdialysis study.

OBJECTIVES: To analyze the effect of tight glycemic control with the use of intensive insulin therapy on cerebral glucose metabolism in patients with severe brain injury. DESIGN: Retrospective analysis of a prospective observational cohort. SETTING: University hospital neurologic intensive care unit. PATIENTS: Twenty patients (median age 59 yrs) monitored with cerebral microdialysis as part of their clinical care. INTERVENTIONS: Intensive insulin therapy (systemic glucose target: 4.4-6.7 mmol/L [80-120 mg/dL]). MEASUREMENTS AND MAIN RESULTS: Brain tissue markers of glucose metabolism (cerebral microdialysis glucose and lactate/pyruvate ratio) and systemic glucose were collected hourly. Systemic glucose levels were categorized as within the target "tight" (4.4-6.7 mmol/L [80-120 mg/dL]) vs. "intermediate" (6.8-10.0 mmol/L [121-180 mg/dL]) range. Brain energy crisis was defined as a cerebral microdialysis glucose <0.7 mmol/L with a lactate/pyruvate ratio >40. We analyzed 2131 cerebral microdialysis samples: tight systemic glucose levels were associated with a greater prevalence of low cerebral microdialysis glucose (65% vs. 36%, p < 0.01) and brain energy crisis (25% vs.17%, p < 0.01) than intermediate levels. Using multivariable analysis, and adjusting for intracranial pressure and cerebral perfusion pressure, systemic glucose concentration (adjusted odds ratio 1.23, 95% confidence interval [CI] 1.10-1.37, for each 1 mmol/L decrease, p < 0.001) and insulin dose (adjusted odds ratio 1.10, 95% CI 1.04-1.17, for each 1 U/hr increase, p = 0.02) independently predicted brain energy crisis. Cerebral microdialysis glucose was lower in nonsurvivors than in survivors (0.46 +/- 0.23 vs. 1.04 +/- 0.56 mmol/L, p < 0.05). Brain energy crisis was associated with increased mortality at hospital discharge (adjusted odds ratio 7.36, 95% CI 1.37-39.51, p = 0.02). CONCLUSIONS: In patients with severe brain injury, tight systemic glucose control is associated with reduced cerebral extracellular glucose availability and increased prevalence of brain energy crisis, which in turn correlates with increased mortality. Intensive insulin therapy may impair cerebral glucose metabolism after severe brain injury.

Cutaneous benign mixed tumor (chondroid syringoma) of the eyelid: clinical presentation and management.

PURPOSE: To describe the clinical presentation of cutaneous benign mixed tumor of the eyelid and its management options. METHODS: Periocular cases of cutaneous benign mixed tumor were gathered from members of an oculoplastics specialty Internet discussion group. A total of 9 patients are described in this retrospective, interventional case series. The clinical presentation, histopathology, and management of these lesions is reviewed. RESULTS: Patients were typically asymptomatic, presenting with a slowly enlarging, nontender nodule of 2 to 8 years' duration. The lesions ranged from 4 mm to 17 mm in greatest dimension. Four of the lesions were on the eyelid margin, three in the sub-brow area of the upper eyelid, and two in the central lids. All six cases not involving the brow were fixed to the tarsus; one brow lesion was believed to be adherent to the skin. None of the lesions was associated with significant changes of the overlying epidermis, although one lesion showed overlying pigmentation. All patients underwent excisional biopsy for diagnostic or cosmetic reasons. On histopathologic examination, the tumors were biphasic, with an epithelial component exhibiting apocrine or hair follicle differentiation and a myxoid, adipocytic, chondroid, and/or fibrous stroma. The pathologic diagnoses were all consistent with cutaneous benign mixed tumor (chondroid syringoma, pleomorphic adenoma). Follow-up ranged from 2 weeks to 12 months, although several patients failed to keep scheduled follow-up appointments. No clinical recurrences were identified. CONCLUSIONS: Cutaneous benign mixed tumor may occur in the eyelid, and, although uncommon, should be included in the differential diagnosis of firm, nodular eyelid tumors. The histopathologic features are similar to those seen in this tumor type arising in other areas of the body. Preoperative consideration of this diagnostic possibility may allow the surgeon to plan for complete excision, thereby reducing the possibility of recurrence or malignant transformation.

Clinical results of autologous infrainguinal revascularization using grafts originating distal to the femoral bifurcation in patients with mild inflow disease.

AIM: Chronic critical limb ischemia (CLI) often requires venous bypass grafting to distal arterial segments. However, graft patency is influenced by the length and quality of the graft and occasionally patients may have limited suitable veins. We investigated short distal bypass grafting from the superficial femoral or popliteal artery to the infrapopliteal, ankle or foot arteries, despite angiographic alterations of inflow vessels, providing that invasive pressure measurement at the site of the planned proximal anastomosis revealed an inflow-brachial pressure difference of <or=10 mmHg. METHODS: Four hundred and twenty-three consecutive infrainguinal bypass grafts were performed for CLI between June, 1999 and November, 2002 at our institution. All patients underwent preoperative clinical examination, arteriography and assessment of the veins by duplex ultrasound. The study group are patients in whom the proximal and distal anastomoses of the bypass are below the femoral bifurcation and the popliteal artery, respectively. Invasive arterial pressure measurements were recorded at the level of the planned proximal anastomosis which was performed at that level if the difference of the inflow-brachial pressure was <or=10 mmHg, irrespective of angiographic alterations of the inflow vessels proximal to the planned anastomosis. All patients had a clinical follow-up included a duplex examination of their graft, at 1 week, 3, 9 and 12 months and, thereafter, annually. No patient was lost to follow-up. RESULTS: Sixty-seven patients underwent 71 short distal bypass grafts in 71 limbs with reversed saphenous vein grafts in 52, in situ saphenous veins in 11, reversed cephalic vein in 1 and composite veins in 7, respectively. Surgical or endovascular interventions to improve inflow were required in 4 limbs (5.6%). The mean follow-up time was 22.5 months and the two-year survival was 92.5%. Primary and secondary patency rates at 2 years were 73% and 93%, respectively, and the limb salvage rate was 98.5%. CONCLUSION: In appropriately selected patients, short distal venous bypass grafts can be performed with satisfactory patency and limb salvage rates even in the presence of morphologic alterations of the inflow vessels providing that these are not hemodynamically significant, or can be corrected intraoperatively.

Impact of adjunct cytogenetic abnormalities for prognostic stratification in patients with myelodysplastic syndrome and deletion 5q.

This cooperative study assessed prognostic factors for overall survival (OS) and risk of transformation to acute myeloid leukemia (AML) in 541 patients with de novo myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) and deletion 5q. Additional chromosomal abnormalities were strongly related to different patients' characteristics. In multivariate analysis, the most important predictors of both OS and AML transformation risk were number of chromosomal abnormalities (P<0.001 for both outcomes), platelet count (P<0.001 and P=0.001, respectively) and proportion of bone marrow blasts (P<0.001 and P=0.016, respectively). The number of chromosomal abnormalities defined three risk categories for AML transformation (del(5q), del(5q)+1 and del(5q)+ ≥ 2 abnormalities) and two for OS (one group: del(5q) and del(5q)+1; and del(5q)+ ≥ 2 abnormalities, as the other one); with a median survival time of 58.0 and 6.8 months, respectively. Platelet count (P=0.001) and age (P=0.034) predicted OS in patients with '5q-syndrome'. This study demonstrates the importance of additional chromosomal abnormalities in MDS patients with deletion 5q, challenges the current '5q-syndrome' definition and constitutes a useful reference series to properly analyze the results of clinical trials in these patients.

Prenatal diagnosis of urinary malformations: results in a series of 93 consecutive cases.

OBJECTIVE: To evaluate the pertinence of prenatal diagnosis in cases of congenital uropathy. STUDY DESIGN: Retrospective evaluation over a period of 6.5 years. METHOD: 93 cases were involved in the comparison of prenatal ultrasonographic diagnosis with neonatal findings, autopsy results, and follow-up data. RESULTS: 33 fetuses had renal parenchymal lesions, 44 had excretory system lesions, and 6 had bladder and/or urethral lesions. Seventy-three pregnancies lead to live births. Eighteen terminations of pregnancy were performed on the parents' request for extremely severe malformations. Two intrauterine deaths were observed, and two infants died in the postnatal period. Prenatal diagnosis was obtained at an average of 27 weeks gestation. Diagnostic concordance was excellent in 82% and partial in 12% of cases with renal parenchymal lesions; the false-positive rate was 6%. For excretory system lesions, concordance was excellent in 87% and partial in 7.4% of cases, with a false-positive rate of 5.6%. Finally, concordance was excellent in 100% of cases of bladder and/or urethral lesions. The overall rate of total concordance was 86%. Partial concordance cases consisted of malformations different from those previously diagnosed, but prenatal diagnosis nevertheless lead to further investigations in the neonatal period and to proper management. The false-positive diagnoses (5.4%) never lead to termination of pregnancy. CONCLUSION: Prenatal diagnosis of congenital uropathy is effective. A third-trimester ultrasonographic examination is necessary to ensure proper neonatal management, considering that the majority of cases are diagnosed at this gestational age.

Treatment of ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm, a permanent challenge or a waste of resources? Prediction of outcome using a multi-organ-dysfunction score.

OBJECTIVES: in a retrospective study, attempts have been made to identify individual organ-dysfunction risk profiles influencing the outcome after surgery for ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysms. METHODS: out of 235 patients undergoing graft replacement for abdominal aortic aneurysms, 57 (53 men, four women, mean age 72 years [s.d. 8.8]) were treated for ruptured aneurysms in a 3-year period. Forty-eight preoperative, 13 intraoperative and 34 postoperative variables were evaluated statistically. A simple multi-organ dysfunction (MOD) score was adopted. RESULTS: the perioperative mortality was 32%. Three patients died intraoperatively, four within 48 h and 11 died later. A significant influence for pre-existing risk factors was identified only for cardiovascular diseases. Multiple linear-regression analysis indicated that a haemoglobin <90 g/l, systolic blood pressure <80 mmHg and ECG signs of ischaemia at admission were highly significant risk factors. The cause of death for patients, who died more than 48 h postoperatively, was mainly MOD. All patients with a MOD score >/=4 died (n=7). These patients required 27% of the intensive-care unit (ICU) days of all patients and 72% of the ICU days of the non-survivors. CONCLUSION: patients with ruptured aortic aneurysms from treatment should not be excluded. However, a physiological scoring system after 48 h appears justifiable in order to decide on the appropriateness of continual ICU support.

Utility of a biopsy in suspicious pigmented iris tumors.

BACKGROUND: In the presence of pigmented iris lesions evocative of malignant melanoma and implying oncological treatment, a foregoing biopsy to exclude a benign lesion may seem a reasonable approach. After examining patient files, the utility of such a diagnostic approach was explored. MATERIAL AND METHODS: Retrospective, consecutive histopathologic case series of 10 pigmented iris tumor specimens excised since 1993. Histopathologic diagnosis was compared with final diagnosis and outcome in the patient's medical chart. RESULTS: Five biopsies had only nevus cells, whereas ulterior clinical data or histopathologic examinations were compatible with the diagnosis of malignant melanoma. One biopsy contained insufficient sample tissue. Four biopsies confirmed clinical suspicion of iris melanoma. CONCLUSION: In the current case series, 6 out of 10 biopsies provided a falsely reassuring negative or an inconclusive result. Modern management techniques such as ultrasound biomicroscopy and proton therapy of the whole anterior segment have equally diminished indications for a biopsy. In cases clinically evocative of iris melanoma, a biopsy has only a relative value.

Considerations for prenatal counselling of patients with cardiac rhabdomyomas based on their cardiac and neurologic outcomes.

Cardiac rhabdomyomas are benign cardiac tumours with few cardiac complications, but with a known association to tuberous sclerosis that affects the neurologic outcome of the patients. We have analysed the long-term cardiac and neurological outcomes of patients with cardiac rhabdomyomas in order to allow comprehensive prenatal counselling, basing our findings on the records of all patients seen prenatally and postnatally with an echocardiographic diagnosis of cardiac rhabdomyoma encountered from August, 1982, to September, 2007. We analysed factors such as the number and the location of the tumours to establish their association with a diagnosis of tuberous sclerosis, predicting the cardiac and neurologic outcomes for the patients.Cardiac complications include arrhythmias, obstruction of the ventricular outflow tracts, and secondary cardiogenic shock. Arrhythmias were encountered most often during the neonatal period, with supraventricular tachycardia being the commonest rhythm disturbance identified. No specific dimension or location of the cardiac rhabdomyomas predicted the disturbances of rhythm.The importance of the diagnosis of tuberous sclerosis is exemplified by the neurodevelopmental complications, with four-fifths of the patients showing epilepsy, and two-thirds having delayed development. The presence of multiple cardiac tumours suggested a higher risk of being affected by tuberous sclerosis. The tumours generally regress after birth, and cardiac-related problems are rare after the perinatal period. Tuberous sclerosis and the associated neurodevelopmental complications dominate the clinical picture, and should form an important aspect of the prenatal counselling of parents.